Search Results

Search found 25660 results on 1027 pages for 'booting issue'.

Page 845/1027 | < Previous Page | 841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852  | Next Page >

• How do you deal with denormalization / secondary indexes in database sharding?

  - by Continuation

  Say I have a "message" table with 2 secondary indexes: "recipient_id" "sender_id" I want to shard the "message" table by "recipient_id". That way to retrieve all messages sent to a certain recipient I only need to query one shard. But at the same time, I want to be able to make a query that ask for all messages sent by a certain sender. Now I don't want to send that query to every single shard of the "message" table. One way to do this is to duplicate the data and have a "message_by_sender" table sharded by "sender_id". The problem with that approach is that every time a message has been sent, I need to insert the message into both "message" and "message_by_sender" tables. But what if after inserting into "message" the insertion into "message_by_sender" fail? In that case the message exists in "message" but not in "message_by_sender". How do I make sure that if a message exists in "message" then it also exists in "message_by_sender" without resorting to 2 phase commit? This must be a very common issue for anyone who shards their databases. How do you deal woth it?

  Read the article

• qt on Win CE 5.0 crash

  - by Michael

  Good day all, It's the first time I am using Qt on Windows CE and I ran into an issue. Maybe someone can help me with it. I will describe my set up. I am using XP with Visual Studio 2005 an Qt Add-in version 1.1.2. I downloaded Qt source for Windows CE and followed the instructions on these (http://doc.trolltech.com/4.4/install-wince.html) instructions to build the library for CE. I then used the Visual Studio to create a minimal Qt Windows CE Application. The program runs fine in the CE emulator, but once I try to deploy it on the device it crashes with the following message: Load module: qt_ce_3.exe Load module: QtGui4.dll Load module: msvcr80.dll Load module: QtCore4.dll Load module: CEShell.DLL Load module: OLEAUT32.dll Load module: commctrl.dll.0409.MUI Load module: commctrl.dll Load module: aygshell.dll Load module: WS2.dll Load module: WINSOCK.dll Load module: coredll.dll.0409.MUI Load module: ossvcs.dll Load module: ole32.dll Load module: coredll.dll Load module: MMTimer.dll Data Abort: Thread=8fb09a40 Proc=8c4ecea0 'qt_ce_3.exe' AKY=00040001 PC=012a80b0(qtcore4.dll+0x000680b0) RA=012a8168(qtcore4.dll+0x00068168) BVA=676e4574 FSR=000000f5 Unhandled exception at 0x012a80b0 in qt_ce_3.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x676e4574. I tried it on two devices from different manufacturers, and the result is the same. Debug version worked on one of them, ran out of memory on the other. Does anyone have any idea what this could be? Thanks in advance, Michael

  Read the article

• Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

  - by Bob

  I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue?

  Read the article

• Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

  - by Bob

  I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

  Read the article

• Strange \n in base64 encoded string in Ruby

  - by intellidiot

  The inbuilt Base64 library in Ruby is adding some '\n's. I'm unable to find out the reason. For this special example: irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'base64' => true irb(main):003:0> str = "1110--ad6ca0b06e1fbeb7e6518a0418a73a6e04a67054" => "1110--ad6ca0b06e1fbeb7e6518a0418a73a6e04a67054" irb(main):004:0> Base64.encode64(str) => "MTExMC0tYWQ2Y2EwYjA2ZTFmYmViN2U2NTE4YTA0MThhNzNhNmUwNGE2NzA1\nNA==\n" The \n's are at the last and 6th position from end. The decoder (Base64.decode64) returns back the old string perfectly. Strange thing is, these \n's don't add any value to the encoded string. When I remove the newlines from the output string, the decoder decodes it again perfectly. irb(main):005:0> Base64.decode64(Base64.encode64(str).gsub("\n", '')) == str => true More of this, I used an another JS library to produce the base64 encoded output of the same input string, the output comes without the \n's. Is this a bug or anything else? Has anybody faced this issue before? FYI, $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2008-08-11 patchlevel 72) [i486-linux]

