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  • Using Regex Replace when looking for un-escaped characters

    - by Daniel Hollinrake
    I've got a requirement that is basically this. If I have a string of text such as "There once was an 'ugly' duckling but it could never have been \'Scarlett\' Johansen" then I'd like to match the quotes that haven't already been escaped. These would be the ones around 'ugly' not the ones around 'Scarlett'. I've spent quite a while on this using a little C# console app to test things and have come up with the following solution. private static void RegexFunAndGames() { string result; string sampleText = @"Mr. Grant and Ms. Kelly starred in the film \'To Catch A Thief' but not in 'Stardust' because they'd stopped acting by then"; string rePattern = @"\\'"; string replaceWith = "'"; Console.WriteLine(sampleText); Regex regEx = new Regex(rePattern); result = regEx.Replace(sampleText, replaceWith); result = result.Replace("'", @"\'"); Console.WriteLine(result); } Basically what I've done is a two step process find those characters that have already been escaped, undo that then do everything again. It sounds a bit clumsy and I feel that there could be a better way.

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  • Jquery event to fire in ajax loaded content, IE & FF problem

    - by Sylph
    Hello, I'm trying to trigger onclick events in an ajax loaded content but it doesn't seem to work. Here is my code :- <li><a href="#" id="subtopic">Title</a></li> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#subtopic").click(function() { url: test.html ,success: function(data) { $('#result').html(data); $(".filetree").treeview(); $('#result').click(); $('#result').trigger("update"); } }); }); }); </script> In my loaded content, :- <a href="#" id="addSubTopic">Click here</a> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { alert("000"); }); $(function() { $("#addSubTopic").click(function() { alert("0"); $.ajax({ url: url, success: function(data) { $("#listRes").append(data); } }); }); }); </script> In IE, it works fine, the click works and I can get the "alert" but in Firefox, the whole thing just go dead. However, my jquery plugin for $(".filetree").treeview(); works fine for both IE and FF. Any advice? I have tried using .live, .trigger("update"). Thanks in advance

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  • ARMv6 FIQ, acknowledge interrupt

    - by fastmonkeywheels
    I'm working with an i.mx35 armv6 core processor. I have Interrupt 62 configured as a FIQ with my handler installed and being called. My handler at the moment just toggles an output pin so I can test latency with a scope. With the code below, once I trigger the FIQ it continues forever as fast as it can, apparently not being acknowledged. I'm triggering the FIQ by means of the Interrupt Force Register so I'm assured that the source isn't triggering it this fast. If I disable Interrupt 62 in the AVIC in my FIQ routine the interrupt only triggers once. I have read the sections on the VIC Port in the ARM1136JF-S and ARM1136J-S Technical Reference Manual and it covers proper exit procedure. I'm only having one FIQ handler so I have no need to branch. The line that I don't understand is: STR R0, [R8,#AckFinished] I'm not sure what AckFinished is supposed to be or what this command is supposed to do. My FIQ handler is below: ldr r9, IOMUX_ADDR12 ldr r8, [r9] orr r8, #0x08 @ top LED str r8,[r9] @turn on LED bic r8, #0x08 @ top LED str r8,[r9] @turn off LED subs pc, r14, #4 IOMUX_ADDR12: .word 0xFC2A4000 @remapped IOMUX addr My handler returns just fine and normal system operation resumes if I disable it after the first go, otherwise it triggers constantly and the system appears to hang. Do you think my assumption is right that the core isn't acknowledging the AVIC or could there be another cause of this FIQ triggering?

