Search Results

Search found 62087 results on 2484 pages for 'net framework extended'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 835/2484 | < Previous Page | 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842  | Next Page >

  • Ignore SSL errors in Zend_Http_Client

    - by webdestroya
    In PHP curl there are two functions used to ignore all SSL errors (invalid cert, self signed, expired, so on): curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); I am switching over to use Zend_Http_Client, but I can't seem to find a way to force it to ignore errors. (I don't have a way to test it just yet, I wanted to see if anybody has done this before) So, does anybody know the equivalent function/functions to do this in Zend_Http_Client?

    Read the article

  • Spring constructor injection of SLF4J logger - how to get injection target class?

    - by disown
    I'm trying to use Spring to inject a SLF4J logger into a class like so: @Component public class Example { private final Logger logger; @Autowired public Example(final Logger logger) { this.logger = logger; } } I've found the FactoryBean class, which I've implemented. But the problem is that I cannot get any information about the injection target: public class LoggingFactoryBean implements FactoryBean<Logger> { @Override public Class<?> getObjectType() { return Logger.class; } @Override public boolean isSingleton() { return false; } @Override public Logger getObject() throws Exception { return LoggerFactory.getLogger(/* how do I get a hold of the target class (Example.class) here? */); } } Is FactoryBean even the right way to go? When using picocontainers factory injection, you get the Type of the target passed in. In guice it is a bit trickier. But how do you accomplish this in Spring?

    Read the article

  • How to setup a Zend_Application with an application.ini and a user.ini

    - by Peter Smit
    I am using Zend_Application and it does not feel right that I am mixing in my application.ini both application and user configuration. What I mean with this is the following. For example, my application needs some library classes in the namespace MyApp_ . So in application.ini I put autoloaderNamespaces[] = "MyApp_". This is pure application configuration, no-one except a programmer would change these. On the other hand I put there a database configuration, something that a SysAdmin would change. My idea is that I would split options between an application.ini and an user.ini, where the options in user.ini take preference (so I can define standard values in application.ini). Is this a good idea? How can I best implement this? The idea's I have are Extending Zend_Application to take multiple config files Making an init function in my Bootstrap loading the user.ini Parsing the config files in my index.php and pass these to Zend_Application (sounds ugly) What shall I do? I would like to have the 'cleanest' solution, which is prepared for the future (newer ZF versions, and other developers working on the same app)

    Read the article

  • Is using the keyword var bad in C# 2.0?

    - by Patrick
    I read an article about using C# 3 features in C# 2 where you can for instance type var x = 2; and even if the project is a 2.0 project, the Visual Studio 2008 compiler picks it up and generates the same code as it would if you type int x = 2. But what I don't get is, should you not do this in some cases? I always thought that the var keyword didn't arrive until C# 3.. If the compiler generates the same code and I can type C# 3 code and C# 2 code exactly the same, what is the differance really, because the CLI is the same, right? Quote from the link above Behind the scenes, the compiler generate regular .NET 2.0 code. Is there any difference between .NET 2.0 code and .NET 3 code?

    Read the article

  • IIS6 Metabase Compatiblity not installing correctly for Vista IIS7

    - by Mr Snuffle
    I've been bashing my head against this one for a few days, and haven't had any luck with it. I'm unable to get my VS2010 ASP.NET project to deploy to IIS. I receive the error "Unable to create the virtual directory. To access local IIS Web sites, you must install the following IIS Components IIS 6 Metabase and IIS 6 Configuration Compatibility ASP.NET In addition, you must run Visual Studio in the context of an Administrator Account" I've most certainly installed the metabase option, but it still shows up. I'm also not sure why it's telling me to install ASP.NET. Google is being entirely unhelpful, I was wondering if anyone here has any suggestions. I'm running Vista Ultimate 64Bit

    Read the article

  • Yii, yiic and console

    - by undsoft
    In the installation instructions for Yii it is nescessary to use console and command line utility - yiic. Well, on my shared hosting I don't have ssh access. This is why I have following questions: How often and for what reasons will I have to use console? Is there a way to avoid using yiic? May I run yiic on local server and then just transfer everything to the final web server? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Using jquery with nested masterpages

    - by diver-d
    Hi everyone, Can anyone show me how to use jquery in an asp.net nested masterpage. I have my main masterpage where I have added the link to the jquery libaray and also the validation framework. I have then created another masterpage with some styling and created a aspx page based on that masterpage. How can I attach the validation framework to textboxes within my page? I have tried $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtPostCode.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true }, <%=txtContactEmail.UniqueID %>: { required: true, email:true } }, messages: { <%=txtPostCode.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } } }); However nothing happens. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • How to reject a call without delay in ring on windows mobile?