  Read the article

• Daemon program that uses select() inside infinite loop uses significantly more CPU when ported from

  - by Jake

  I have a daemon app written in C and is currently running with no known issues on a Solaris 10 machine. I am in the process of porting it over to Linux. I have had to make minimal changes. During testing it passes all test cases. There are no issues with its functionality. However, when I view its CPU usage when 'idle' on my Solaris machine it is using around .03% CPU. On the Virtual Machine running Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4.8 that same process uses all available CPU (usually somewhere in the 90%+ range). My first thought was that something must be wrong with the event loop. The event loop is an infinite loop ( while(1) ) with a call to select(). The timeval is setup so that timeval.tv_sec = 0 and timeval.tv_usec = 1000. This seems reasonable enough for what the process is doing. As a test I bumped the timeval.tv_sec to 1. Even after doing that I saw the same issue. Is there something I am missing about how select works on Linux vs. Unix? Or does it work differently with and OS running on a Virtual Machine? Or maybe there is something else I am missing entirely? One more thing I am sure sure which version of vmware server is being used. It was just updated about a month ago though. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to Find Intersections with Ellipses in PGF/TikZ

  - by infblnpf

  Hello, I am trying to display a sphere in PGF/TikZ to illustrate the idea of great circles. The code for my current result is: \begin{tikzpicture} \tikzfading[name=fade right, left color=transparent!20, right color=transparent!90] \tikzfading[name=fade out, inner color=transparent!100, outer color=transparent!10] \tikzfading[name=fade right gc, left color=transparent!0, right color=transparent!70] \draw [<->, dashed] (0,-5) -- (0,5); % y-axis \draw [->, dashed] (0, 0) -- (20:5); % x-axis \draw [->, dashed] (0, 0) -- (200:5); % x-axis \draw [->, dashed] (0, 0) -- (340:5); % z-axis \draw [->, dashed] (0, 0) -- (160:5); % z-axis \fill [color=cyan, opacity=0.15, path fading=fade out] (0,0) circle (4cm); % bounding circle \fill [color=cyan, opacity=0.25, path fading=fade right, fading angle=90] (0,0) ellipse (4cm and 1cm); % x-y-axis area % great circle 1 \draw [rotate=-40, color=red, path fading=fade right gc, fading angle=40] (0,0) ellipse (4cm and 1cm); % great circle 2 \draw[rotate=5, color=red, path fading=fade right gc, fading angle=5] (0,0) ellipse (1.5cm and 4cm); \end{tikzpicture} How do I find the two points of intersection of the two red ellipses (commented as great circle 1 and 2), find the point of intersection of a line (originating at the center (0,0)) with a ellipse, and place a little circle or rectangle there? Placing a little circle or rectangle there is not an issue. Thank you very much!

  Read the article

• Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery on the same page?

  - by reprogrammer

  I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

  Read the article

• Rails 2.3 session

  - by Sam Kong

  Hi, I am developing a rails 2.3.2 app. I need to keep session_id for an order record, retrieve it and finally delete the session_id when the order is completed. It worked when I used cookies as session store but it doesn't for active_record store. (I restarted my browser, so no cache issue.) I know rails 2.3 implements lazy session load. I read some info about it but am still confused. Can somebody clarify how I use session_id for such a case? What I am doing is... A user make an order going through several pages. There is no sign-up, neither login. So I keep session_id in the order record so that no other user can access the order. @order = Order.last :conditions = {:id = params[:id], :session_id = session[:session_id] } When the order is finished, I set nil to session_id column. How would you implement such a case in lazy session(and active_record store) environment? Thanks. Sam

  Read the article

• Why avoid increment ("++") and decrement ("--") operators in JavaScript?