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  • decimal.TryParse() drops leading "1"

    - by Martin Harris
    Short and sweet version: On one machine out of around a hundred test machines decimal.TryParse() is converting "1.01" to 0.01 Okay, this is going to sound crazy but bare with me... We have a client applications that communicates with a webservice through JSON, and that service returns a decimal value as a string so we store it as a string in our model object: [DataMember(Name = "value")] public string Value { get; set; } When we display that value on screen it is formatted to a specific number of decimal places. So the process we use is string - decimal then decimal - string. The application is currently undergoing final testing and is running on more than 100 machines, where this all works fine. However on one machine if the decimal value has a leading '1' then it is replaced by a zero. I added simple logging to the code so it looks like this: Log("Original string value: {0}", value); decimal val; if (decimal.TryParse(value, out val)) { Log("Parsed decimal value: {0}", val); string output = val.ToString(format, CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.NumberFormat); Log("Formatted string value: {0}", output); return output; } On my machine - any every other client machine - the logfile output is: Original string value: 1.010000 Parsed decimal value: 1.010000 Formatted string value: 1.01 On the defective machine the output is: Original string value: 1.010000 Parsed decimal value: 0.010000 Formatted string value: 0.01 So it would appear that the decimal.TryParse method is at fault. Things we've tried: Uninstalling and reinstalling the client application Uninstalling and reinstalling .net 3.5 sp1 Comparing the defective machine's regional settings for numbers (using English (United Kingdom)) to those of a working machine - no differences. Has anyone seen anything like this or has any suggestions? I'm quickly running out of ideas... While I was typing this some more info came in: Passing a string value of "10000" to Convert.ToInt32() returns 0, so that also seems to drop the leading 1.

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  • Speed of CSS

    - by Ólafur Waage
    This is just a question to help me understand CSS rendering better. Lets say we have a million lines of this. <div class="first"> <div class="second"> <span class="third">Hello World</span> </div> </div> Which would be the fastest way to change the font of Hello World to red? .third { color: red; } div.third { color: red; } div.second div.third { color: red; } div.first div.second div.third { color: red; } Also, what if there was at tag in the middle that had a unique id of "foo". Which one of the CSS methods above would be the fastest. I know why these methods are used etc, im just trying to grasp better the rendering technique of the browsers and i have no idea how to make a test that times it. UPDATE: Nice answer Gumbo. From the looks of it then it would be quicker in a regular site to do the full definition of a tag. Since it finds the parents and narrows the search for every parent found. That could be bad in the sense you'd have a pretty large CSS file though.

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  • documentFragment.cloneNode(true) doesn't clone jQuery data

    - by taber
    I have a documentFragment with several child nodes containing some .data() added like so: myDocumentFragment = document.createDocumentFragment(); for(...) { myDocumentFragment.appendChild( $('').addClass('button') .attr('href', 'javascript:void(0)') .html('click me') .data('rowData', { 'id': 103, 'test': 'testy' }) .get(0) ); } When I try to append the documentFragment to a div on the page: $('#div').append( myDocumentFragment ); I can access the data just fine: alert( $('#div a:first').data('rowData').id ); // alerts '103' But if I clone the node with cloneNode(true), I can't access the node's data. :( $('#div').append( myDocumentFragment.cloneNode(true) ); ... alert( $('#div a:first').data('rowData').id ); // alerts undefined Has anyone else done this or know of a workaround? I guess I could store the row's data in jQuery.data('#some_random_parent_div', 'rows', [array of ids]), but that kinda defeats the purpose of making the data immediately/easily available to each row. I've also read that jQuery uses documentFragments, but I'm not sure exactly how, or in what methods. Does anyone have any more details there? Thanks!

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  • Navigation view system with webview problem with touches!

    - by Gonçalo Falcão
    Hello i have search everything and i didn't figure this out! I have a tab bar controller with 5 navigation controlls, in one of the navigation control, i have a view, with a table view inside, and when i click that item i push a new view, that view have view -webview -view i create that second view(is transperant) because i need to handle a single tap to hide my toolbar and navigation bar, and the webview was eating all the touches! I put that view and implement on the view controller -(void) touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 2){ [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 1){ [self performSelector:@selector(hideBars) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.3]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } wv is my UIWebView IBOutlet now i can get the the touches in my controller and send them to my webview. So i thought everything was working, i'm able to scroll, but now when i have links i'm not able to click them. And the webview is detecting the links i have made that test. So any other way to implements this to get the touches in the links, or i should change this workaround to hide the toolbars so i can have the full functionability of the webview? Thks for the help in advance.

