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  • Python subprocess: 64 bit windows server PIPE doesn't exist :(

    - by Spaceman1861
    I have a GUI that launches selected python scripts and runs it in cmd next to the gui window. I am able to get my launcher to work on my (windows xp 32 bit) laptop but when I upload it to the server(64bit windows iss7) I am running into some issues. The script runs, to my knowledge but spits back no information into the cmd window. My script is a bit of a Frankenstein that I have hacked and slashed together to get it to work I am fairly certain that this is a very bad example of the subprocess module. Just wondering if i could get a hand :). My question is how do i have to alter my code to work on a 64bit windows server. :) from Tkinter import * import pickle,subprocess,errno,time,sys,os PIPE = subprocess.PIPE if subprocess.mswindows: from win32file import ReadFile, WriteFile from win32pipe import PeekNamedPipe import msvcrt else: import select import fcntl def recv_some(p, t=.1, e=1, tr=5, stderr=0): if tr < 1: tr = 1 x = time.time()+t y = [] r = '' pr = p.recv if stderr: pr = p.recv_err while time.time() < x or r: r = pr() if r is None: if e: raise Exception(message) else: break elif r: y.append(r) else: time.sleep(max((x-time.time())/tr, 0)) return ''.join(y) def send_all(p, data): while len(data): sent = p.send(data) if sent is None: raise Exception(message) data = buffer(data, sent) The code above isn't mine def Run(): print filebox.get(0) location = filebox.get(0) location = location.__str__().replace(listbox.get(ANCHOR).__str__(),"") theTime = time.asctime(time.localtime(time.time())) lastbox.delete(0, END) lastbox.insert(END,theTime) for line in CookieCont: if listbox.get(ANCHOR) in line and len(line) > 4: line[4] = theTime else: "Fill In the rip Details to record the time" if __name__ == '__main__': if sys.platform == 'win32' or sys.platform == 'win64': shell, commands, tail = ('cmd', ('cd "'+location+'"',listbox.get(ANCHOR).__str__()), '\r\n') else: return "Please use contact admin" a = Popen(shell, stdin=PIPE, stdout=PIPE) print recv_some(a) for cmd in commands: send_all(a, cmd + tail) print recv_some(a) send_all(a, 'exit' + tail) print recv_some(a, e=0) The Code above is mine :)

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  • c# sending sms from computer

    - by I__
    i have this code: private SerialPort port = new SerialPort("COM1", 115200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Console.WriteLine("Incoming Data:"); port.WriteTimeout = 5000; port.ReadTimeout = 5000; // Attach a method to be called when there is data waiting in the port's buffer port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); // Begin communications port.Open(); #region PhoneSMSSetup port.Write("AT+CMGF=1\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CNMI=2,2\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CSCA=\"+4790002100\"\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); #endregion // Enter an application loop which keeps this thread alive Application.Run(); i got it from here: http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/C_Sharp/Q_22832563.html i have a new winforms empty application: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } } can you please tell me: where exactly would i paste the code? how do i get the code to run? i am sending AT COMMANDS to my cell phone that is attached to the computer

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  • Dynamically add items to Tkinter Canvas

    - by nick369
    I'm attempting to learn Tkinter with the goal of being able to create a 'real-time' scope to plot data. As a test, I'm trying to draw a polygon on the canvas every time the 'draw' button is pressed. The triangle position is randomized. I have two problems: There is a triangle on the canvas as soon as the program starts, why and how do I fix this? It doesn't draw any triangles when I press the button, at least none that I can see. CODE from Tkinter import * from random import randint class App: def __init__(self,master): #frame = Frame(master) #frame.pack(side = LEFT) self.plotspc = Canvas(master,height = 100, width = 200, bg = "white") self.plotspc.grid(row=0,column = 2, rowspan = 5) self.button = Button(master, text = "Quit", fg = "red", \ command = master.quit) self.button.grid(row=0,column=0) self.drawbutton = Button(master, text = "Draw", command = \ self.pt([50,50])) self.drawbutton.grid(row = 0, column = 1) def pt(self, coords): coords[0] = coords[0] + randint(-20,20) coords[1] = coords[1] + randint(-20,20) x = (0,5,10) y = (0,10,0) xp = [coords[0] + xv for xv in x] yp = [coords[1] + yv for yv in y] ptf = zip(xp,yp) self.plotspc.create_polygon(*ptf) if _name_ == "_main_": root = Tk() app = App(root) root.mainloop() The code is formatting strangely within the code tags, I have no idea how to fix this.

