Search Results

Search found 88156 results on 3527 pages for 'code contracts'.

Page 838/3527 | < Previous Page | 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842 843 844 845  | Next Page >

• Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

  - by Andrew White

  In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

  Read the article

• url rewrite & redirect question

  - by Shawn

  Say currently I have url like : http://mydomain.com/showpost.php?p=123 Now I want to make it prettier : http://mydomain.com/123/post-title I'm using apache rewrite which grabs segment '123' and put the url back to http://mydomain.com/showpost.php?p=123 OK. Here is the problem. I want to redirect the original non-pretty urls which were indexed by Google to the pretty versions, I want this because I heard that Google may punish me if he sees multiple urls pointing to identical content. So I need to redirect /showpost.php?p=123 to /123/post-title This I have to do in my php code coz there's no way Apache to be able to figure out the 'post-title', but if I put the redirect code in php code, then it will be a infinite loop, such as : Request : /showpost.php?p=123 redirected to : /123/post-title rewritten to: /showpost.php?p=123 redirected again to : /123/post-title ... So on and so forth. Sorry I should Google the solution first but I really don't know how to describe my situation in English to make Google return reasonable results. Please help me. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

  - by romaintaz

  Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

  Read the article

• Having a Python package install itself under a different name

  - by cool-RR

  I'm developing a package called garlicsim. (Website.) The package is intended for Python 2.X, but I am also offerring Python 3 support on a different fork called garlicsim_py3.(1) So both of these packages live side by side on PyPI, and Python 3 users install garlicsim_py3, and Python 2 users install garlicsim. The problem is: When third party modules want to use garlicsim, they should have one package name to refer to, not two. Sure, they can do something like this: try: import garlicsim except ImportError: import garlicsim_py3 as garlicsim But I would prefer not to make the developers of these modules do this. Is there a way that garlicsim_py3 will install itself under the alias garlicsim? What I want is for a Python 3 user to be able to import garlicsim and refer to the module all the time as garlicsim, but that it will really be garlicsim_py3. I know that the Distribute project does something like this: They make it so you can import setuptools and it will be redirected into their code. I have no idea how they do it. Any ideas? (1) I've reached the decision to support Python 3 on a fork instead of in the same code base; It's important for me that the code base will be clean, and I would really not want to introduce compatibilty hacks.

  Read the article

• How to generate hibernate POJO classes programmatically?

  - by Vatsala

  Hi I am aware of the Hibernate Eclipse plugin that helps us (through a series of screens and button clicks) to generate the POJO and DAO classes for the underlying tables. But I would like to mimic this in a runtime environment, i.e. I would like to be able to do the exact same steps programmatically , where I should be able to supply the .cfg.xml file, the reveng.xml file, the database URL, the destination folder, via a command line/ parameters within main(String[] args).. Apparently there is no such tool available which works in a pure Hibernate scenario. There is one which is tuned to generate code for the spring framework - but thats not of direct use to me right now. I tried downloading hibernate-tools.jar's source code for the eclipse plugin, but right now the src code download link at hibernate.org(new design) has been disabled for some reason. Has anyone handled such a thing before? Or can you give me some clues to do this? I have tried a certain JDBCReader class's object, the rationale being read all tables using JDBCReader's methods and then figure out how to use hbm2POJO generator class....

  Read the article

• Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

  - by Yuval

  When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

  Read the article

• JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

  - by MgSam

  I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

  Read the article

• Problem Parsing JSON Result with jQuery

  - by senfo

  I am attempting to parse JSON using jQuery and I'm running into issues. In the code below, I'm using a static file, but I've also tested using an actual URL. For some reason, the data keeps coming back as null: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>JSON Test</title> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script> $.getJSON('results.json', function(data) { alert(data); // Result is always null }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> The JSON results look like the following: {"title":"HEALTHPOINT TYEE CAMPUS","link":"http://www.healthpointchc.org","id":"tag:datawarehouse.hrsa.gov,2010-04-29:/8357","org":"HEALTHPOINT TYEE CAMPUS","address":{"street-address":"4424 S. 188TH St.","locality":"Seatac","region":"Washington","postal-code":"98188-5028"},"tel":"206-444-7746","category":"Service Delivery Site","location":"47.4344818181818 -122.277672727273","update":"2010-04-28T00:00:00-05:00"} If I replace my URL with the Flickr API URL (http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?), I get back a valid JSON result that I am able to make use of. I have successfully validated my JSON at JSONLint, so I've run out of ideas as to what I might be doing wrong. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

  - by pu.griffin

  When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

  Read the article

• Float a div in top right corner without overlapping sibling header

  - by Maxime R.

