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• How to remove the explicit dependencies to other projects' libraries in Eclipse launch configuration

  - by euluis

  In Eclipse it is possible to create launch configurations in a project, specifying the runtime dependencies from another project. A problem I found was that if you have a multiple project workspace, being possible that each project has its own libraries, it is easy to add explicit dependencies in a secondary project to libraries that are of another project and therefore subject to change. An example of this problem follows: proj1 +-- src +-- lib +-- jar1-v1.0.jar +-- jar2-v1.0.jar proj2 +-- src +-- proj2-tests.launch I don't have a dependency from the code in proj2/src to the libraries in proj1/lib. Nevertheless, I do have a dependency from proj2/src to proj1/src, although since there is an internal dependency in the code in proj1/src to its libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2.v1.0.jar, I have to add a dependency in proj2-tests.launch to the libraries in proj1/lib. This translates to the following ugly lines in proj2-tests.launch: <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry path="3" projectName="proj1" type="1"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar1-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> <listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry internalArchive="/proj1/lib/jar2-v1.0.jar" path="3" type="2"/> "/> This wouldn't be a big problem if there wasn't the need from time to time to evolve the software, upgrade the libraries and etc. Consider the common need to upgrade the libraries jar1-v1.0.jar and jar2-v1.0.jar to their versions v1.1. Consider that you have about 10 projects in one workspace, having about 5 libraries each and about 4 launch configurations. You get a maintenance overhead in doing a simple upgrade of a library, which normally must imply changes in files for which there wasn't the need for. Or maybe I'm doing something wrong... What I would like to state is proj2 depends on proj1 and on its libraries and having this translated to simply that in the *.launch files. Is that possible?

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• Decode base64 data as array in Python

  - by skerit

  I'm using this handy Javascript function to decode a base64 string and get an array in return. This is the string: base64_decode_array('6gAAAOsAAADsAAAACAEAAAkBAAAKAQAAJgEAACcBAAAoAQAA') This is what's returned: 234,0,0,0,235,0,0,0,236,0,0,0,8,1,0,0,9,1,0,0,10,1,0,0,38,1,0,0,39,1,0,0,40,1,0,0 The problem is I don't really understand the javascript function: var base64chars = 'ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZabcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz0123456789+/'.split(""); var base64inv = {}; for (var i = 0; i < base64chars.length; i++) { base64inv[base64chars[i]] = i; } function base64_decode_array (s) { // remove/ignore any characters not in the base64 characters list // or the pad character -- particularly newlines s = s.replace(new RegExp('[^'+base64chars.join("")+'=]', 'g'), ""); // replace any incoming padding with a zero pad (the 'A' character is zero) var p = (s.charAt(s.length-1) == '=' ? (s.charAt(s.length-2) == '=' ? 'AA' : 'A') : ""); var r = []; s = s.substr(0, s.length - p.length) + p; // increment over the length of this encrypted string, four characters at a time for (var c = 0; c < s.length; c += 4) { // each of these four characters represents a 6-bit index in the base64 characters list // which, when concatenated, will give the 24-bit number for the original 3 characters var n = (base64inv[s.charAt(c)] << 18) + (base64inv[s.charAt(c+1)] << 12) + (base64inv[s.charAt(c+2)] << 6) + base64inv[s.charAt(c+3)]; // split the 24-bit number into the original three 8-bit (ASCII) characters r.push((n >>> 16) & 255); r.push((n >>> 8) & 255); r.push(n & 255); } // remove any zero pad that was added to make this a multiple of 24 bits return r; } What's the function of those "<<<" and "" characters. Or is there a function like this for Python?

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• rewritten mysql query returning unexpected results, trying to figure out why