  - by artlung

  I'm a big fan of Douglas Crockford's writing on JavaScript, particularly his book JavaScript: The Good Parts. It's made me a better JavaScript programmer and a better programmer in general. One of his tips for his jslint tool is this : ++ and -- The ++ (increment) and -- (decrement) operators have been known to contribute to bad code by encouraging excessive trickiness. They are second only to faulty architecture in enabling to viruses and other security menaces. There is a plusplus option that prohibits the use of these operators. This has always struck my gut as "yes, that makes sense," but has annoyed me when I've needed a looping condition and can't figure out a better way to control the loop than a while( a < 10 )do { a++ } or for (var i=0;i<10;i++) { } and use jslint. It's challenged me to write it differently. I also know in the distant past using things, in say PHP like $foo[$bar++] has gotten me in trouble with off-by-one errors. Are there C-like languages or other languages with similarities that that lack the "++" and "--" syntax or handle it differently? Are there other rationales for avoiding "++" and "--" that I might be missing? UPDATE -- April 9, 2010: In the video Crockford on JavaScript -- Part 5: The End of All Things, Douglas Crockford addresses the ++ issue more directly and with more detail. It appears at 1:09:00 in the timeline. Worth a watch.

  Read the article

• combobox dropdown problem when load AS2 swf file in Flex

  - by him_aeng

  I found the problem about combobox dropdown list in AS2 swf file. My scenario is: There are multiple swf file that was compile from ActionScript2.0 and use Flex to load those swf files in swfLoader component. There are two issue that I found and can't solve it: 1. When I load multiple as2.0 swf file in one flex application the first file that was load will work perfectly but the second and so on file have problem. When I click in their combobox component the dropdown list was not show. 2. swf file that was not first load have problem with popup window also. When the popup was show they can't work properly, I can't make any operation on it such as click button, close popup etc. I solve it by add the empty content AS2.0 swf file in flex to be first swf file that was load and it make something weird happen: When I click button on combobox the dropdown list was appear but it appear on position (x:0, y:0) of its container. I also add the code: this._lockroot = true; in every ActionScript2.0 code but it not solve the problem. I don't know the source of problem. Please help me. Thank.

  Read the article

• Mimic.js handle fault response

  - by nikolas

  i use mimic.js regarding a project that i m developing.. the issue that i face, is if there is a fault response from the webservice, mimic, doesn't handle it, and the browser remains "awaiting" for a response, that has actually been back, but hasn't been handled by mimic.. to be more specific, one typical fault response is the following.. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <methodResponse> <fault> <value> <struct> <member> <name>faultCode</name><value><int>104</int></value> </member> <member> <name>faultString</name><value><string>Invalid Input Parameters</string></value> </member> </struct></value></fault></methodResponse> and chrome console get me the error mimic.js:11 Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'childNodes' of null any suggestions on how to handle "fault" responses? mimic.js hasn't been altered at all.. also tried to bypass the fact that mimic can't handle the fault, by trying to use the isFault flag, in the if statement, with no success either.. isFault is supposed to get a boolean value, i guess true/false?

  Read the article

• Overlaying 2D paths on UIImage without scaling artifacts

  - by tat0

  I need to draw a path along the shape of an image in a way that it is always matching its position on the image independent of the image scale. Think of this like the hybrid view of Google Maps where streets names and roads are superimposed on top of the aerial pictures. Furthermore, this path will be drawn by the user's finger movements and I need to be able to retrieve the path keypoints on the image pixel coordinates. The user zooms-in in order to more precisely set the paths location. I manage to somehow make it work using this approach: -Create a custom UIView called CanvasView that handles touches interaction and delivers scaling, rotation, translation values to either the UIImageView or PathsView (see bellow) depending on a flag: deliverToImageOrPaths. -Create a UIImageView holding the base image. This is set as a children of CanvasView -Create a custom UIView called PathsView that keeps track of the 2D paths geometry and draws itself with a custom drawRect. This is set as children of the UIImageView. So hierarchy: CanvasView - UIImageView -PathsView In this way when deliverToImageOrPaths is YES, finger gestures transforms both the UIImageView and its child PathsView. When deliverToImageOrPaths is NO the gestures affect only the PathsView altering its geometry. So far so good. QUESTION: The problem I have is that when scaling the base UIImageView (via its .transform property) the PathsView is scaled with aliasing artifacts. drawRect is still being called on the PathsView but I guess it's performing the drawing using the original buffer size and then interpolating. How can I solve this issue? Are there better ways to implement these features? PS: I tried changing the PathsView layer class to CATiledLayer with levelsOfDetailBias 4 and levelsOfDetail 4. It solves the aliasing problem to some extent but it's unacceptable slow to render.