    - by Mayur
    Hello, I am trying to write a code to reject the incoming call programatically on windows mobile 6. my requirement is to achieve this without a single ring. I tried using systemstate property but it gives deley of one ring. I even tried with OpenNETCF's tapi wrapper but still i am getting the same result. Can anybody tell me what actually can I do to achieve this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • References between Spring beans when using a NameSpaceHandler

    - by teabot
    I'm trying to use a Spring context namespace to build some existing configuration objects in an application. I have defined a context and pretty much have if working satisfactorily - however, I'd like one bean defined by my namespace to implicitly reference another: Consider the class named 'Node': public Class Node { private String aField; private Node nextNode; public Node(String aField, Node nextNode) { ... } Now in my Spring context I have something like so: <myns:container> <myns:node aField="nodeOne"/> <myns:node aField="nodeTwo"/> </myns:container> Now I'd like nodeOne.getNode() == nodeTwo to be true. So that nodeOne.getNode() and nodeTwo refer to the same bean instance. These are pretty much the relevant parts I have in my AbstractBeanDefinitionParser: public AbstractBeanDefinition parseInternal(Element element, ParserContext parserContext) { ... BeanDefinitionBuilder containerFactory = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(ContainerFactoryBean.class); List<BeanDefinition> containerNodes = Lists.newArrayList(); String previousNodeBeanName; // iterate backwards over the 'node' elements for (int i = nodeElements.size() - 1; i >= 0; --i) { BeanDefinitionBuilder node = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(Node.class); node.setScope(BeanDefinition.SCOPE_SINGLETON); String nodeField = nodeElements.getAttribute("aField"); node.addConstructorArgValue(nodeField); if (previousNodeBeanName != null) { node.addConstructorArgValue(new RuntimeBeanReference(previousNodeBeanName)); } else { node.addConstructorArgValue(null); } BeanDefinition nodeDefinition = node.getBeanDefinition(); previousNodeBeanName = "inner-node-" + nodeField; parserContext.getRegistry().registerBeanDefinition(previousNodeBeanName, nodeDefinition); containerNodes.add(node); } containerFactory.addPropertyValue("nodes", containerNodes); } When the application context is created my Node instances are created and recognized as singletons. Furthermore, the nextNode property is populated with a Node instance with the previous nodes configuration - however, it isn't the same instance. If I output a log message in Node's constructor I see two instances created for each node bean definition. I can think of a few workarounds myself but I'm keen to use the existing model. So can anyone tell me how I can pass these runtime bean references so that I get the correct singleton behaviour for my Node instances?

    Read the article

  • Zend Layout and Bootstrapping

    - by emeraldjava
    So i'm using the standard Zend Layout for my site. I have a number of custom controllers and views, and the content of these pages is displayed, but the details in the head element of the layout.phtml are not shown. Do i need to manually associate the Zend_Layout with each specific controller?. I expected since the layout is loaded via the bootstrap this should be available for free. My app.ini file has # layout resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.layout.layout = "layout" #resources.view[] = # Views resources.view.encoding = "UTF-8" resources.view.basePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/views/" my layout.phtml <?php echo $this->doctype() ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <?php echo $this->headTitle() ?> <?php echo $this->jQuery();?> </head> <!-- application/layouts/scripts/layout.phtml --> <body> <div id="content"> <?php echo $this->layout()->content ?> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • Adding Parameters to Zend_Navigation

    - by Grant Collins
    I have a problem with Zend_Navigation that I am hoping for a little guidance on. I'm in the process of adding a Zend_Navigation to a legacy app as described [here on SO].1 The thing that I am not sure of is how to add parameters to the navigation menu after the data is loaded from the xml file. What I want to do is get 2 identifying parameters from the url and add them to the Zend_Navigation so that they are included in things such as the breadcrumb bar, so that if a user selects the previous item in the breadcrumb they are returned with the correct params in the url. The parameters, I believe need to be set at the Action level rather than the controller. Any help would be appreciated. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • POCO inherited type could not pass addObject method