  - by dq

  I created a messy query in a hurry a while ago to get a list of product codes. I am now trying to clean up my tables and my code. I recently tried to rewrite the query in order for it to be easier to use and understand. The original query works great, but it requires multiple search strings in order to do one search because it uses UNIONS, and it has a few other issues. My newly modified query is easier to understand, and only requires one search string, but is returning different results. Basically the new query is leaving records out, and I would like to understand why, and how to fix it. Here are the two queries (search strings are all null): Original Query: $query = 'SELECT product_code FROM bus_warehouse_lots WHERE status=\'2\''.$search_string_1 .' UNION SELECT product_code FROM bus_po WHERE status=\'0\''.$search_string_2 .' UNION SELECT bus_warehouse_entries.new_product_code AS product_code FROM (bus_warehouse_entries LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_transfers ON bus_warehouse_entries.picking_ticket_num=bus_warehouse_transfers.pt_number) LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_lots ON bus_warehouse_entries.ebooks_lot_id=bus_warehouse_lots.id WHERE bus_warehouse_entries.type=\'6\' AND bus_warehouse_transfers.status=\'0\''.$search_string_3 .' UNION SELECT bus_contracts.main_product AS product_code FROM bus_contracts LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_lots ON bus_contracts.main_product=bus_warehouse_lots.product_code WHERE bus_contracts.status=\'0\''.$search_string_4 .' UNION SELECT prod_id AS product_code FROM bus_products WHERE last_usage > \''.date('Y-m-d', strtotime('-12 months')).'\''.$search_string_5 .' ORDER BY product_code'; New Query: $query = 'SELECT bus_products.prod_id FROM bus_products' .' LEFT JOIN (bus_warehouse_lots, bus_po, bus_warehouse_entries, bus_contracts) ON (' .'bus_products.prod_id = bus_warehouse_lots.product_code' .' AND bus_products.prod_id = bus_po.product_code' .' AND bus_products.prod_id = bus_warehouse_entries.new_product_code' .' AND bus_products.prod_id = bus_contracts.main_product)' .' LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_transfers ON' .' bus_warehouse_entries.picking_ticket_num = bus_warehouse_transfers.pt_number' .' WHERE (bus_products.last_usage > \''.date('Y-m-d', strtotime('-12 months')).'\'' .' OR bus_warehouse_lots.status = \'2\'' .' OR bus_po.status = \'0\'' .' OR (bus_warehouse_entries.type = \'6\' AND bus_warehouse_transfers.status = \'0\')' .' OR bus_contracts.status = \'0\')' .$search_string_6 .' GROUP BY bus_products.prod_id' .' ORDER BY bus_products.prod_id';

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• Infinite loop when adding a row to a list in a class in python3

  - by Margaret

  I have a script which contains two classes. (I'm obviously deleting a lot of stuff that I don't believe is relevant to the error I'm dealing with.) The eventual task is to create a decision tree, as I mentioned in this question. Unfortunately, I'm getting an infinite loop, and I'm having difficulty identifying why. I've identified the line of code that's going haywire, but I would have thought the iterator and the list I'm adding to would be different objects. Is there some side effect of list's .append functionality that I'm not aware of? Or am I making some other blindingly obvious mistake? class Dataset: individuals = [] #Becomes a list of dictionaries, in which each dictionary is a row from the CSV with the headers as keys def field_set(self): #Returns a list of the fields in individuals[] that can be used to split the data (i.e. have more than one value amongst the individuals def classified(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals have the same value for predicted_value def fields_exhausted(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals are identical except for predicted_value def lowest_entropy_value(self, predicted_value): #Returns the field that will reduce <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entropy_%28information_theory%29">entropy</a> the most def __init__(self, individuals=[]): and class Node: ds = Dataset() #The data that is associated with this Node links = [] #List of Nodes, the offspring Nodes of this node level = 0 #Tree depth of this Node split_value = '' #Field used to split out this Node from the parent node node_value = '' #Value used to split out this Node from the parent Node def split_dataset(self, split_value): fields = [] #List of options for split_value amongst the individuals datasets = {} #Dictionary of Datasets, each one with a value from fields[] as its key for field in self.ds.field_set()[split_value]: #Populates the keys of fields[] fields.append(field) datasets[field] = Dataset() for i in self.ds.individuals: #Adds individuals to the datasets.dataset that matches their result for split_value datasets[i[split_value]].individuals.append(i) #<---Causes an infinite loop on the second hit for field in fields: #Creates subnodes from each of the datasets.Dataset options self.add_subnode(datasets[field],split_value,field) def add_subnode(self, dataset, split_value='', node_value=''): def __init__(self, level, dataset=Dataset()): My initialisation code is currently: if __name__ == '__main__': filename = (sys.argv[1]) #Takes in a CSV file predicted_value = "# class" #Identifies the field from the CSV file that should be predicted base_dataset = parse_csv(filename) #Turns the CSV file into a list of lists parsed_dataset = individual_list(base_dataset) #Turns the list of lists into a list of dictionaries root = Node(0, Dataset(parsed_dataset)) #Creates a root node, passing it the full dataset root.split_dataset(root.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Performs the first split, creating multiple subnodes n = root.links[0] n.split_dataset(n.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Attempts to split the first subnode.

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• How to select all parent objects into DataContext using single LINQ query ?