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  • .NET: What's the difference between HttpMethod and RequestType of HttpRequest?

    - by Ian Boyd
    The HttpRequest class defines two properties: HttpMethod: Gets the HTTP data transfer method (such as GET, POST, or HEAD) used by the client. public string HttpMethod { get; } The HTTP data transfer method used by the client. and RequestType: Gets or sets the HTTP data transfer method (GET or POST) used by the client. public string RequestType { get; set; } A string representing the HTTP invocation type sent by the client. What is the difference between these two properties? When would i want to use one over the other? Which is the proper one to inspect to see what data transfer method was used by the client? The documentation indicates that HttpMethod will return whatever verb was used: such as GET, POST, or HEAD while the documentation on RequestType seems to indicate only one of two possible values: GET or POST i test with a random sampling of verbs, and both properties seem to support all verbs, and both return the same values: Testing: Client Used HttpMethod RequestType GET GET GET POST POST POST HEAD HEAD HEAD CONNECT CONNECT CONNECT MKCOL MKCOL MKCOL PUT PUT PUT FOOTEST FOOTEST FOOTEST What is the difference between: HttpRequest.HttpMethod HttpRequest.RequestType and when should i use one over the other? Keywords: iis asp.net http httprequest httphandler

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  • java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed; Causes and cures?

    - by IVR Avenger
    Hi, all. I've got an application running on Apache Tomcat 5.5 on a Win2k3 VM. The application serves up XML to be consumed by some telephony appliances as part of our IVR infrastructure. The application, in turn, receives its information from a handful of SOAP services. This morning, the SOAP services were timing out intermittently, causing all sorts of Exceptions. Once these stopped, I noticed that our application was still performing very slowly, in that it took it a long time to render and deliver pages. This sluggishness was noticed both on the appliances that consume the Tomcat output, and from a simple test of requesting some static documents from my web browser. Restarting Tomcat immediately resolved the issue. Cracking open the localhost log, I see a ton of these errors, right up until I restarted Tomcat: WARNING: Exception thrown whilst processing POSTed parameters java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed After a big of Googling, my working theory is that the SOAP issue caused my users to get errors, which caused them to make more requests, which put an increased load on the application. This caused it to run out of available sockets to handle incoming requests. So, here's my quandary: 1. Is this a valid hypothesis, or am I just in over my head with HTTP and Tomcat? 2. If this is a valid hypothesis, is there a way to increase the size of the "socket queue", so that this doesn't happen in the future? Thanks! IVR Avenger

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  • C# LINQ to XML missing space character.

    - by Fossaw
    I write an XML file "by hand", (i.e. not with LINQ to XML), which sometimes includes an open/close tag containing a single space character. Upon viewing the resulting file, all appears correct, example below... <Item> <ItemNumber>3</ItemNumber> <English> </English> <Translation>Ignore this one. Do not remove.</Translation> </Item> ... the reasons for doing this are various and irrelevent, it is done. Later, I use a C# program with LINQ to XML to read the file back and extract the record... XElement X_EnglishE = null; // This is CRAZY foreach (XElement i in Records) { X_EnglishE = i.Element("English"); // There is only one damned record! } string X_English = X_EnglishE.ToString(); ... and test to make sure it is unchanged from the database record. I detect a change, when processing Items where the field had the single space character... +E+ Text[3] English source has been altered: Was: >>> <<< Now: >>><<< ... the and <<< parts I added to see what was happening, (hard to see space characters). I have fiddled around with this but can't see why this is so. It is not absolutely critical, as the field is not used, (yet), but I cannot trust C# or LINQ or whatever is doing this, if I do not understand why it is so. So what is doing that and why?