    - by bryanevil
    Hi all I am using a POCO class name "Company" generate from the T4 POCO code generator to create a derived class - name "CompanyBO" by "public class CompanyBO:Company", but when i call addObject method: public void Delete(T entity) { CustomerWebPortalEntities entities = new CustomerWebPortalEntities(); entities.AddObject(entity.GetType().BaseType.Name, entity); entities.DeleteObject(entity); SaveChanges(); } it compliant this: The EntitySet name 'CustomerWebPortalEntities.Company' could not be found. System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.GetEntitySet(String entitySetName, String entityContainerName) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.GetEntitySetFromName(String entitySetName) Could you please tell me whats going wrong here? How do I resolve this problem? Best Regards Bryan

    Read the article

  • zend_navigation and modules

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I am developing an application at the moment with zend and I have seperated the app into modules. The default module is the main site where unlogged in users access and have free reign to look around. When you log in, depending on the user type you either go to module A or module B, which is controlled by simple ACLs. If you have access to Module A you can not access Module B and visa versa. Both user types can see the default module. Now I want to use Zend_Navigation to manage the entire applications navigation in all modules. I am not sure how to go about this, as all the examples that I have seen work within a module or very simple application. I've tried to have my navigation.xml file look like this: <configdata> <navigation> <label>Home</label> <controller>index</controller> <action>index</action> <module>default</module> <pages> <tour> <label>tour</label> <controller>tour</controller> <action>index</action> <module>default</module> </tour> <blog> <label>blog</label> <url>http://blog.mysite.com</url> </blog> <support> <label>Support</label> <controller>support</controller> <action>index</action> <module>default</module> </support> </pages> </navigation> </configdata> This if fine for the default module, but how would I go about the other modules to this navigation page? Each module has it's own home page, and others etc. Would I be better off adding a unique navigation.xml file for each module that is loaded in the preDispatch plugin that I have written to handle my ACLs?? Or keep them in one massive navigation file? Any tips would be fantastic. Thanks, Grant

    Read the article

  • One-to-many relationship in the same table in zend

    - by Behrang
    I have groupTable(group_id,group_name,group_date,group_parent_id) in face each group have many group child I create groupModel and I want to begin coding is this right code to handle protected $_name = 'group'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_group'); protected $_referenceMap = array('Model_group' = array('columns' = array('group_parent_id') , 'refTableClass' = 'Model_group' , 'refColumns' = array('group_id') , 'onDelete' = self::CASCADE , 'onUpdate' = self::RESTRICT) );

    Read the article

  • SQLCE 3.5 FIPS compliance on Windows Mobile 6.0

    - by trampster
    What is a positions of SQLCE 3.5 when running on Windows Mobile 6.0 in relation to FIPS compliance. I have read lots of differing reports on this and need a definitive answer, one which comes from a reliable source (please provide links) I have read this "The encryption modes in SQL Server Compact 3.5 are FIPS complaint if FIPS mode is enabled at the OS level." Is this true? if so how does one enable it at the OS level.

    Read the article

  • Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

    - by Nux
    Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • What are the benefits of using ORM over XML Serialization/Deserialization?