  - by too

  I am looking for an answer to a specific problem of fetching whole LINQ object hierarchy using single SELECT. At first I was trying to fill as much LINQ objects as possible using LoadOptions, but AFAIK this method allows only single table to be linked in one query using LoadWith. So I have invented a solution to forcibly set all parent objects of entity which of list is to be fetched, although there is a problem of multiple SELECTS going to database - a single query results in two SELECTS with the same parameters in the same LINQ context. For this question I have simplified this query to popular invoice example: public static class Extensions { public static IEnumerable<T> ForEach<T>(this IEnumerable<T> collection, Action<T> func) { foreach(var c in collection) { func(c); } return collection; } } public IEnumerable<Entry> GetResults(AppDataContext context, int CustomerId) { return ( from entry in context.Entries join invoice in context.Invoices on entry.EntryInvoiceId equals invoice.InvoiceId join period in context.Periods on invoice.InvoicePeriodId equals period.PeriodId // LEFT OUTER JOIN, store is not mandatory join store in context.Stores on entry.EntryStoreId equals store.StoreId into condStore from store in condStore.DefaultIfEmpty() where (invoice.InvoiceCustomerId = CustomerId) orderby entry.EntryPrice descending select new { Entry = entry, Invoice = invoice, Period = period, Store = store } ).ForEach(x => { x.Entry.Invoice = Invoice; x.Invoice.Period = Period; x.Entry.Store = Store; } ).Select(x => x.Entry); } When calling this function and traversing through result set, for example: var entries = GetResults(this.Context); int withoutStore = 0; foreach(var k in entries) { if(k.EntryStoreId == null) withoutStore++; } the resulting query to database looks like (single result is fetched): SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The question is why there are two queries and how can I fetch LINQ objects without such hacks?

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• How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

  - by Schnapple

  One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

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• The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

  - by AndrewO

  I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

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• multithreading with database

  - by Darsin

  I am looking out for a strategy to utilize multithreading (probably asynchronous delegates) to do a synchronous operation. I am new to multithreading so i will outline my scenario first. This synchronous operation right now is done for one set of data (portfolio) based on the the parameters provided. The (psudeo-code) implementation is given below: public DataSet DoTests(int fundId, DateTime portfolioDate) { // Get test results for the portfolio // Call the database adapter method, which in turn is a stored procedure, // which in turns runs a series of "rule" stored procs and fills a local temp table and returns it back. DataSet resultsDataSet = GetTestResults(fundId, portfolioDate); try { // Do some local processing on the results DoSomeProcessing(resultsDataSet); // Save the results in Test, TestResults and TestAllocations tables in a transaction. // Sets a global transaction which is provided to all the adapter methods called below // It is defined in the Base class StartTransaction("TestTransaction"); // Save Test and get a testId int testId = UpdateTest(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update testId in the other tables in the dataset UpdateTestId(resultsDataSet, testId); // Update TestResults UpdateTestResults(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update TestAllocations UpdateTestAllocations(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // It is defined in the base class CommitTransaction("TestTransaction"); } catch { RollbackTransaction("TestTransaction"); } return resultsDataSet; } Now the requirement is to do it for multiple set of data. One way would be to call the above DoTests() method in a loop and get the data. I would prefer doing it in parallel. But there are certain catches: StartTransaction() method creates a connection (and transaction) every time it is called. All the underlying database tables, procedures are the same for each call of DoTests(). (obviously). Thus my question are: Will using multithreading anyway improve performance? What are the chances of deadlock especially when new TestId's are being created and the Tests, TestResults and TestAllocations are being saved? How can these deadlocked be handled? Is there any other more efficient way of doing the above operation apart from looping over the DoTests() method repeatedly?

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• Generate MetaData with ANT

  - by Neil Foley

  I have a folder structure that contains multiple javascript files, each of these files need a standard piece of text at the top = //@include "includes.js" Each folder needs to contain a file named includes.js that has an include entry for each file in its directory and and entry for the include file in its parent directory. I'm trying to achive this using ant and its not going too well. So far I have the following, which does the job of inserting the header but not without actually moving or copying the file. I have heard people mentioning the <replace> task to do this but am a bit stumped. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="JavaContentAssist" default="start" basedir="."> <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antcontrib.properties"> <classpath> <pathelement location="C:/dr_workspaces/Maven Repository/.m2/repository/ant-contrib/ant-contrib/20020829/ant-contrib-20020829.jar"/> </classpath> </taskdef> <target name="start"> <foreach target="strip" param="file"> <fileset dir="${basedir}"> <include name="**/*.js"/> <exclude name="**/includes.js"/> </fileset> </foreach> </target> <target name="strip"> <move file="${file}" tofile="${a_location}" overwrite="true"> <filterchain> <striplinecomments> <comment value="//@" /> </striplinecomments> <concatfilter prepend="${basedir}/header.txt"> </concatfilter> </filterchain> </move> </target> </project> As for the generation of the include files in the dir I'm not sure where to start at all. I'd appreciate if somebody could point me in the right direction.