  Read the article

• How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

  Read the article

• How do I use a modalViewController Identically in Two Controllers?

  - by Theory

  I'm using the Three20 TTMessageController in my app. I've figured out how to use it, adding on a bunch of other stuff (including TTMessageControllerDelegate methods and ABPeoplePickerNavigationControllerDelegate methods). It works great for me, after a bit of a struggle to figure it out. The trouble I'm having now is a design issue: I want to use it identically in two different places, including with the same delegate methods. My current approach is that I've put all the code into a single class inheriting from NSObject, called ComposerProxy, and I'm just having the two controllers that use it use the proxy, like so: ComposerProxy *proxy = [[ComposerProxy alloc] initWithController:this]; [proxy go]; The go method constructs the TTMessageController, configures it, adds it to a UINavigationController, and presents it: [self.controller presentModalViewController: navController animated: YES]; This works great, as I have all my code nicely encapsulated in ComposerProxy and I need only the above two lines anywhere I want to use it. The downside, though, is that I can't dealloc the proxy variable without getting crashes. I can't autorelease it, either: same problem. So I'm wondering if my proxy approach is a poor one. How does one normally encapsulate a bunch of behaviors like this without requiring a lot of duplicate code in the classes that use it? Do I need to add a delegate class to my ComposerProxy and make the controller responsible for dismissing the modal view controller in a hypothetical composerDidFinish method or some such? Many TIA!

  Read the article

• Advice on improving programming skills, learning capabilities?

  - by anonymous-coward1234

  Hi all, After 2,5 years of professional Java programing, I still have problems that make my job difficult and, more importantly - more times that I would like to admit - not enjoyable. I would like to ask for advice by more experienced people on ways that would help me overcome them. These are the problems I have: I do not absorb new knowledge easily. Even when I understand something, after a couple of days I easily forget even basic stuff. Other co-workers, even with the same working experience, when reading new technologies put things easily into "context", and are able to compare in "real time| similar technologies they already have used. I always try to address all the issues to whatever I am doing at one go, which results in me trying to resolve too many problems at the same time, losing completely control. I find it difficult to make my mind on a single problem that I should address first, and even when I do, and find myself throwing away code that I wrote because I started addressing the wrong issue first. As far as architecture and data modeling is concerned, I have difficulty making decisions on what objects must be created, with what hierarchy, interfaces, abstraction etc. I imagine that - to a certain degree - these things come with experience. But after 2,5 years of Java programming, I would expect myself to have come much farther that I have come, both in terms of absorption and experience. Is there a way to improve my learning speed? Any books, methods, advice is welcome.

  Read the article

• Building a many-to-many db schema using only an unpredictable number of foreign keys

  - by user1449855

  Good afternoon (at least around here), I have a many-to-many relationship schema that I'm having trouble building. The main problem is that I'm only working with primary and foreign keys (no varchars or enums to simplify things) and the number of many-to-many relationships is not predictable and can increase at any time. I looked around at various questions and couldn't find something that directly addressed this issue. I split the problem in half, so I now have two one-to-many schemas. One is solved but the other is giving me fits. Let's assume table FOO is a standard, boring table that has a simple primary key. It's the one in the one-to-many relationship. Table BAR can relate to multiple keys of FOO. The number of related keys is not known beforehand. An example: From a query FOO returns ids 3, 4, 5. BAR needs a unique key that relates to 3, 4, 5 (though there could be any number of ids returned) The usual join table does not work: Table FOO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_id | Since FOO returns 3 unique keys and here bar_id has a one-to-one relationship with foo_id. Having two join tables does not seem to work either, as it still can't map foo_ids 3, 4, 5 to a single bar_id. Table FOO_TO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_to_foo_id | Table BAR_TO_FOO primary_key | foo_to_bar_id | bar_id | What am I doing wrong? Am I making things more complicated than they are? How should I approach the problem? Thanks a lot for the help.