  Having a div and a h1 inside a section, how do i float the div in the top right corner without overlapping the text of the header ? The HTML code is the following: <section> <h1>some long long long long header, a whole line, 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6</h1> <div><button>button</button></div> </section> I tried an absolute position relative to the parent but the text is overlapped, http://jsfiddle.net/FnpS8/2/ Using this CSS code: section { position: relative; } h1 { display: inline; } div { position: absolute; top: 0; right: 0; } I tried floating the div to the right but it doesn't remain in the top right corner, http://jsfiddle.net/P6xCw/2/ Using this CSS code: h1 { display: inline; } div { float: right; } ? I know there is a lot of similar questions but I couldn't find one solving this case.

  Read the article

• Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

  - by Chris

  I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

  Read the article

• SQL UNION ALL problem after using UNION ALL more than 10 times

  - by VBGKM

  I'm getting a formatting problem if I use more than 10 UNION ALL statements in my VBA Code. If I use 10 or less everything works great. What I'm trying to do is combine 12 worksheets (Excel 2007). I have a numerical column called SC that turns into string and date if I have more than 10 UNION ALL. If I try to use ROUND with more than 10 UNION ALL my last selection will change all the records by one unit. I'm using Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0 as my provider and my connection string has worked for several things in my code so far. Is there any limit for UNION ALL statements when using OLEDB? Here is my code. Dim StrOr As String Dim i As Variant Dim Cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset For i = 1 To 12 StrOr = StrOr & " " & "SELECT SC FROM [" & MonthName(i, True) & "$" & "] UNION ALL" Next StrOr = Left(StrOr, Len(StrOr) - 9) & ";" Call GetADOCnt Call ADORs

  Read the article

• Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

  - by Arvanem

  Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

  Read the article

• Warning: passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type" What should I do

  - by Amarpreet

  Hi All, i am pretty new in iphone development. I have created one function to insert data into database. The code compiles successfully. But when comes to statement sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [s UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); it does not do anything but hangs AND in warning it says "passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type"" for all statements in Red colour The same code i am using to fetch the data from database and its working on other viewController. Below in the code. Its pretty straightforward. Please help guys. -(void) SaveData: (NSString *)FirstName: (NSString *)LastName: (NSString *)State: (NSString *)Street: (NSString *)PostCode { databaseName = @"Zen.sqlite"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDire ctory, NSUserDomainMask,YES); NSString *documentsDir=[documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath=[documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; sqlite3 *database; if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sqlStatement = "insert into customers (FirstName, LastName, State, Street, PostCode) values(?, ?, ?, ?, ?)"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [FirstName UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,2,[LastName UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,3,[State UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,4,[Street UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,5,[PostCode UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_step(sqlStatement); sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); }

  Read the article

• remove specific values from multi value dictionary

  - by Anthony

  I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

  Read the article

• What programming hack from your past are you most ashamed of?

  - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat

  We've all been there (usually when we are young and inexperienced). Fixing it properly is too difficult, too risky or too time-consuming. So you go down the hack path. Which hack from your past are you most ashamed of, and why? I'm talking about the ones where you would be really embarrassed if someone could attribute the hack to you (quite easily if you are using revision control software). One hack per answer please. Mine was shortly after I started in my first job. I was working on a legacy C system, and there was this strange defect where a screen view failed to update properly under certain circumstances. I wasn't familiar with how to use the debugger at this time, so I added traces into the code to figure out what was going on. Then I realised that the defect didn't occur anymore with the traces in the code. I slowly backed out the traces one-by-one, until I realised that only a single trace was required to make the problem go away. My logic now would tell me that I was dealing with some sort of race-condition or timing related issue that the trace just "hid under the rug". But I checked in the code with the following line, and all was well: printf(""); Which hacks are you ashamed of?

  Read the article

• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

  Read the article

• How to properly logout of facebook

  - by Gublooo

  hey guys This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1386557/how-to-log-out-users-using-facebook-connect-in-php-and-zend/1386749#1386749 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1546277/trouble-logging-out-of-a-facebook-connect-site-and-destroying-sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

  Read the article

• How can I use a class with the same name from another namespace in my class?

  - by Beau Simensen

  I have two classes with the same name in different namespaces. I want one of these classes to reference the other class. The reason is that I am migrating to some newer code and I want to update the old code to simply pass through to the newer code. Here is a super basic example: namespace project { namespace legacy { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : url_(url) { } string url() { return url_; } private: string url_; }; }} // namespace project::legacy; namespace project { namespace current { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : url_(url) {} string url() { return url_; } private: string url_; }} // namespace project::current; I expected to be able to do the following to project::legacy::Content, but I am having trouble with some linker issues. Is this an issue with how I'm trying to do this, or do I need to look more closely at my project files to see if I have some sort of weird dependency issues? #include "project/current/Content.h" namespace project { namespace legacy { class Content { public: Content(const string& url) : actualContent_(url) { } string url() { return actualContent_.url(); } private: project::current::Content actualContent_; }; }} // namespace project::legacy; The test application compiles fine if I try to reference an instance of project::current::Content but if I try to reference project::current::Content from project::legacy::Content I get an: undefined reference to `project::current::Content::Content(...)` UPDATE As it turns out, this was a GNU Autotoolset issue and was unrelated to the actual topic. Thanks to everyone for their help and suggestions!