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• difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

  - by Abbas

  i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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• Microsoft Word Document Controls not accepting carriage returns

  - by Scott

  So, I have a Microsoft Word 2007 Document with several Plain Text Format (I have tried Rich Text Format as well) controls which accept input via XML. For carriage returns, I had the string being passed through XML containing "\r\n" when I wanted a carriage return, but the word document ignored that and just kept wrapping things on the same line. I also tried replacing the \r\n with System.Environment.NewLine in my C# mapper, but that just put in \r\n anyway, which still didn't work. Note also that on the control itself I have set it to "Allow Carriage Returns (Multiple Paragrpahs)" in the control properties. This is the XML for the listMapper <Field id="32" name="32" fieldType="SimpleText"> <DataSelector path="/Data/DB/DebtProduct"> <InputField fieldType="" path="/Data/DB/Client/strClientFirm" link="" type=""/> <InputField fieldType="" path="strClientRefDebt" link="" type=""/> </DataSelector> <DataMapper formatString="{0} Account Number: {1}" name="SimpleListMapper" type=""> <MapperData> </MapperData> </DataMapper> </Field> Note that this is the listMapper C# where I actually map the list (notice where I try and append the system.environment.newline) namespace DocEngine.Core.DataMappers { public class CSimpleListMapper:CBaseDataMapper { public override void Fill(DocEngine.Core.Interfaces.Document.IControl control, CDataSelector dataSelector) { if (control != null && dataSelector != null) { ISimpleTextControl textControl = (ISimpleTextControl)control; IContent content = textControl.CreateContent(); CInputFieldCollection fileds = dataSelector.Read(Context); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); if (fileds != null) { foreach (List<string> lst in fileds) { if (CanMap(lst) == false) continue; if (builder.Length > 0 && lst[0].Length > 0) builder.Append(Environment.NewLine); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(FormatString)) builder.Append(lst[0]); else builder.Append(string.Format(FormatString, lst.ToArray())); } content.Value = builder.ToString(); textControl.Content = content; applyRules(control, null); } } } } } Does anybody have any clue at all how I can get MS Word 2007 (docx) to quit ignoring my newline characters??

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• Are there known problems with >= and <= and the eval function in JS?

  - by Augier

  I am currently writing a JS rules engine which at one point needs to evaluate boolean expressions using the eval() function. Firstly I construct an equation as such: var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is the value I want to compare. relation.operator is the operator (either "==", "!=", <=, "<", "", ="). relation.value is the value I want to compare with. I then simply pass this string to the eval function and it returns true or false as such: return eval(equation); This works absolutely fine (with words and numbers) or all of the operators except for = and <=. E.g. When evaluating the equation: relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue <= 100 It returns true when previousValue = 0,1,10,100 & all negative numbers but false for everything in between. I would greatly appreciate the help of anyone to either answer my question or to help me find an alternative solution. Regards, Augier. P.S. I don't need a speech on the insecurities of the eval() function. Any value given to relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is predefined. edit: Here is the full function: function evaluateRelation(relation) { console.log("Evaluating relation") var currentValue; //if multiple values if(relation.value.indexOf(";") != -1) { var values = relation.value.split(";"); for (x in values) { var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "values[x]"; currentValue = eval(equation); if (currentValue) return true; } return false; } //if single value else { //Evaluate the relation and get boolean var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; console.log("relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue " + relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue); console.log(equation); return eval(equation); } } Answer: Provided by KennyTM below. A string comparison doesn't work. Converting to a numerical was needed.

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• Python File Search Line And Return Specific Number of Lines after Match

  - by Simos Anderson

  I have a text file that has lines representing some data sets. The file itself is fairly long but it contains certain sections of the following format: Series_Name INFO Number of teams : n1 | Team | # | wins | | TeamName1 | x | y | . . . | TeamNamen1 | numn | numn | Some Irrelevant lines Series_Name2 INFO Number of teams : n1 | Team | # | wins | | TeamName1 | num1 | num2 | . where each section has a header that begins with the Series_Name. Each Series_Name is different. The line with the header also includes the number of teams in that series, n1. Following the header line is a set of lines that represents a table of data. For each series there are n1+1 rows in the table, where each row shows an individual team name and associated stats. I have been trying to implement a function that will allow the user to search for a Team name and then print out the line in the table associated with that team. However, certain team names show up under multiple series. To resolve this, I am currently trying to write my code so that the user can search for the header line with series name first and then print out just the following n1+1 lines that represent the data associated with the series. Here's what I have come up with so far: import re print fname = raw_input("Enter filename: ") seriesname = raw_input("Enter series: ") def findcounter(fname, seriesname): logfile = open(fname, "r") pat = 'INFO Number of teams :' for line in logfile: if seriesname in line: if pat in line: s=line pattern = re.compile(r"""(?P<name>.*?) #starting name \s*INFO #whitespace and success \s*Number\s*of\s*teams #whitespace and strings \s*\:\s*(?P<n1>.*)""",re.VERBOSE) match = pattern.match(s) name = match.group("name") n1 = int(match.group("n1")) print name + " has " + str(n1) + " teams" lcount = 0 for line in logfile: if line.startswith(name): if pat in line: while lcount <= n1: s.append(line) lcount += 1 return result The first part of my code works; it matches the header line that the person searches for, parses the line, and then prints out how many teams are in that series. Since the header line basically tells me how many lines are in the table, I thought that I could use that information to construct a loop that would continue printing each line until a set counter reached n1. But I've tried running it, and I realize that the way I've set it up so far isn't correct. So here's my question: How do you return a number of lines after a matched line when given the number of desired lines that follow the match? I'm new to programming, and I apologize if this question seems silly. I have been working on this quite diligently with no luck and would appreciate any help.