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  • Java enums in generic type

    - by Marcin Cylke
    Hi, I'd like to create a generic enum-based mapper for IBatis. I'm doing this with the below code. This does have compile time errors, which I don't know how to fix. Maybe my solution is just plain wrong (keep in mind the use of IBatis), in such case please suggest something better. Any help appreciated. What I want to achieve is to define subsequent mappers as: public class XEnumTypeHandler extends CommonEnumTypeHandler<X> { } The current code: public class CommonEnumTypeHandler<T extends Enum> implements TypeHandlerCallback { public void setParameter(ParameterSetter ps, Object o) throws SQLException { if (o.getClass().isAssignableFrom(**T**)) { ps.setString(((**T**) o).value().toUpperCase()); } else throw new SQLException("Excpected ParameterType object than: " + o); } public Object getResult(ResultGetter rs) throws SQLException { Object o = valueOf(rs.getString()); if (o == null) throw new SQLException("Unknown parameter type: " + rs.getString()); return o; } public Object valueOf(String s) { for (T pt : T.**values()**) { if (pt.**value()**.equalsIgnoreCase(s)) return pt; } return null; } } I've added error markings to the above code, the error messages are in order: T cannot be resolved The method value() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T

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  • Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

    - by Alex Worden
    Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

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  • Inserting javascript with jQuery .html

    - by Andrew Appleby
    I'm experiencing an issue with a website I'm working on, where I originally believed I could simply replace $("main").html('THIS') which was originally code for a flash object, with a new and improved HTML5/Javascript version. The original code: $("#main").html('<div style="height: 100%; width: 100%; overflow: hidden;"><object width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000">\ <param value="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" name="movie">\ <param value="true" name="allowFullScreen">\ <param value="#737373" name="bgcolor">\ <param value="" name="FlashVars">\ <embed width="100%" height="100%" flashvars="" bgcolor="#737373" allowfullscreen="true" src="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer">\ </object></div>\ '); }); And my (failed) attempt at inserting my new code: $("#main").html('<script type="text/javascript">pano=new pano2vrPlayer("container");skin=new pano2vrSkin(pano);pano.readConfigUrl("xml/tablet_'+image_id+'.xml");hideUrlBar();</script>'); It doesn't even work when I just put , so I know it's gotta be the javascript itself. I've looked at the solutions out there, but I can't make sense in how to properly implement them here in the most efficient way. Your help is much appreciated, thanks!

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  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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  • using xpath get the correct value in selectName

    - by Sangeeta
    Below I have written the code. I need help to get the right value in selectName. I am new to XPath. Basically with this code I am trying to achieve if employeeName = Chris I need to return 23549 to the calling function. Please help. Part of the code: public static string getEmployeeeID(string employeeName) { Cache cache = HttpContext.Current.Cache; string cacheNameEmployee = employeeName + "Tech"; if (cache[cacheNameEpm] == null) { XPathDocument doc = new XPathDocument(HttpContext.Current.Request.MapPath("inc/xml/" + SiteManager.Site.ToString() + "TechToolTip.xml")); XPathNavigator navigator = doc.CreateNavigator(); string selectName = "/Technologies/Technology[FieldName='" + fieldName + "']/EpmId"; XPathNodeIterator nodes = navigator.Select(selectName); if (nodes.Count > 0) { if (nodes.Current.Name.Equals("FieldName")) //nodes.Current.MoveToParent(); //nodes.Current.MoveToParent(); //nodes.Current.MoveToChild("//EpmId"); cache.Add(cacheNameEpm, nodes.Current.Value, null, DateTime.Now + new TimeSpan(4, 0, 0), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration, CacheItemPriority.Default, null); } } return cache[cacheNameEpm] as string; } XML file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Employees> <Employee> <EName>Chris</EName> <ID>23556</ID> </Employee> <Employee> <EName>CBailey</EName> <ID>22222</ID> </Employee> <Employee> <EName>Meghan</EName> <ID>12345</ID> </Employee> </Employees> PLEASE NOTE:This XML file has 100 nodes. I just put 1 to indicate the structure.