    - by Tequila Jinx
    I've been reading about NHibernate and Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform Object Relational Mapping against my data access layer. I'm interested in the benefits of having an established framework to perform ORM, but I'm curious as to the performance costs of using it against standard XML Serialization and Deserialization. Right now, I develop stored procedures in Oracle and SQL Server that use XML Types for either input or output parameters and return or shred XML depending on need. I use a custom database command object that uses generics to deserialize the XML results into a specified serializable class. By using a combination of generics, xml (de)serialization and Microsoft's DAAB, I've got a process that's fairly simple to develop against regardless of the data source. Moreover, since I exclusively use Stored Procedures to perform database operations, I'm mostly protected from changes in the data structure. Here's an over-simplified example of what I've been doing. static void main() { testXmlClass test = new test(1); test.Name = "Foo"; test.Save(); } // Example Serializable Class ------------------------------------------------ [XmlRootAttribute("test")] class testXmlClass() { [XmlElement(Name="id")] public int ID {set; get;} [XmlElement(Name="name")] public string Name {set; get;} //create an instance of the class loaded with data. public testXmlClass(int id) { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); this = db.ExecuteSerializable("myGetByIDProcedure"); } //save the class to the database... public Save() { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); db.AddInParameter("myInputParameter", DbType.XML, this); db.ExecuteSerializableNonQuery("mySaveProcedure"); } } // Database Handler ---------------------------------------------------------- class GenericDBProvider { public T ExecuteSerializable<T>(string commandText) where T : class { XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); // connection and command code is assumed for the purposes of this example. // the final results basically just come down to... return xml.Deserialize(commandResults) as T; } public void ExecuteSerializableNonQuery(string commandText) { // once again, connection and command code is assumed... // basically, just execute the command along with the specified // parameters which have been serialized. } public void AddInParameter(string name, DbType type, object value) { StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(value.GetType()); //handle serialization for serializable classes. if (type == DbType.Xml && (value.GetType() != typeof(System.String))) { x.Serialize(w, value); w.Close(); // store serialized object in a DbParameterCollection accessible // to my other methods. } else { //handle all other parameter types } } } I'm starting a new project which will rely heavily on database operations. I'm very curious to know whether my current practices will be sustainable in a high-traffic situation and whether or not I should consider switching to NHibernate or Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform what essentially seems to boil down to the same thing I'm currently doing. I appreciate any advice you may have.

    Read the article

  • how to properly display utf encoded characters on my utf-8 encoded page?

    - by Ali
    Hi guys I'm retrieving emails and some of my emails have utf encoded text. However even though my page is encoded as utf 8 - in some places when I try to out put utf text I get funny characters like : =?utf-8?B?Rlc6INqp24zYpyDYotm+INin2LMg2YXYs9qp2LHYp9uB2bkg2qnbjCDZhtmC?= =?utf-8?B?2YQg2qnYsdiz2qnYqtuSINuB24zaug==?= Whereas in other areas of the same page it displays fine. WHats going on?

    Read the article

  • Stop propagating deletes

    - by Mark
    Is it just me or is anyone else finding EF very difficult to use in a real app :( I'm using it as the data layer and have created custom business objects. I'm having difficulty converting the business objects back to EF objects and updating/adding/deleting from the database. Does anyone know a good, simple example of doing this? Actually the current problem that's driving me nuts is when I delete something EF tries to delete other related stuff as well. For example, if I delete an invoice it will also delete the associated customer! Seems odd. I can't figure out how to stop it doing this. // tried: invoiceEfData.CustomerReference = null; // also tried invoiceEfData.Customer = null; context.DeleteObject(invoiceEfData); context.SaveChanges(); // at this point I get a database error due to it attempting to delete the customer

    Read the article

  • Strange behaviour with Microsoft.WindowsCE.Forms

    - by Mohammadreza
    I have a Windows Mobile application in which I want to check the device orientation. Therefore I wrote the following property in one of my forms: internal static Microsoft.WindowsCE.Forms.ScreenOrientation DeviceOriginalOrientation { get; private set; } The strange thing is that after that whenever I open a UserControl, the designer shows this warning even if that UserControl doesn't use the property: Could not load file or assembly 'Microsoft.WindowsCE.Forms, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=969db8053d3322ac' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) Commenting the above property will dismiss the warning and shows the user control again. The application is built successfully and runs without any problems in both cases. Does anybody know why this happens and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • EF Code First Detached Entity not updating object reference

    - by Alvaro
    I'm posting the exact entity: public class Person : ContactableEntity { public Plan Plan { get; set; } public int Record { get; set; } public int PersonTypeValue { get; set; } } I'm using the following code to update in a disconected context fashion: public void Update(DbSet MySet, object Obj) { MySet.Attach(Obj); var Entry = this.Entry(Obj); Entry.State = EntityState.Modified; this.SaveChanges(); } This is a method exposed by my dbContext Called this way: PersistentManager.Update(PersistentManager.Personas,UpdatedPersona); The problem is, EF will update any property but the referenced Plan object. Can someone tell me where is the mistake? In advance : the entity reaches the point of update with all the properties correctly set. EF just fails to update the FK in the Database (no exception though)

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842  | Next Page >