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• Updating DetailViewController from RootController

  - by Stefano Salmaso

  I'm trying to create an iPad application with a similar user interface to Apple's Mail application, i.e: RootView controller (table view) on the left hand side of the split view for navigation with a multiple view hierarchy. When a table cell is selected a new table view is pushed on the left hand side The new view on the left side can update the detail view. I can accomplish both tasks BUT NOT TOGETHER. I mean I can make a multi-level table view in the RootController.(HERE you can find the working source code). Or I can make a single-level table view in the RootController which can update the detailViewController (here there is the source code:http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D6L0463G). Can anyone tell me how to make a multi-level table in the RootController which can update a detailViewController? There is more source code at the link but below is the method in which I presume I have to declare a new detailViewController (which has to be put in the UISplitViewController): - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)TableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Get the children of the present item. NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; // if([Children count] == 0) { /* Create and configure a new detail view controller appropriate for the selection. */ NSUInteger row = indexPath.row; UIViewController <SubstitutableDetailViewController> *detailViewController = nil; if (row == 0) { FirstDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[FirstDetailViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"FirstDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } if (row == 1) { SecondDetailViewController *newDetailViewController = [[SecondDetailViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"SecondDetailView" bundle:nil]; detailViewController = newDetailViewController; } // Update the split view controller's view controllers array. NSArray *viewControllers = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:self.navigationController, detailViewController, nil]; splitViewController.viewControllers = viewControllers//nothing happens..... [viewControllers release];// } else { //Prepare to tableview. RootViewController *rvController = [[RootViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"RootViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; //Increment the Current View rvController.current_level += 1; //Set the title; rvController.current_title = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; //Push the new table view on the stack [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController.tableView reloadData]; //without this instrucion,items won't be loaded inside the second level of the table [rvController release]; } }

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• Get UITableView to scroll to the selected UITextField and Avoid Being Hidden by Keyboard

  - by Lauren Quantrell

  I have a UITextField in a table view on a UIViewController (not a UITableViewController). If the table view is on a UITableViewController, the table will automatically scroll to the textField being edited to prevent it from being hidden by the keyboard. But on a UIViewController it does not. I have tried for a couple of days reading through multiple ways to try to accomplish this and I cannot get it to work. The closest thing that actually scrolls is: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { // SUPPOSEDLY Scroll to the current text field CGRect textFieldRect = [textField frame]; [self.wordsTableView scrollRectToVisible:textFieldRect animated:YES]; } However this only scrolls the table to the topmost row. What seems like an easy task has been a couple of days of frustration. I am using the following to construct the tableView cells: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)aTableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%d:%d", [indexPath indexAtPosition: 0], [indexPath indexAtPosition:1]]; UITableViewCell *cell = [aTableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:identifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; UITextField *theTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(180, 10, 130, 25)]; theTextField.adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth = YES; theTextField.textColor = [UIColor redColor]; theTextField.text = [textFieldArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; theTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeDefault; theTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; theTextField.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:14]; theTextField.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; theTextField.autocorrectionType = UITextAutocorrectionTypeNo; theTextField.autocapitalizationType = UITextAutocapitalizationTypeNone; theTextField.clearsOnBeginEditing = NO; theTextField.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentLeft; //theTextField.tag = 0; theTextField.tag=indexPath.row; theTextField.delegate = self; theTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; [theTextField setEnabled: YES]; [cell addSubview:theTextField]; [theTextField release]; } return cell; } I suspect I can get the tableView to scroll properly if I can somehow pass the indexPath.row in the textFieldDidBeginEditing method? Any help is appreciated.

