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  • Declaring models elsewhere than in "models.py" AND dynamically

    - by sebpiq
    Hi ! I have an application that splits models into different files. Actually the folder looks like : >myapp __init__.py models.py >hooks ... ... myapp don't care about what's in the hooks, folder, except that there are models, and that they have to be declared somehow. So, I put this in myapp.__init__.py : from django.conf import settings for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : __import__(hook) except ImportError as e : print "Got import err !", e #where settings.HOOKS = ("myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1", ...) The problem is that it doesn't work when I run syncdb(and throws some strange "Got import err !"... strange considering that it's related to another module of my program that I don't even import anywhere :/ ) ! So I tried successively : 1) for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : exec ("from %s import *" % hook) - doesn't work either : syncdb doesn't install the models in hooks 2) from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import * - This works 3) exec("from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import *") - This works to So I checked that in the test 1), the statement executed is the same than in tests 2) and 3), and it is exactly the same ... Any idea ???

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  • ASP.Net MVC and Windows 7 404 error

    - by Paul Rivers
    O.K. Stupid question..... I sepnt nearly a day getting an MVC site working, and then I published it. After that, the hell began. I'm using Windows 7, Visual Studio 2008 and MVC. I published it and first the Default.aspx wouldn't come up. I gave up on playing with that for a few and just did the easy thing a typed in default.aspx. I'll fix that problem later. So, I clicked on one of my navigation buttons which prior to this worked just fine in the internal development IIS, and I get a 404 error. I spent two days surfing the Microsoft support forums and every other support forum I can find. No fix. So, I tried something a little different. Just to see if I screwed up. I created a new TestMVC application. Set the output to a website on the local IIS. Compiled and after typing in the default.aspx (it was set as the startup file in the project) I then clicked on the About button on the base MVC application. And what do I get? 404. I know this is new, folks, but this is crazy. What is it about this process that would take this much effort to get it right, especially since it works on the test server.

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  • How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

    - by Yeodave
    Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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  • Mercurial repository narrow clone?

    - by Berry Langerak
    Hi. I'm currently in the process of moving from Subversion to Mercurial, and I have to say I don't regret that decision. However, when trying to convert my project, I ran into a problem of Mercurial, which I can't seem to get fixed. I have two distinct projects: one is a framework, and the other is an application that relies on that framework. Here's what the repositories look like: The Framework repository: docs/ deploy/ lib/ tests/ The Application repository: application/ config/ lib/ tests/ www/ What I'd like is for the application's lib directory to contain a copy of the frameworks' lib/ directory. I used to do this using svn:externals. Now, I am aware that Mercurial supports the concept of subrepositories, but that doesn't seem like the "correct" solution, as it doesn't actually pull in the lib/ directory like I wanted, as you'll still have to pull and push changes manually. That, plus once you clone the framework repository, you'll get all of it, not just the lib/ directory. I only need the lib/ directory, not the tests, or the docs. Now, I thought up two different solutions to this problem, but I wonder which is the best. The first solution would be to clone the framework in a different directory altogether and create symlink in the application's lib/ directory which points to the framework's lib/ directory. Putting the symlink in .hgignore should make sure all is well, I think? That means that you could edit the frameworks code, and commit that, and you could edit the application's code and commit that, too. The other option is to have multiple repositories. The framework gets pulled as a whole, which means you'll get the docs/, deploy/, test/ etc. directories, which are not needed for usage of the framework. I thought maybe creating a repository purely for the library might be a solution, although I sincerely doubt it, as the Unit Tests are very dependant upon the library itself. Does anyone know a decent solution for this problem?

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  • Do double forward slashes direct IE to use specific css?