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  • Symfony2 Theming form generated by embedded controller action

    - by user1112057
    I am generating the form in embedded controller action. And now i have faced the following problem. The Form Theming is not working in that case. So what i have: The tempalte "page.html.twig" {% block content %} {% render 'MyBundle:Widget:index' %} {% endblock %} The indexAction() creates the form and rendering another template "form.html.twig" which is normally renders a form using form_row, form_rest and so on. So, now i am trying to customize form theming, and here is my problem. When i put the code {% form_theme form _self %} in the page.html.twig, i got an error the the form variable does not exists. And its correct, the form var is created later in the embedded controller. But when i put the theming code in embedded template "form.html.twig", i got another error "Variable "compound" does not exist" {% block form_label %} {% spaceless %} {% if not compound %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'for': id}) %} {% endif %} {% if required %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'class': (label_attr.class|default('') ~ ' required')|trim}) %} {% endif %} {% if label is empty %} {% set label = name|humanize %} {% endif %} <label{% for attrname, attrvalue in label_attr %} {{ attrname }}="{{ attrvalue }}"{% endfor %} {% if attr.tooltip is defined %}title="{{ attr.tooltip }}"{% endif %}>{{ label|trans({}, translation_domain) }}{% if required %}<span>*</span>{% endif %}</label> {% endspaceless %} {% endblock form_label %} This part of code was copied from this file https://github.com/symfony/symfony/blob/2.1/src/Symfony/Bridge/Twig/Resources/views/Form/form_div_layout.html.twig So tried someone to do something like this?

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  • Django and json request

    - by Hulk
    In a template i have the following code <script> var url="/mypjt/my_timer" $.post(url, paramarr, function callbackHandler(dict) { alert('got response back'); if (dict.flag == 2) { alert('1'); $.jGrowl("Data could not be saved"); } else if(dict.ret_status == 1) { alert('2'); $.jGrowl("Data saved successfully"); window.location = "/mypjt/display/" + dict.rid; } }, "json" ); </script> In views i have the following code, def my_timer(request): dict={} try: a= timer.objects.get(pk=1) dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') except: dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') My question is since we are making a json request and in the try block ,after setting the flag ,cant we return a page directly as return render_to_response('mypjt/display.html',context_instance=RequestContext(request,{'dict': dict})) instead of sending the response, because on success again in the html page we redirect the code Also if there is a exception then only can we return the json request. My only concern is that the interaction between client and server should be minimal. Thanks..

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  • A weird crash...

    - by Nima
    Hi, I have a piece of code that runs in debug mode in VS2008, C++. The problem is that when I am debugging the code line by line, at a very weird point of the code, it crashes and says: debug assertion faild. Expression: _BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead-nBlockUse) The crash point is on the first closed curly bracket (after mesh-edges[e].needsUpdate=false;) I don't understand why on a curly bracket? does that make sense to you guys? Can anybody help me understanding what is going on..? for(int e=0; e<mesh->edges.size(); e++) { if(mesh->edges[e].valid && mesh->edges[e].v[0]>=0 && mesh->edges[e].v[1]>=0 && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[0]].writable && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[1]].writable) { //update v_hat and its corresponding error DecEdge Current = DecEdge(e); pair<Point, float> ppf = computeVhat(e); Current.v_hat = ppf.first; Current.error = ppf.second; edgeSoup.push(Current); mesh->edges[e].needsUpdate=false; } }

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  • Getting a UDP socket program in Python to accept messages from a Syslog client?

    - by Elvar
    I'm trying to write a Syslog listener and so far so good on getting it to accept incoming messages through TCP but I also want UDP to function. This is the UDP server code I'm using, which works using a python client app. I also have another app which also works just using the python client app. # Server program # UDP VERSION from socket import * # Set the socket parameters host = "localhost" port = 514 buf = 1024 addr = (host,port) # Create socket and bind to address UDPSock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM) UDPSock.bind(addr) # Receive messages while 1: data,addr = UDPSock.recvfrom(buf) if not data: print "Client has exited!" break else: print "\nReceived message '", data,"'" # Close socket UDPSock.close() Using this code I can send to the server and have it display the code. # Client program from socket import * # Set the socket parameters host = "localhost" port = 514 buf = 1024 addr = (host,port) # Create socket UDPSock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM) def_msg = "===Enter message to send to server==="; print "\n",def_msg # Send messages while (1): data = raw_input('>> ') if not data: break else: if(UDPSock.sendto(data,addr)): print "Sending message '",data,"'....." # Close socket UDPSock.close() I have tried the Kiwi Syslog Message Generator and Snare to send syslog messages to the UDP server and nothing comes up. Could someone help me understand?