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• Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

  - by Shabbyrobe

  I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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• Using Singleton synchronized array with NSThread

  - by hmthur

  I have a books app with a UISearchBar, where the user types any book name and gets search results (from ext API call) below as he types. I am using a singleton variable in my app called retrievedArray which stores all the books. @interface Shared : NSObject { NSMutableArray *books; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *books; + (id)sharedManager; @end This is accessed in multiple .m files using NSMutableArray *retrievedArray; ...in the header file retrievedArray = [[Shared sharedManager] books]; My question is how do I ensure that the values inside retrievedArray remain synchronized across all the classes. Actually the values inside retrievedArray gets added through an NSXMLParser (i.e. through external web service API). There is a separate XMLParser.m file, where I do all the parsing and fill the array. The parsing is done on a separate thread. - (void) run: (id) param { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: [self URL]]; [parser setDelegate: self]; [parser parse]; [parser release]; NSString *tmpURLStr = [[self URL]absoluteString]; NSRange range_srch_book = [tmpURLStr rangeOfString:@"v1/books"]; if (range_srch_book.location != NSNotFound) [delegate performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(parseDidComplete_srch_book) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:YES]; [pool release]; } - (void) parseXMLFile: (NSURL *) url { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; [self setURL: url]; NSThread* myThread = [[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(run:) object: nil]; [retrievedArray removeAllObjects]; [myThread start]; [pool release]; } There seems to be some synchronization issues if the user types very quickly (It seems to be working fine if the user types slowly)....So there are 2 views in which the content of an object in this shared array item is displayed; List and Detail. If user types fast and clicks on A in List view, he is shown B in detail view...That is the main issue. I have tried literally all the solutions I could think of, but am still unable to fix the issue. Please suggest some suitable fixes.

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• Can't retrieve more than 2 gmail messages using Zend framework imap access - server dies - doens't r

  - by Ali

  Hi guys I'm working on a google apps application. Basically I've set it up so users can add multiple gmail addresses and check on their inboxes in the application. It works fine with a google apps email address however when I add a gmail address it just dies out. I'm using this code here: $mail = new Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap($mail_options); $all_messages = array(); $page = isset($_GET['page'])?$_GET['page']:1; $limit = isset($_GET['limit'])?$_GET['limit']:20; $offset = (($page-1)*$limit)+1; $end = ($page*$limit)>$c?$c:($page*$limit); for ($i=$offset;$i<=$end;$i++){ $h2t = new html2text(); $h2t->set_allowed_tags('<a>'); if(!$mail[$i]) break; else{ $one_message = $mail->getMessage($i); $one_message->id = $i; $one_message->UID = $mail->getUniqueId($i); $one_message->parts = array(); $one_message->body = ''; $count = 1; foreach (new RecursiveIteratorIterator($mail->getMessage($i)) as $ii=>$part) { try { $tpart = $part; //$tpart->_content = ''; $one_message->parts[$count] = $tpart; $count++; // check for html body if (strtok($part->contentType, ';') == 'text/html') { $b = $part->getContent(); if($part->contentTransferEncoding == 'quoted-printable') $b = quoted_printable_decode($b); $one_message->html_body = $b; $h2t->set_html($b); $one_message->body = $h2t->get_text(); } //check for text body if (strtok($part->contentType, ';') == 'text/plain') { $b = $part->getContent(); if($part->contentTransferEncoding == 'quoted-printable') $b = quoted_printable_decode($b); $one_message->text_body = $b; $one_message->body = $b;//$part->getContent(); } } catch (Zend_Mail_Exception $e) { // ignore } } $all_messages[] = $one_message; } } No matter what the emails it dies out on retrieving just 2 emails... whats going on here?

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• objective C convert NSString to unsigned

  - by user1501354

  I have changed my question. I want to convert an NSString to an unsigned int. Why? Because I want to do parallel payment in PayPal. Below I have given my coding in which I want to convert the NSString to an unsigned int. My query is: //optional, set shippingEnabled to TRUE if you want to display shipping //options to the user, default: TRUE [PayPal getPayPalInst].shippingEnabled = TRUE; //optional, set dynamicAmountUpdateEnabled to TRUE if you want to compute //shipping and tax based on the user's address choice, default: FALSE [PayPal getPayPalInst].dynamicAmountUpdateEnabled = TRUE; //optional, choose who pays the fee, default: FEEPAYER_EACHRECEIVER [PayPal getPayPalInst].feePayer = FEEPAYER_EACHRECEIVER; //for a payment with multiple recipients, use a PayPalAdvancedPayment object PayPalAdvancedPayment *payment = [[PayPalAdvancedPayment alloc] init]; payment.paymentCurrency = @"USD"; // A payment note applied to all recipients. payment.memo = @"A Note applied to all recipients"; //receiverPaymentDetails is a list of PPReceiverPaymentDetails objects payment.receiverPaymentDetails = [NSMutableArray array]; NSArray *emailArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"[email protected]",@"[email protected]", nil]; for (int i = 1; i <= 2; i++) { PayPalReceiverPaymentDetails *details = [[PayPalReceiverPaymentDetails alloc] init]; // Customize the payment notes for one of the three recipient. if (i == 2) { details.description = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Component %d", i]; } details.recipient = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[emailArray objectAtIndex:i-1]]; unsigned order; if (i==1) { order = [[feeArray objectAtIndex:0] unsignedIntValue]; } if (i==2) { order = [[amountArray objectAtIndex:0] unsignedIntValue]; } //subtotal of all items for this recipient, without tax and shipping details.subTotal = [NSDecimalNumber decimalNumberWithMantissa:order exponent:-4 isNegative:FALSE]; //invoiceData is a PayPalInvoiceData object which contains tax, shipping, and a list of PayPalInvoiceItem objects details.invoiceData = [[PayPalInvoiceData alloc] init]; //invoiceItems is a list of PayPalInvoiceItem objects //NOTE: sum of totalPrice for all items must equal details.subTotal //NOTE: example only shows a single item, but you can have more than one details.invoiceData.invoiceItems = [NSMutableArray array]; PayPalInvoiceItem *item = [[PayPalInvoiceItem alloc] init]; item.totalPrice = details.subTotal; [details.invoiceData.invoiceItems addObject:item]; [payment.receiverPaymentDetails addObject:details]; } [[PayPal getPayPalInst] advancedCheckoutWithPayment:payment]; Can anybody tell me how to do this conversion? Thanks and regards in advance.