  Read the article

• PostgreSQL: BYTEA vs OID+Large Object?

  - by mlaverd

  I started an application with Hibernate 3.2 and PostgreSQL 8.4. I have some byte[] fields that were mapped as @Basic (= PG bytea) and others that got mapped as @Lob (=PG Large Object). Why the inconsistency? Because I was a Hibernate noob. Now, those fields are max 4 Kb (but average is 2-3 kb). The PostgreSQL documentation mentioned that the LOs are good when the fields are big, but I didn't see what 'big' meant. I have upgraded to PostgreSQL 9.0 with Hibernate 3.6 and I was stuck to change the annotation to @Type(type="org.hibernate.type.PrimitiveByteArrayBlobType"). This bug has brought forward a potential compatibility issue, and I eventually found out that Large Objects are a pain to deal with, compared to a normal field. So I am thinking of changing all of it to bytea. But I am concerned that bytea fields are encoded in Hex, so there is some overhead in encoding and decoding, and this would hurt the performance. Are there good benchmarks about the performance of both of these? Anybody has made the switch and saw a difference?

  Read the article

• nested form collection_select new value overwriting previous selected values

  - by bharath

  Nested form <%= nested_form_for(@bill) do |f| %> <p><%= f.link_to_add "Add Product", :bill_line_items %> </p> Partial of bill line items <%= javascript_include_tag 'bill'%> <%= f.hidden_field :bill_id %> <%- prices = Hash[Product.all.map{|p| [p.id, p.price]}].to_json %> <%= f.label :product_id %> <%= f.collection_select :product_id ,Product.all,:id,:name, :class => 'product', :prompt => "Select a Product", input_html: {data: {prices: prices}}%> <br/ > <%= f.label :price, "price"%> <%= f.text_field :price, :size=>20, :class =>"price" %><br/> bill.js jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery('.product').change(function() { var product_id = jQuery(this).val(); var price = eval(jQuery(this).data("prices"))[product_id]; jQuery('.price').val(price); }); }); Rails 3.2 Issue: Second click on Add Product & on selecting the product When we select the second product the price of second product is overwriting on the price of the first selected product. Request help.

  Read the article

• zend_captcha always fails isValid()

  - by Grant Collins

  Hi, I've got an issue with Zend_Captcha always returning false when the page is submitted and the captcha's isValid() method is being called. It's driving my nuts because this as far as I am concerned should work. I start by declaring this at the top of the action function of the controller $captcha = new Zend_Captcha_Image('captcha', array( 'captcha' => array( 'name' => 'graduatesignupcaptcha', 'wordlen' => 6, 'font' => $this->config->captcha->font, 'imgDir' => $baseUrl.'/images/captcha/', 'imgUrl' => $this->config->webserver->name.'/images/captcha/', ) ) ); $captcha->setHeight(80) ->setTimeout(300); I do usual form validation and that all works, however it is when I come to validate that the value entered into form for the captcha it always returns false. //next we check the captcha text to ensure that the form is a person not a script $captchaText = $form->getElement('captchainput')->getValue(); $captchaId = $form->getElement('captchaid')->getValue(); //$captchaSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('Zend_Form_Captcha_'.$captchaId); $captchaArray = array( 'id' => $captchaId, 'input' => $captchaText ); if(!$captcha->isValid($captchaArray)){ $log->log(implode(",",$captcha->getErrors()), Zend_Log::DEBUG); $form->getElement('captchainput')->setErrors(array('messages' => 'Bad security code')); $formFailed = true; } I've check to ensure that the id that I am getting and storing as a hidden element in my form match the image that is being generated but no matter what I do this always fails. Am I missing something simple here?? Or is there a better way of dealing with this?? Thanks,