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  • onComplete for Ajax.Request sometimes does not hide the load animation in Prototype

    - by TenJack
    I have a Ajax.Request in which I use onLoading and onComplete to show and hide a load animation gif. The problem is that every 10 clicks or so, the load animation fails to hide and just stays there animating even though the ajax request has returned successfully. I have a number of div elements that each has its own respective load animation and an onclick with the Ajax.Request that looks like this: <div id="word_block_<%= word_obj.word %>" class="word_block" > <%= image_tag("ajax-loader_word_block.gif", :id => "load_animation_#{word_obj.word}", :style => 'display:none') %> <a href="#" onclick="new Ajax.Request('/test/ajax_load', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onLoading:function() { Element.show('load_animation_<%= word_obj.word %>')}, onComplete:function(){ Element.hide('load_animation_<%= word_obj.word %>')}}); return false;">Click Here</a> </div> Does it look like anything could be wrong with this? Maybe I should try removing the inline onclick and add an onclick programmatically with javascript? I really have no idea why this keeps happening. I am using the prototype library with ruby on rails.

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  • Problems with registering click event listener to a frame-element

    - by distractedBySquirrels
    Hi everybody, I ran into a problem with adding an event listener. I wrote a Firefox plugin a while ago for my bachelor thesis. It was based on a different attacker model than you would normally expect. In this scenario the attacker was the service provider (like Facebook, Google,...), who reads all your private data stored on their site (via JS). My final solution was to temporally allow JS (while the page loads and after an user action occured). To observe the interaction I used event listener, which worked very well so far. But last week I noticed that my approach doesn't work with web sites which are using a frameset (I added the event listener to the body...). So I tried to add the listener to the frameset respectively to the frame. But the clicks are only noticed when you actually click on the frame... (eg resize the frame with your mouse) But I want to register clicks on the document loaded inside the frame. I already tried the .frameElement. Sadly it seems that Firefox doesn't like my (or, which is more likely, I'm too stuipd :) ) and claims there are no frames... Could anyone tell me how to add an event listener to the document inside a frame? The web site looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Frameset Test</title> </head> <frameset cols="150,*"> <frame src="nav.html" name="Navigation"> <frame src="main.html" name="Main"> </frameset> </html> This was my first bigger projekt with Mozilla so this could be a really dumb failure of mine... I hope you guys can help me. Thanks in advance. Sebastian

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  • Bash script to log in over SSH

    - by user1042928
    Sorry if this seems like a dumb question but I am just learning bash scripting. For a school project we need to code an RTX that runs in Unix. It runs as a process in terminal and takes in user input and then prints it to the screen. I want to write a bash script to test that it can respond to lots of quick user input without overflowing or failing. My main problem is that once the RTX starts the bash script will stop on that line until the RTX terminates and only then print the loop to the terminal (instead of printing it to the RTX prompt as I intend it to). I have tried running the RTX in the background but that didn't work. I need to find a way to redirect input to the RTX while it is still running with a bash script. Google searches didn't come up with examples that I understood/could adapt. Any help is appreciated. #!/bin/bash # declare STRING variable STRING="RTX Worked =D" #Start the rtx in a new process, stuck on this line until rtx terminates. ./main #Somehow redirect io to the rtx. for i in `seq 1 100`; do echo $i echo " \n" done echo $STRING

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  • udp can not receive any data

    - by StoneHeart
    Here is my code Socket sck = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Dgram, ProtocolType.Udp); sck.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 0)); // Broadcast to find server string msg = "Imlookingforaserver:" + udp_listen_port; byte[] sendBytes4 = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(msg); IPEndPoint groupEP = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Parse("255.255.255.255"), server_port); sck.SetSocketOption(SocketOptionLevel.Socket, SocketOptionName.Broadcast, 1); sck.SendTo(sendBytes4, groupEP); //Wait response from server Socket sck2 = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Dgram, ProtocolType.Udp); sck2.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, udp_listen_port)); byte[] buffer = new byte[128]; EndPoint remoteEndPoint = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, udp_listen_port); sck2.ReceiveFrom(buffer, ref remoteEndPoint); //<<< I never pass this line I use above code to try find a server. First I broadcast a message and then I wait for a response from the server. A test I made with the server written in C++ and running in Windows Vista, client written in C# and run on the same machine with server. Problem is: The server can receive message which client broadcast, but client can not receive anything from server. I try to write a client with C++ and it work like a charm, I think my problem is in C# client.