  Read the article

• Creating an Admin directory in Rails

  - by matsko

  I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

  Read the article

• Ignoring a model with all blank fields in Ruby on Rails

  - by aguynamedloren

  I am trying to create multiple items (each with a name value and a content value) in a single form. The code I have is functioning, but I cannot figure out how to ignore items that are blank. Here's the code: #item.rb class Item < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :content validates_presence_of :name, :content end #items_controller.rb class ItemsController < ApplicationController def new @items = Array.new(3){ Item.new } end def create @items = params[:items].values.collect{|item|Item.new(item)} if @items.each(&:save!) flash[:notice] = "Successfully created item." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end #new.html.erb <% form_tag :action => 'create' do %> <%@items.each_with_index do |item, index| %> <% fields_for "items[#{index}]", item do |f| %> <p> Name: <%= f.text_field :name %> Content: <%= f.text_field :content %> </p> <% end %> <% end %> <%= submit_tag %> <% end %> This code works when all fields for all items are filled out in the form, but fails if any fields are left blank (due to validations). The goal is that 1 or 2 items could be saved, even if others are left blank. I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, but I've been tinkering for hours with no avail. Any help is appreciated!

  Read the article

• Why does the OnDeserialization not fire for XML Deserialization?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a problem which I have been bashing my head against for the better part of three hours. I am almost certain that I've missed something blindingly obvious... I have a simple XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <WeightStore xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Records> <Record actual="150" date="2010-05-01T00:00:00" /> <Record actual="155" date="2010-05-02T00:00:00" /> </Records> </WeightStore> I have a simple class structure: [Serializable] public class Record { [XmlAttribute("actual")] public double weight { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("date")] public DateTime date { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public double trend { get; set; } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("WeightStore")] public class SimpleWeightStore { [XmlArrayAttribute("Records")] private List<Record> records = new List<Record>(); public List<Record> Records { get { return records; } } [OnDeserialized()] public void OnDeserialized_Method(StreamingContext context) { // This code never gets called Console.WriteLine("OnDeserialized"); } } I am using these in both calling code and in the class files: using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Runtime.Serialization; I have some calling code: SimpleWeightStore weight_store_reload = new SimpleWeightStore(); TextReader reader = new StringReader(xml); XmlSerializer deserializer = new XmlSerializer(weight_store.GetType()); weight_store_reload = (SimpleWeightStore)deserializer.Deserialize(reader); The problem is that I am expecting OnDeserialized_Method to get called, and it isn't. I suspect it might have something to do with the fact that it's XML deserialization rather than Runtime deserialization, and perhaps I am using the wrong attribute name, but I can't find out what it might be. Any ideas, folks?

  Read the article

• jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

  - by Fred Kafka

  I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

  Read the article

• Cannot hide a UIButton - Please help!

  - by Neurofluxation

  Hey again, I have the following code: visitSite.hidden = YES; For some reason, when I click a UIButton and call this piece of code, the visitSite button does not hide. The code is within this block: -(IBAction)welcomeButtonPressed:(id)sender { [UIButton beginAnimations:@"welcomeAnimation" context:NULL]; [UIButton setAnimationDuration:1.5]; [UIButton SetAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(nowHideThisSiteButton:finished:context:)]; [UIButton setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionCurlUp forView:self.view cache:YES]; ((UIView *)sender).hidden = YES; [UIButton commitAnimations]; } and the stop selector below: -(void)nowHideThisSiteButton:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL *)finished context:(void *)context { visitSite.hidden = YES; } I've also tried [visitSite setHidden:YES]; and that fails as well. ALSO I've noticed that the setAnimationDidStopSelector does not get called at all. Also, visitSite (when NSLogged) equals: <UIButton: 0x1290f0; frame = (0 0; 320 460); opaque = NO; autoresize = RM+BM; layer = <CALayer: 0x1290f0>> visitSite.hidden (when NSLogged) equals: NULL Any more ideas? :(

  Read the article

• Problems pulling data from NSMutableArray for MapKit?

  - by Graeme

  Hi, I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items). Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the items NSMutableArray. I'm struggling to transfer the data into the new class (mapView) to show it in the map - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the map. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) to the mapView? Thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842 843 844 845  | Next Page >