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• When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

  - by Steven Lu

  I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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• How Do I Prevent Rails From Treating Edit Fields_For Differently From New Fields_For

  - by James

  I am using rails3 beta3 and couchdb via couchrest. I am not using active record. I want to add multiple "Sections" to a "Guide" and add and remove sections dynamically via a little javascript. I have looked at all the screencasts by Ryan Bates and they have helped immensely. The only difference is that I want to save all the sections as an array of sections instead of individual sections. Basically like this: "sections" => [{"title" => "Foo1", "content" => "Bar1"}, {"title" => "Foo2", "content" => "Bar2"}] So, basically I need the params hash to look like that when the form is submitted. When I create my form I am doing the following: <%= form_for @guide, :url => { :action => "create" } do |f| %> <%= render :partial => 'section', :collection => @guide.sections %> <%= f.submit "Save" %> <% end %> And my section partial looks like this: <%= fields_for "sections[]", section do |guide_section_form| %> <%= guide_section_form.text_field :section_title %> <%= guide_section_form.text_area :content, :rows => 3 %> <% end %> Ok, so when I create the guide with sections, it is working perfectly as I would like. The params hash is giving me a sections array just like I would want. The problem comes when I want edit guide/sections and save them again because rails is inserting the id of the guide in the id and name of each form field, which is screwing up the params hash on form submission. Just to be clear, here is the raw form output for a new resource: <input type="text" size="30" name="sections[][section_title]" id="sections__section_title"> <textarea rows="3" name="sections[][content]" id="sections__content" cols="40"></textarea> And here is what it looks like when editing an existing resource: <input type="text" value="Foo1" size="30" name="sections[cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1][section_title]" id="sections_cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1_section_title"> <textarea rows="3" name="sections[cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1][content]" id="sections_cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1_content" cols="40">Bar1</textarea> How do I force rails to always use the new resource behavior and not automatically add the id to the name and value. Do I have to create a custom form builder? Is there some other trick I can do to prevent rails from putting the id of the guide in there? I have tried a bunch of stuff and nothing is working. Thanks in advance!

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• Hibernate @Transactional not starting transaction

  - by rhinds

  I have a web app using Hibernate, and I am attempting to persist some data, but it is failing to persist within a Transaction despite using the @Transactional annotation. My service class is as follows: @Service("profileService") public class ProfileService { private EntityManager entityManager; @Autowired private AccountService accountService; @Autowired private ProfileDAOImpl profileDao; @PersistenceContext public void setEntityManager(EntityManager em) { this.entityManager = em; } @Transactional public void addConnectionToAccount(SocialConnection sc) { entityManager.persist(sc); } } The addConnectionToAccount() method is being called from another Spring bean in a normal method, and the ProfileService class is currently being injected there: public class HibernateConnectionRepository implements ConnectionRepository { @Inject private ProfileService profileService; @Override @Transactional public void addConnection(SocialConnection sc) { try { profileService.addConnectionToAccount(accountId, sc); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I tried putting the @Transactional annotation on the calling method in the vain hope that it might make a difference but nothing. Previously I have experienced problems like this its been because the object being persisted does not satisfy table restrictions (such as non-nullable columns as null) or because the method is being called from within the same class and the calling method is not Transactional, but neither of those are the case here.. Any ideas? it just fails silently, the logs are as follows: 2012-03-26 22:25:04,702 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,710 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - select SEQ_COUNT from SEQUENCE where SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' for update 2012-03-26 22:25:04,711 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - update SEQUENCE set SEQ_COUNT = ? where SEQ_COUNT = ? and SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.event.internal.AbstractSaveEventListener - Generated identifier: 2200, using strategy: org.hibernate.id.MultipleHiLoPerTableGenerator UPDATE Also wanted to mention that the HibernateConnectionRepository bean is not annotated and is actually being configured in an @Configuration class (if this makes any difference? not used @Configuration classes much). The method to create the bean is as follows: @Bean @Scope(value = "request", proxyMode = ScopedProxyMode.INTERFACES) public ConnectionRepository connectionRepository() { Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); if (authentication == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Unable to get a ConnectionRepository: no user signed in"); } ApplicationUser user = (ApplicationUser) authentication.getPrincipal(); return usersConnectionRepository().createConnectionRepository(String.valueOf(user.getAccountId())); } The bean is scoped to the logged in user, but may also be created multiple times for each user..