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  • Can Sql Server 2005 Pivot table have nText passed into it?

    - by manemawanna
    Right bit of a simple question can I input nText into a pivot table? (SQL Server 2005) What I have is a table which records the answers to a questionnaire consisting of the following elements for example: UserID QuestionNumber Answer Mic 1 Yes Mic 2 No Mic 3 Yes Ste 1 Yes Ste 2 No Ste 3 Yes Bob 1 Yes Bob 2 No Bob 3 Yes With the answers being held in nText. Anyway what id like a Pivot table to do is: UserID 1 2 3 Mic Yes No Yes Ste Yes No Yes Bob Yes No Yes I have some test code, that creates a pivot table but at the moment it just shows the number of answers in each column (code can be found below). So I just want to know is it possible to add nText to a pivot table? As when I've tried it brings up errors and someone stated on another site that it wasn't possible, so I would like to check if this is the case or not. Just for further reference I don't have the opportunity to change the database as it's linked to other systems that I haven't created or have access too. Heres the SQL code I have at present below: DECLARE @query NVARCHAR(4000) DECLARE @count INT DECLARE @concatcolumns NVARCHAR(4000) SET @count = 1 SET @concatcolumns = '' WHILE (@count <=52) BEGIN IF @COUNT > 1 AND @COUNT <=52 SET @concatcolumns = (@concatcolumns + ' + ') SET @concatcolumns = (@concatcolumns + 'CAST ([' + CAST(@count AS NVARCHAR) + '] AS NVARCHAR)') SET @count = (@count+1) END DECLARE @columns NVARCHAR(4000) SET @count = 1 SET @columns = '' WHILE (@count <=52) BEGIN IF @COUNT > 1 AND @COUNT <=52 SET @columns = (@columns + ',') SET @columns = (@columns + '[' + CAST(@count AS NVARCHAR) + '] ') SET @count = (@count+1) END SET @query = ' SELECT UserID, ' + @concatcolumns + ' FROM( SELECT UserID, QuestionNumber AS qNum from QuestionnaireAnswers where QuestionnaireID = 7 ) AS t PIVOT ( COUNT (qNum) FOR qNum IN (' + @columns + ') ) AS PivotTable' select @query exec(@query)

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  • Capture *all* display-characters in JavaScript?

    - by Jean-Charles
    I was given an unusual request recently that I'm having the most difficult time addressing that involves capturing all display-characters when typed into a text box. The set up is as follows: I have a text box that has a maxlength of 10 characters. When the user attempts to type more than 10 characters, I need to notify the user that they're typing beyond the character count limit. The simplest solution would be to specify a maxlength of 11, test the length on every keyup, and truncate back down to 10 characters but this solution seems a bit kludgy. What I'd prefer to do is capture the character before keyup and, depending on whether or not it is a display-character, present the notification to the user and prevent the default action. A white-list would be challenging since we handle a lot of international data. I've played around with every combination of keydown, keypress, and keyup, reading event.keyCode, event.charCode, and event.which, but I can't find a single combination that works across all browsers. The best I could manage is the following that works properly in =IE6, Chrome5, FF3.6, but fails in Opera: NOTE: The following code utilizes jQuery. $(function(){ $('#textbox').keypress(function(e){ var $this = $(this); var key = ('undefined'==typeof e.which?e.keyCode:e.which); if ($this.val().length==($this.attr('maxlength')||10)) { switch(key){ case 13: //return case 9: //tab case 27: //escape case 8: //backspace case 0: //other non-alphanumeric break; default: alert('no - '+e.charCode+' - '+e.which+' - '+e.keyCode); return false; }; } }); }); I'll grant that what I'm doing is likely over-engineering the solution but now that I'm invested in it, I'd like to know of a solution. Thanks for your help!