    - by kjh
    I have just found something very weird while developing a website. While trying to get a div element to display across the top of the screen, I noticed that I wasn't achieving a desired result in any browser except for old versions of IE. In order to test some different code, instead of deleting the faulty line, I used '//' to comment it out (I'm not really even sure if that works in css) but what happened was, the compatible browsers used the uncommented code, while IE used the code marked by '//'. here is the code: #ban-menu-div{ position:fixed;top:0; //position:relative; //<-- IE keeps the banner with rel pos while the other display:block; // browsers used fixed margin:auto; padding:0px; width:100%; text-align:center; background:black; } so basically, it seems as though // can be used to instruct newer browsers to ignore specific lines of code, and instruct older versions of IE to use it? If this is common practice someone please let me know. it sure makes developing for older browsers a hell of a lot easier

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  • Using a Data Management Singleton

    - by Dan Ray
    Here's my singleton code (pretty much boilerplate): @interface DataManager : NSObject { NSMutableArray *eventList; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *eventList; +(DataManager*)sharedDataManager; @end And then the .m: #import "DataManager.h" static DataManager *singletonDataManager = nil; @implementation DataManager @synthesize eventList; +(DataManager*)sharedDataManager { @synchronized(self) { if (!singletonDataManager) { singletonDataManager = [[DataManager alloc] init]; } } NSLog(@"Pulling a copy of shared manager."); return singletonDataManager; } So then in my AppDelegate, I load some stuff before launching my first view: NSMutableArray *eventList = [DataManager sharedDataManager].eventList; .... NSLog(@"Adding event %@ to eventList", event.title); [eventList addObject:event]; NSLog(@"eventList now has %d members", [eventList count]); [event release]; As you can see, I've peppered the code with NSLog love notes to myself. The output to the Log reads like: 2010-05-10 09:08:53.355 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Woofstock Music Festival to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.355 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.411 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Test Event for Staging to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.411 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.467 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Montgomery Event to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.467 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members 2010-05-10 09:08:53.524 MyApp[2037:207] Adding event Alamance County Event For June to eventList 2010-05-10 09:08:53.524 MyApp[2037:207] eventList now has 0 members ... What gives? I have no errors getting to my eventList NSMutableArray. But I addObject: fails silently?

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  • jQuery not working as expected on HTTPS Internet explorer

    - by jat
    When I try to run my code on any other webbrowsers apart from the Internet explorer it works fine. But when I try to run the code on Internet explorer I do get an alert box saying HERE along with an Ok button. but the problem is when I click on that OK button I do not get anything. Ideally I should be getting another alert box. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(event) { alert("here"); $.post('process.php', {name:'test1',email:'test.com'}, function(data) { $('#results').html(data); alert(data); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form name="myform" id="myform" action="" method="POST"> <label for="name" id="name_label">Name</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" size="30" value=""/> <br> <label for="email" id="email_label">Email</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email" size="30" value=""/> <br> <input type="button" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit"> </form> <div id="results"><div> </body> </html> Any help on this is very much appreciated. Edit: I found out that Internet Explorer which has HTTP works perfectly fine but not on Internet Explorer which uses HTTPS.

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  • How to focus a control in an MDIParent when all child windows have closed?

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have a control in my parent mdi form which I wish to be given the focus if all mdi children have closed. I've tried hooking into the child form's FormClosed event and setting the focus from there but when I test it, my control is not left with focus when I close the mdi child. Can anyone tell me what I'm missing? In the sample below, "first focus" gets hit and does its job correctly (if I comment out the first focus line, my tree does not get focus on startup, so it must be doing its job, right?) Unfortunately, even though "second focus" gets hit, my tree does not end up with the focus when I close the child window. Sample using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace mdiFocus { class ParentForm : Form { public ParentForm() { IsMdiContainer = true; tree = new TreeView(); tree.Nodes.Add("SomeNode"); tree.Dock = DockStyle.Left; Controls.Add(tree); } protected override void OnShown(EventArgs e) { Form child = new Form(); child.MdiParent = this; child.Show(); child.FormClosed += new FormClosedEventHandler(child_FormClosed); tree.Focus(); // first focus works ok } void child_FormClosed(object sender, FormClosedEventArgs e) { tree.Focus(); // second focus doesn't seem to work, even though it is hit :( } TreeView tree; } static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.Run(new ParentForm()); } } }