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  • Use of Syntactic Sugar / Built in Functionality

    - by Kyle Rozendo
    I was busy looking deeper into things like multi-threading and deadlocking etc. The book is aimed at both pseudo-code and C code and I was busy looking at implementations for things such as Mutex locks and Monitors. This brought to mind the following; in C# and in fact .NET we have a lot of syntactic sugar for doing things. For instance (.NET 3.5): lock(obj) { body } Is identical to: var temp = obj; Monitor.Enter(temp); try { body } finally { Monitor.Exit(temp); } There are other examples of course, such as the using() {} construct etc. My question is when is it more applicable to "go it alone" and literally code things oneself than to use the "syntactic sugar" in the language? Should one ever use their own ways rather than those of people who are more experienced in the language you're coding in? I recall having to not use a Process object in a using block to help with some multi-threaded issues and infinite looping before. I still feel dirty for not having the using construct in there. Thanks, Kyle

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  • How to fix IllegalStateException error when trying to update a listview?

    - by Michael Vetrano
    Hi guys, I am trying to get this code to run, but I get an IllegalStateException when I run this code saying that the content of the listview wasn't notified, yet I have a notification upon updating the data. This is a custom listview adapter. Here is the relevant part of my code: class LoadingThread extends Thread { public void run() { int itemsOriginallyLoaded = 0; synchronized( items ) { itemsOriginallyLoaded = items.size(); } for( int i = itemsOriginallyLoaded ; i < itemsToLoad ; ++i ) { Log.d( LOG_TAG, "Loading item #"+i ); //String item = "FAIL"; //try { String item = "FAIL"; try { item = stockGrabber.getStockString(dataSource.get(i)); } catch (ApiException e) { Log.e(LOG_TAG, "Problem making API request", e); } catch (ParseException e) { Log.e(LOG_TAG, "Problem parsing API request", e); } //} catch (ApiException e) { // Log.e(TAG, "Problem making API request", e); //} catch (ParseException e) { // Log.e(TAG, "Problem parsing API request", e); //} synchronized( items ) { items.add( item ); } itemsLoaded = i+1; uiHandler.post( updateTask ); Log.d( LOG_TAG, "Published item #"+i ); } if( itemsLoaded >= ( dataSource.size() - 1 ) ) allItemsLoaded = true; synchronized( loading ) { loading = Boolean.FALSE; } } } class UIUpdateTask implements Runnable { public void run() { Log.d( LOG_TAG, "Publishing progress" ); notifyDataSetChanged(); } }

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  • cakephp phone number validation

    - by hellosheikh
    i am new to cakephp 2.x so i dont know how to do this .. i want to login the user from his email address and phone number..what my intention is if the number in database is this "12345" and the user is trying to login through this number "+12345" he can be login into the system.. i have written a code but i dont know how can i use this or to adjust my code within the auth component as the auth component is autometically logging the user .. here is my controller public function beforeFilter() { parent::beforeFilter(); $this->Auth->authenticate = array( 'Authenticate.Cookie' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'userModel' => 'User', 'scope' => array('User.active' => 1) ), 'Authenticate.MultiColumn' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'columns' => array('email', 'mobileNo'), 'userModel' => 'User', ) ); } public function login() { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); }else{ $this->layout='logindefault'; $this->set('title_for_layout', 'Account Login'); /*$this->Auth->logout(); $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('Auth.User'); */ if ($this->request->is('post')) { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { if ($this->Session->check('Auth.User')){ $this->_setCookie($this->Auth->user('idUser')); $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); } }else { $this->Session->setFlash('Incorrect Email/Password Combination'); } }} } here is the code which i am trying to add .. $mobileNo='+123456789'; if (strpos($mobileNo,'+') !== false) { $mobileNo=str_replace("+", "",$mobileNo); } ?

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  • Why can't I access the facebook friends list after reopening a session in ios

    - by user1532390
    I am upgrading to the facebook 3.0 sdk for ios. Things went well, until I tried to open an existing session after relaunching the application. I am trying to access the list of friends for the facebook user. if ([[FBSession activeSession] isOpen]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //do something here }]; }else{ [[self session] openWithCompletionHandler:^(FBSession *session, FBSessionState status, NSError *error) { if ([self isValid]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //log this error we always get NSLog(@"%@",error); //do something else }]; } }]; } However I get this error: Error Domain=com.facebook.sdk Code=5 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (com.facebook.sdk error 5.)" UserInfo=0x1d92ff40 {com.facebook.sdk:ParsedJSONResponseKey={ body = { error = { code = 2500; message = "An active access token must be used to query information about the current user."; type = OAuthException; }; }; code = 400; }, com.facebook.sdk:HTTPStatusCode=400} I've found that if I use the FBSession reauthorize method it allows me to complete the request without error, but it also means I must show UI or switch apps every time we relaunch the application which is unacceptable. Any suggestions on what I should be doing differently?