  Read the article

• How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

  - by kylemac

  Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

  Read the article

• TemplateField button causing GridView Invalid Postback

  - by Carter

  Ok, so I've got a template field in a gridview that contains just a simple button... <asp:GridView ID="KeywordsGridView" AllowPaging="false" AutoGenerateColumns="false" BackColor="white" GridLines="None" HeaderStyle-CssClass="Table_Header" RowStyle-CssClass="Table_Style" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="References" SortExpression="References" HeaderText="Total References" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Keyword" SortExpression="Keyword" HeaderText="Keyword" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Whenever I click the button I get the error... Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. I've found a decent amount of articles referencing this issue, including a couple on SO, for example... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/228969/asp-net-invalid-postback-or-callback-argument-event-validation-is-enabled-usi and... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/103560/invalid-postback-or-callback-argument I might just be misunderstanding, but as far as I can tell they don't really help me. How do I get this to go away without setting enableEventValidation="false"?

  Read the article

• How to protect copyright on large web applications?

  - by Saif Bechan

  Recently I have read about Myows, described as "the universal copyright management and protection app for smart creatives". It is used to protect copyright and more. Currently I am working on a large web application which is in late testing phase. Because of the complexity of the app there are not many versions of it online so copyright will be a huge issue for me as much of the code is in JavaScript and is easy copyable. I was glad to see that there is some company out there that provide such services, and naturally I wanted to know if there were people using it. I did not know that this type of concept was so new. Is protecting copyright a good idea for a large web application? If so, do you think Myows will be worth using, or are there better ways to achieve that? Update: Wow, there is no better person to have answered this question like the creator himself. There were some nice points made in the answer, and I think it will be a good service for people like me. In the next couple of weeks I will be looking further into the subject and start uploading my code and see how it works out. I will leave this question up because I do want some more suggestions on this topic.

  Read the article

• On IE cursor is comming always at start in textarea

  - by pravin

  I am dealing with textarea, and on click of this I am calling one replace function which will remove some specified string in textarea, this is the basic operation. Expected behavior after clicking on textarea 1) At first click : It should remove specified string from textarea Cursor should come at end of string 2) more than one click : - Cursor should come at where ever user clicks in text area Below is my replace function.... function replace(id,transFromDb) { newStr = $("#"+id).val(); var len = null; if(transFromDb == '') { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); } else { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); } /* change font weight as bold. */ $("#"+id).css({"fontWeight":"bold"}); $("#"+id).val(newStr); } Assume that Lang.Message is specified string. It's working above behavior with FF. Facing issue on IE, it always keep cursor position at first. Please provide any solution.... Thanks in Adavance Pravin

  Read the article

• Logout exception flooding elmah

  - by durilai

  I am using ASP.NET membership, and in particular a copy of the membership code included in the MVC project. I am also using elmah to log exceptions. I am getting flooded with the following when people sign out. System.Web.HttpException: Server cannot set status after HTTP headers have been sent. Here is the stack trace sent System.Web.HttpException: Server cannot set status after HTTP headers have been sent. at System.Web.HttpResponse.set_StatusCode(Int32 value) at System.Web.HttpResponseWrapper.set_StatusCode(Int32 value) at System.Web.Mvc.HandleErrorAttribute.OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeExceptionFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, IList`1 filters, Exception exception) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeAction(ControllerContext controllerContext, String actionName) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.<>c__DisplayClass8.<BeginProcessRequest>b__4() at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.<>c__DisplayClass1.<MakeVoidDelegate>b__0() at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.<>c__DisplayClass8`1.<BeginSynchronous>b__7(IAsyncResult _) at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.WrappedAsyncResult`1.End() at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult result) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) I cannot seem to find any reason for this. It is not causing an issue for end users, but would still like to resolve/learn about it. Thanks for any help or guidance.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852  | Next Page >