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  • Performance Problems with Django's F() Object

    - by JayhawksFan93
    Has anyone else noticed performance issues using Django's F() object? I am running Windows XP SP3 and developing against the Django trunk. A snippet of the models I'm using and the query I'm building are below. When I have the F() object in place, each call to a QuerySet method (e.g. filter, exclude, order_by, distinct, etc.) takes approximately 2 seconds, but when I comment out the F() clause the calls are sub-second. I had a co-worker test it on his Ubuntu machine, and he is not experiencing the same performance issues I am with the F() clause. Anyone else seeing this behavior? class Move (models.Model): state_meaning = models.CharField( max_length=16, db_index=True, blank=True, default='' ) drop = models.ForeignKey( Org, db_index=True, null=False, default=1, related_name='as_move_drop' ) class Split(models.Model): state_meaning = models.CharField( max_length=16, db_index=True, blank=True, default='' ) move = models.ForeignKey( Move, related_name='splits' ) pickup = models.ForeignKey( Org, db_index=True, null=False, default=1, related_name='as_split_pickup' ) pickup_date = models.DateField( null=True, default=None ) drop = models.ForeignKey( Org, db_index=True, null=False, default=1, related_name='as_split_drop' ) drop_date = models.DateField( null=True, default=None, db_index=True ) def get_splits(begin_date, end_date): qs = Split.objects \ .filter(state_meaning__in=['INPROGRESS','FULFILLED'], drop=F('move__drop'), # <<< the line in question pickup_date__lte=end_date) elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs1 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.filter(Q(drop_date__gte=begin_date) | Q(drop_date__isnull=True)) elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs2 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.exclude(move__state_meaning='UNFULFILLED') elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs3 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.order_by('pickup_date', 'drop_date') elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs7 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.distinct() elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs8 took %.3f' % elapsed

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  • PHP Mail() not working on remote server

    - by Amaerth
    I am developing an application and have been testing the mail() function in PHP. The following works just fine on my local machine to send emails to myself, but as soon as I try to send it from the testing environment to my local machine, it silently fails. I will still get the "Mail Sent" message, but no message is sent. I turned on the mail logging in the php.ini file, but even that doesn't seem to be populated after I refresh the page. Again, the .php files and php.ini files are identical in both environments. Port 25 has been opened on the testing environment, and we are using a Microsoft Exchange server. <?php $to = "[email protected]"; $subject = "Test mail"; $message = "Hello! This is a simple email message."; $from = "[email protected]"; $headers = "From:" . $from; mail($to,$subject,$message,$headers); echo "Mail Sent."; ?> SMTP area of the php.ini file: [mail function] ; For Win32 only. ; http://php.net/smtp SMTP = exhange.server.org ; http://php.net/smtp-port smtp_port = 25 ; For Win32 only. ; http://php.net/sendmail-from sendmail_from = [email protected]

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  • using jquery $.ajax to retrieve data and push data into javascript array through the success functio

    - by teamdane
    Hello All, I have a function that I'm trying to retrieve values using $.ajax and push the returned data into an array called output. Problem is the success function will not allow me to push the results into the array. see below for code. var getValues = function(el) { var value = ($(el).val()); if(value == '' || $(el).attr('disabled')) { return []; } var string = 'value=' + value; var output = []; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'shocklookup_callback.php', dataType: "string", data: string, success: function(data) { } }); //output.push({ text : value + 'test', value : value + 'test1'} ); return output; }; Any ideas of what I can put in the success function to be able to push the data into the output array? Also I need to be able to return the output array to the original function getValues. If this doesn't' make a whole lot of sense please let me know and I'll try to explain better. Thanks, Dane

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  • Using Cucumber or RSpec+Selenium to create end user documentation?