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  • Why does my Perl CGI script cause a 500 internal server error?

    - by Nitish
    I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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  • ASP.NET: How to get same validators control to be both client-side and server-side

    - by harrije
    Hello, For the ASP.NET validator controls, I want to use both client-side validation for the user experience and server-side validation to guard against hackers. ASP.NET documentation leads me to believe that if EnableClientScript="True" then there will be no server-side validation if client-side validation is possible for the user agent. To get server-side validation, the documentation says use EnableClientScript="False", which bypasses client-side validation altogether. Am I misunderstanding how the validator controls work? I ask because it seems obvious that many developers would want both client and server side validation together, and I find it hard to believe both together is not possible with one of the standard validation controls. If I am understanding the ASP.NET documentation correctly, then I can find only two options: Use two validator controls exactly the same except for their ID and EnableClientScript properties. Obviously ugly for maintaining two controls almost the same. Write some code behind to check if postback then invoke the Validate method on the validator group. Why write code behind if there a way to be automatic from the control? Is there a way to do so using a single validator control with no code behind? Thanks in advance for your input.

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  • LEFT OUTER JOIN with a WHERE clause

    - by Wesley
    I have two tables. indRailType contains a list of the names paired with an ID value that I use in other tables to indicate the rail type. WO_BreakerRail contains a date column and a rail code colume that corresponds to the same code in indRailType and some other data. There's a row in WO_BreakerRail for any activity on each rail type, for every date. So I could have 3 rows dated for 3/19/2010, each row indicates a different rail code, and what happened. When I use the following LEFT OUTER JOIN, I get a table with all the types of rail, with nulls in the rows where nothing happened on the 19th. Now, this is only working because I only have one date represented in my WO_BreakerRail table right now, the 19th. When I add more rows with different dates, things will go haywire. This is my SQL statement, which right now gives me exactly the results I want: SELECT WO_BreakerRail.ID, indRailType.RailType, WO_BreakerRail.CreatedPieces, WO_BreakerRail.OutsideSource, WO_BreakerRail.Charged, WO_BreakerRail.Rejected, WO_BreakerRail.RejectedToCrop FROM indRailType LEFT OUTER JOIN WO_BreakerRail ON indRailType.RailCode = WO_BreakerRail.RailCode Now, when I add in a WHERE WO_BreakerRail.Date = @Date clause I lose all the rows in the JOIN which nothing happened. I don't want that. From reading up, it sounds like a FULL OUTER JOIN is what I want, but SQL Server Compact Edition doesn't support FULL OUTER JOINs. Is there a way around this, or am I looking for something else entirely?

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  • Javascript problem with location.href.

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I have a textbox and whenever the user presses a key it's checked to see if the user pressed enter. If the enter key is pressed, i want to add all the info in the textbox and transfer the user to a different url. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function checkEnter(e){ //e is event object passed from function invocation var characterCode; if(e && e.which){ //if which property of event object is supported (NN4) e = e; characterCode = e.which; //character code is contained in NN4's which property } else{ e = event; characterCode = e.keyCode; //character code is contained in IE's keyCode property } if (characterCode == 13) { //if generated character code is equal to ascii 13 (if enter key) var searchLink = '/Search/?Keywords=' + document.getElementById('<%= searchBox.ClientID %>').value; transferUser(searchLink); return false; } else{ return true; } } function transferUser(url) { window.location.href = url; window.location.replace(url); } </script> Search: <input name="ctl00$searchBox" type="text" id="ctl00_searchBox" class="header_line_search_box_textbox" onKeyPress="checkEnter(event);" /> I have tried every possible combination, but nothing happens. The site just refreshes itself. I also need somehow to convert the text from the user to html safe, must like the HttpUtility.EncodeUrl in aspx.