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  • Mysql latin1 turkish data and delphi 2010 utf8

    - by sabri.arslan
    Hello, I have tables collating latin1_general_ci and have turkish character values. And i can use this data on delphi 7+zeos with no problem. but i want to upgrade my delphi to 2010 version but zeos too slow as i saw. so i want to use odbc+ado or dbexpress solution. dbexpress solution works fine , display my data as entered and write as entered table without any change to column charset. but dbexpress has problems as i saw. for example when i select * from table which has column types as varchar,decimal,int,tinyint,text give av errors on xp systems. vista and 7 does not give any error and work fine(not fully tested). ado solution(dbgo) works fine but its not show my data as entered.its want everything be utf. but i don't want to convert my data to utf before test everything. how can i see my data as entered and write client side utf and store latin1(as zeos or dbexpress do). i was tried many other options. eg. mysql side collation and charset parameters. sorry for my bad english. i hope someone understand me. thanks.

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  • How to deal with recursive dependencies between static libraries using the binutils linker?

    - by Jack Lloyd
    I'm porting an existing system from Windows to Linux. The build is structured with multiple static libraries. I ran into a linking error where a symbol (defined in libA) could not be found in an object from libB. The linker line looked like g++ test_obj.o -lA -lB -o test The problem of course being that by the time the linker finds it needs the symbol from libA, it has already passed it by, and does not rescan, so it simply errors out even though the symbol is there for the taking. My initial idea was of course to simply swap the link (to -lB -lA) so that libA is scanned afterwards, and any symbols missing from libB that are in libA are picked up. But then I find there is actually a recursive dependency between libA and libB! I'm assuming the Visual C++ linker handles this in some way (does it rescan by default?). Ways of dealing with this I've considered: Use shared objects. Unfortunately this is undesirable from the perspective of requiring PIC compliation (this is performance sensitive code and losing %ebx to hold the GOT would really hurt), and shared objects aren't needed. Build one mega ar of all of the objects, avoiding the problem. Restructure the code to avoid the recursive dependency (which is obviously the Right Thing to do, but I'm trying to do this port with minimal changes). Do you have other ideas to deal with this? Is there some way I can convince the binutils linker to perform rescans of libraries it has already looked at when it is missing a symbol?

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  • Data in J2ME RecordStore does not persist across sessions

    - by Botond Balázs
    I'm building a mobile app with J2ME, and I've found that the data I write into a RecordStore can be accessed while the program is still running but it is lost after quitting and restarting it. No exception is thrown, the data is simply lost. UPDATE: Thanks everyone for your suggestions. I'm using NetBeans on Windows 7. I'm not sure if it is using the WTK version I have previously installed or another one it has installed somewhere else. I've checked my WTK folder for the files Pavel wrote about, but couldn't find them. Now I'm testing the features requiring persistence on my phone and everything else in the emulator, but it would of course be much better to be able to test everything in the emulator. private RecordStore recordStore = null; public MyMIDlet() { readStuff(); // output: nothing found in recordStore :( saveStuff(); readStuff(); // output: stuff } private void readStuff() { try { recordStore = RecordStore.openRecordStore(REC_STORE, true); int n = recordStore.getNumRecords(); String stuff; if (n == 0) { stuff = "nothing found in recordStore :("; } else { stuff = new String(recordStore.getRecord(1)); } System.out.println(stuff); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception occured in readStuff: " + e.getMessage()); } finally { if (recordStore != null) { try { recordStore.closeRecordStore(); } catch (Exception e) { // ignore } } } } private void saveStuff() { try { recordStore = RecordStore.openRecordStore(REC_STORE, true); int n = recordStore.getNumRecords(); byte[] stuff = "stuff".getBytes(); recordStore.addRecord(stuff, 0, stuff.length); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception occured in saveStuff: " + e.getMessage()); } finally { if (recordStore != null) { try { recordStore.closeRecordStore(); } catch (Exception e) { // ignore } } } }