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• Abstract mapping with custom JiBX marshaller

  - by aweigold

  I have created a custom JiBX marshaller and verified it works. It works by doing something like the following: <binding xmlns:tns="http://foobar.com/foo" direction="output"> <namespace uri="http://foobar.com/foo" default="elements"/> <mapping class="java.util.HashMap" marshaller="com.foobar.Marshaller1"/> <mapping name="context" class="com.foobar.Context"> <structure field="configuration"/> </mapping> </binding> However I need to create multiple marshallers for different HashMaps. So I tried to reference it with abstract mapping like this: <binding xmlns:tns="http://foobar.com/foo" direction="output"> <namespace uri="http://foobar.com/foo" default="elements"/> <mapping abstract="true" type-name="configuration" class="java.util.HashMap" marshaller="com.foobar.Marshaller1"/> <mapping abstract="true" type-name="overrides" class="java.util.HashMap" marshaller="com.foobar.Marshaller2"/> <mapping name="context" class="com.foobar.Context"> <structure map-as="configuration" field="configuration"/> <structure map-as="overrides" field="overrides"/> </mapping> </binding> However when doing so, when I attempt to build the binding, I receive the following: Error during code generation for file "E:\project\src\main\jibx\foo.jibx" - this may be due to an error in your binding or classpath, or to an error in the JiBX code My guess is that either I'm missing something I need to implement to enable my custom marshaller for abstract mapping, or custom marshallers do not support abstract mapping. I have found the IAbstractMarshaller interface in the JiBX API (http://jibx.sourceforge.net/api/org/jibx/runtime/IAbstractMarshaller.html), however the documentation seems unclear to me on if this is what I need to implement, as well as how it works if so. I have not been able to find an implementation of this interface to work off of as an example. My question is, how do you do abstract mapping with custom marshallers (if it's possible)? If it is done via the IAbstractMarshaller interface, how does it work and/or how should I implement it?

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• How to perform add/update of a model object that contains EntitySet

  - by David Liddle

  I have a similar concept to the SO questions/tags scenario however am trying to decide the best way of implementation. Tables Questions, QuestionTags and Tags Questions QuestionTags Tags --------- ------------ ---- QID QID TID QName TID TName When adding/updating a question I have 2 textboxes. The important part is a single textbox that allows users to enter in multiple Tags separated by spaces. I am using Linq2Sql so the Questions model has an EntitySet of QuestionTags with then link to Tags. My question is regarding the adding/updating of Questions (part 1), and also how to best show QuestionTags for a Question (part 2). Part 1 Before performing an add/update, my service layer needs to deal with 3 scenarios before passing to their respective repositories. Insert Tags that do not already exist Insert/Update Question Insert QuestionTags - when updating need to remove existing QuestionTags Here is my code below however started to get into a bit of a muddle. I've created extension methods on my repositories to get Tags WithNames etc. public void Add(Question q, string tags) { var tagList = tags.Split(new string[] { " " }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries).ToList(); using (DB.TransactionScope ts = new DB.TransactionScope()) { var existingTags = TagsRepository.Get() .WithName(tagList) .ToList(); var newTags = (from t in tagList select new Tag { TName = t }).Except(existingTags, new TagsComparer()).ToList(); TagsRepository.Add(newTags); //need to insert QuestionTags QuestionsRepository.Add(q); ts.Complete(); } } Part 2 My second question is, when displaying a list of Questions how is it best to show their QuestionTags? For example, I have an Index view that shows a list of Questions in a table. One of the columns shows an image and when the user hovers over it shows the list of Tags. My current implementation is to create a custom ViewModel and show a List of QuestionIndexViewModel in the View. QuestionIndexViewModel { Question Question { get; set; } string Tags { get; set; } } However, this seems a bit clumsy and quite a few DB calls. public ViewResult Index() { var model= new List<QuestionIndexViewModel>(); //make a call to get a list of questions //foreach question make a call to get their QuestionTags, //to be able to get their Tag names and then join them //to form a single string. return View(model); } Also, just for test purposes using SQL Profiler, I decided to iterate through the QuestionTags entity set of a Question in my ViewModel however nothing was picked up in Profiler? What would be the reason for this?

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• Approach for authentication and storing user details.

  - by cappuccino

  Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

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