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  • Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

    - by Acoustic
    I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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  • "Session is Closed!" - NHibernate

    - by Alexis Abril
    This is in a web application environment: An initial request is able to successfully complete, however any additional requests return a "Session is Closed" response from the NHibernate framework. I'm using a HttpModule approach with the following code: public class MyHttpModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.EndRequest += ApplicationEndRequest; context.BeginRequest += ApplicationBeginRequest; } public void ApplicationBeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(SessionFactory.Instance.OpenSession()); } public void ApplicationEndRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { ISession currentSession = CurrentSessionContext.Unbind( SessionFactory.Instance); currentSession.Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { } } SessionFactory.Instance is my singleton implementation, using FluentNHibernate to return an ISessionFactory object. In my repository class, I attempt to use the following syntax: public class MyObjectRepository : IMyObjectRepository { public MyObject GetByID(int id) { using (ISession session = SessionFactory.Instance.GetCurrentSession()) return session.Get<MyObject>(id); } } This allows code in the application to be called as such: IMyObjectRepository repo = new MyObjectRepository(); MyObject obj = repo.GetByID(1); I have a suspicion my repository code is to blame, but I'm not 100% sure on the actual implementation I should be using. I found a similar issue on SO here. I too am using WebSessionContext in my implementation, however, no solution was provided other than writing a custom SessionManager. For simple CRUD operations, is a custom session provider required apart from the built in tools(ie WebSessionContext)?

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  • Linq is returning too many results when joined

    - by KallDrexx
    In my schema I have two database tables. relationships and relationship_memberships. I am attempting to retrieve all the entries from the relationship table that have a specific member in it, thus having to join it with the relationship_memberships table. I have the following method in my business object: public IList<DBMappings.relationships> GetRelationshipsByObjectId(int objId) { var results = from r in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() join m in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() on r.rel_id equals m.rel_id where m.obj_id == objId select r; return results.ToList<DBMappings.relationships>(); } _Context is my generic repository using code based on the code outlined here. The problem is I have 3 records in the relationships table, and 3 records in the memberships table, each membership tied to a different relationship. 2 membership records have an obj_id value of 2 and the other is 3. I am trying to retrieve a list of all relationships related to object #2. When this linq runs, _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() returns the correct 3 records and _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() returns 3 records. However, when the results.ToList() executes, the resulting list has 2 issues: 1) The resulting list contains 6 records, all of type DBMappings.relationships(). Upon further inspection there are 2 for each real relationship record, both are an exact copy of each other. 2) All relationships are returned, even if m.obj_id == 3, even though objId variable is correctly passed in as 2. Can anyone see what's going on because I've spent 2 days looking at this code and I am unable to understand what is wrong. I have joins in other linq queries that seem to be working great, and my unit tests show that they are still working, so I must be doing something wrong with this. It seems like I need an extra pair of eyes on this one :)

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  • Downloading a file from a PHP page in C#

    - by FoxyShadoww
    Okay, we have a PHP script that creates an download link from a file and we want to download that file via C#. This works fine with progress etc but when the PHP page gives an error the program downloads the error page and saves it as the requested file. Here is the code we have atm: PHP Code: <?php $path = 'upload/test.rar'; if (file_exists($path)) { $mm_type="application/octet-stream"; header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Cache-Control: public"); header("Content-Description: File Transfer"); header("Content-Type: " . $mm_type); header("Content-Length: " .(string)(filesize($path)) ); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.basename($path).'"'); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); readfile($path); exit(); } else { print 'Sorry, we could not find requested download file.'; } ?> C# Code: private void btnDownload_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string url = "http://***.com/download.php"; WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.DownloadFileCompleted += new AsyncCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadFileCompleted); client.DownloadProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(ProgressChanged); client.DownloadFileAsync(new Uri(url), @"c:\temp\test.rar"); } private void ProgressChanged(object sender, DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { progressBar.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; } void client_DownloadFileCompleted(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(print); }

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  • One big executable or many small DLL's?

    - by Patrick
    Over the years my application has grown from 1MB to 25MB and I expect it to grow further to 40, 50 MB. I don't use DLL's, but put everything in this one big executable. Having one big executable has certain advantages: Installing my application at the customer is really: copy and run. Upgrades can be easily zipped and sent to the customer There is no risk of having conflicting DLL's (where the customer has version X of the EXE, but version Y of the DLL) The big disadvantage of the big EXE is that linking times seem to grow exponentially. Additional problem is that a part of the code (let's say about 40%) is shared with another application. Again, the advantages are that: There is no risk on having a mix of incorrect DLL versions Every developer can make changes on the common code which speeds up developments. But again, this has a serious impact on compilation times (everyone compiles the common code again on his PC) and on linking times. The question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2387908/grouping-dlls-for-use-in-executable mentions the possibility of mixing DLL's in one executable, but it looks like this still requires you to link all functions manually in your application (using LoadLibrary, GetProcAddress, ...). What is your opinion on executable sizes, the use of DLL's and the best 'balance' between easy deployment and easy/fast development?

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