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  • ASP.NET MVC Facebook

    - by durilai
    I am trying to do a seemingly simple thing, but having trouble accomplishing it. I am trying to automate the posting on my Facebook wall. Basically I have a ASP.NET MVC website that I post updates on, and I want to automatically submit the post to my wall. I see a lot of stuff on FB Connect and getting data, I just want to post. Thanks for any help or guidance. UPDATE: Just trying to resurrect, and be a little more clear in my description as I am not getting anywhere. I have a page that I want with a text box and a button. When I submit the form I want the message to post to my Facebook wall. I thought it was Facebook Connect, but I am getting no where as to how to automatically authenticate myself and post to my wall. I would like to use C# rather than JavaScript. private const string ApplicationKey = "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"; private const string SecretKey = "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"; private Facebook.Rest.Api _facebookAPI; private Facebook.Session.ConnectSession _connectSession; [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(FormCollection form) { _connectSession = new Facebook.Session.ConnectSession(ApplicationKey, SecretKey); if (_connectSession.IsConnected()) { _facebookAPI = new Facebook.Rest.Api(_connectSession); string response = _facebookAPI.Stream.Publish("This is a generated test"); } return View(); } } The IsConnected() is returning false. Any help is appreciated.

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  • executing stored procedure from Spring-Hibernate using Annotations

    - by HanuAthena
    I'm trying to execute a simple stored procedure with Spring/Hibernate using Annotations. Here are my code snippets: DAO class: public class UserDAO extends HibernateDaoSupport { public List selectUsers(final String eid){ return (List) getHibernateTemplate().execute(new HibernateCallback() { public Object doInHibernate(Session session) throws HibernateException, SQLException { Query q = session.getNamedQuery("SP_APPL_USER"); System.out.println(q); q.setString("eid", eid); return q.list(); } }); } } my entity class: @Entity @Table(name = "APPL_USER") @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorFormula(value = "SUBSCRIBER_IND") @DiscriminatorValue("N") @NamedQuery(name = "req.all", query = "select n from Requestor n") @org.hibernate.annotations.NamedNativeQuery(name = "SP_APPL_USER", query = "call SP_APPL_USER(?, :eid)", callable = true, readOnly = true, resultClass = Requestor.class) public class Requestor { @Id @Column(name = "EMPL_ID") public String getEmpid() { return empid; } public void setEmpid(String empid) { this.empid = empid; } @Column(name = "EMPL_FRST_NM") public String getFirstname() { return firstname; } ... } public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( "applicationContext.xml"); APFUser user = (APFUser)ctx.getBean("apfUser"); List selectUsers = user.getUserDAO().selectUsers("EMP456"); System.out.println(selectUsers); } } and the stored procedure: create or replace PROCEDURE SP_APPL_USER (p_cursor out sys_refcursor, eid in varchar2) as empId varchar2(8); fname varchar2(50); lname varchar2(50); begin empId := null; fname := null; lname := null; open p_cursor for select l.EMPL_ID, l.EMPL_FRST_NM, l.EMPL_LST_NM into empId, fname, lname from APPL_USER l where l.EMPL_ID = eid; end; If i enter invalid EID, its returning empty list which is OK. But when record is there, following exception is thrown: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.BadSqlGrammarException: Hibernate operation: could not execute query; bad SQL grammar [call SP_APPL_USER(?, ?)]; nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Invalid column name Do I need to modify the entity(Requestor.class) ? How will the REFCURSOR be converted to the List? The stored procedure is expected to return more than one record.

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  • Comparing developer productivity tools

    - by Jacob
    I am getting ready to test developer productivity tools for our team (Coderush, Resharper, JustCode, etc). We're planning to roll the tool out the same time as we deploy Visual Studio 2010 and TFS. I've seen several posts discussing the merits of one tool versus another. However, I haven't been able to find any discussion of a methodology self evaluating. One approach I've seen is to use each tool for a month or so and decide which one you like best. This seems completely reasonable if I were evaluating it for myself, but since I'm evaluating for others as well, I'd like to do something more rigorous. I'm hoping to collect some ideas on how to do that. As a starting point, my thinking was to come up a list of 10-20 crucial features to compare, then prepare a matrix where I can compare the relative strengths of each product. Once the matrix is complete, we can make a well informed decision about which product aligns with out needs. Since I'm not a user of any product now, it's been difficult to figure out which features are critical and which are less so. Thank you!

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  • How to access generic property without knowing the closed generic type

    - by Martin Booka Weser
    I have a generic Type as follows public class TestGeneric<T> { public T Data { get; set; } public TestGeneric(T data) { this.Data = data; } } If i have now an object (which is coming from some external source) from which i know that it's type is of some closed TestGeneric<, but i don't know the TypeParameter T. Now I need to access the Data of my object. Problem is that i can't cast the object, since i don't know exactly to which closed TestGeneric. I use // thx to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/457676/c-reflection-check-if-a-class-is-derived-from-a-generic-class private static bool IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(Type rawGeneric, Type subclass) { while (subclass != typeof(object)) { var cur = subclass.IsGenericType ? subclass.GetGenericTypeDefinition() : subclass; if (rawGeneric == cur) { return true; } subclass = subclass.BaseType; } return false; } to make sure, my object is of the generic type. The code in question is as follows: public static void Main() { object myObject = new TestGeneric<string>("test"); // or from another source if (IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(typeof(TestGeneric<>), myObject.GetType())) { // the following gives an InvalidCastException // var data = ((TestGeneric<object>)myObject).Data; // if i try to access the property with reflection // i get an InvalidOperationException var dataProperty = typeof(TestGeneric<>).GetProperty("Data"); object data = dataProperty.GetValue(myObject, new object[] { }); } } I need the Data regardless of its type (well, if i could ask for its type using GetType() would be fine, but not necessary) since i just want to dump it in xml using ToString(). Any suggestions? Thanx.

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  • Jquery validations on form with no fields

    - by jcovert
    I have a table (in a form) populated with radio buttons (with a button for each value in a collection). If the collection is empty, nothing shows up in the table (which is fine). (I'm using Struts2) My trouble comes when validating that the user has selected one of these radio buttons when the submit button is clicked. I'm using JQUERY validations, and it works quite well UNLESS there are no radio buttons to select (collection is empty). $('#startProcessForm').validate({ rules: { selectedProcess: { required: true } }, messages: { selectedProcess: "Please select a process to start." } }); If the list IS empty, then there are no fields (radio button or otherwise) named "selectedProcess". So my question is this: How can I make "selectedProcess" exist AND fail the 'required:true' validation if there's nothing in the collection? I was thinking I could create an empty tag of the same name (selectedProcess) if the collection is empty? Here's what I'd guess would work but doesn't seem to: <s:if test="processes != null && !processes.isEmpty()"> <s:iterator value="processes" status="processesStatus"> <tr> <td><s:radio name="selectedProcess" list="{name}"></s:radio></td> </tr> </s:iterator> </s:if> <s:else> <tr> <td><a name="selectedProcess"></a></td> </tr> </s:else> Thanks!

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  • RegAsm for Class Library Used in VB6 Application

    - by michael.lukatchik
    To be short and to the point, I've built a C# class library that is both COM-Visible and Registered for COM Interop. I've compiled the library, which resulted in the generation of .dll and .tlb files. I have another machine that's running a VB6 application. So, I copied the .dll and .tlb files over to C:/Windows/system32 folder on the machine. I then registered those files using the following: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\Windows\system32\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb After the files were registered successfully, I added a project reference to the Test.tlb file from inside my VB6 app, then I tried to invoke a method in my new referenced class like so: Dim myObject As TestNamespace.TestClass Set myObject = New TestNamespace.TestClass MsgBox (myObject.TestMethod()) It doesn't work, and I receive a -2147024894 Automation Error. I've read that I shouldn't install the dll into a private folder like system32. I should either be registering in the GAC or I should be registering in another location using the "/codebase" option: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\RegAsm C:\TestClass.dll /tlb:TestClass.tlb /codebase Is there any reason I shouldn't be using system32? Past devs that have worked on this project have placed assembly files used by this VB6 project into system32 and there haven't seemed to be any issues. When I register my dll in the system32 location, I get the Automation Error. When I register my dll in another location (i.e. C:/), the method call into my class library from VB6 works as expected. What gives? I should mention that we will NOT be using the GAC to register any DLL's. That's just the way it is. Any help is appreciated. Mike

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