    - by carolclarinet
    Has anyone tried creating end user (potentially online, potentially to be printed) help/documentation out of your cucumber scenarios? Or taken screenshots for use in documentation using RSpec and Selenium RC's ability to do so? For Cucumber, I'm imagining something like: Scenario: If you want to add a link Given I am on the edit blog post page When I press the "add link" button And I type in a link URL "http://stackoverflow.com" And I click "OK" Then the blog post should have 1 link Translating to the documentation: If you want to add a link, go to the edit blog post page. Press the "add link" button and type a URL, like "http://stackoverflow.com", into the link URL field. Click "OK". Would it be worth my time to try and, for one, write something to parse my Cucumber features into documentation, and two, to write/structure my Cucumber features in such a way as to create good documentation? Would the resulting documentation end up sounding really boring without much variation in the structure? Is there anything else out there like this idea? Doxygen looks like it's more for code documentation than end-user documentation. What about automatically taking screenshots? This seems like a more fruitful path-- just reuse the code that takes a screenshot when an RSpec test fails and have it take one in prescribed situations. Is there a better way to do this?

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  • Upload to a PHP Server, using Ajax ( XMLHttp POST)

    - by Krishnanunni
    Right now i'm using the below method to Upload a file to PHP <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://sserver.com/fileupload.php" method="POST"> <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="30000000" /> <input type="hidden" name="filename" value="file_uploaded.gif" /> <input type="hidden" name="username" value="foobar"/> Please choose a file: <input name="uploaded" type="file" /><br /> <input type="submit" value="Upload" /> </form> I read the $_POST and $_FILE in php to complete upload like this. $target = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']."/test/upload/"; $target = $target . basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']) ; echo $target; $ok=1; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded']['tmp_name'], $target)) { echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else { echo "Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file."; } My questions is , can i change the above said code (HTML) to an Ajax XMLHttpRequest without changes in PHP.

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  • WCF consumed as WebService adds a boolean parameter?

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I've created the default WCF Service in VS2008. It's called "Service1" public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData( int value ) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ) { if ( composite.BoolValue ) { composite.StringValue += "Suffix"; } return composite; } } It works fine, the interface is IService1: [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData( int value ); [OperationContract] CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract( CompositeType composite ); // TODO: Add your service operations here } This is all by default; Visual Studio 2008 created all this. I then created a simple Winforms app to "test" this. I added the Service Reference to my the above mentioned service and it all works. I can instanciate and call myservice1.GetData(100); and I get the result. But I was told that this service will have to be consumed by a Winforms .NET 2.0 app via Web Services, so I proceeded to add the reference to a new Winforms .NET 2.0 application created from scratch (only one winform called form1). This time, when adding the "web reference", it added the typical "localhost" one belonging to webservices; the wizard saw the WCF Service (running on background) and added it. When I tried to consume this, I found out that the GetData(int) method, was now GetData(int, bool). Here's the code private void button1_Click( object sender, EventArgs e ) { localhost.Service1 s1 = new WindowsFormsApplication2.localhost.Service1(); Console.WriteLine(s1.GetData(100, false)); } Notice the false in the GetData call? I don't know what that parameter is or where did that come from, it is called "bool valueSpecified". Does anybody know where this is coming from? Anything else I should do to consume a WCF Service as a WebService from .NET 2.0? (winforms).

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  • Entity framework 4.0 compiled query with Where() clause issue

    - by Andrey Salnikov
    Hello, I encountered with some strange behavior of System.Data.Objects.CompiledQuery.Compile function - here is my code for compile simple query: private static readonly Func<DataContext, long, Product> productQuery = CompiledQuery.Compile((DataContext ctx, long id) => ctx.Entities.OfType<Data.Product>().Where(p => p.Id == id) .Select(p=>new Product{Id = p.Id}).SingleOrDefault()); where DataContext inherited from ObjectContext and Product is a projection of POCO Data.Product class. My data context in first run contains Data.Product {Id == 1L} and in second Data.Product {Id == 2L}. First using of compilled query productQuery(dataContext, 1L) works perfect - in result I have Product {Id == 1L} but second run productQuery(dataContext, 2L) always returns null, instead of context in second run contains single product with id == 2L. If I remove Where clause I will get correct product (with id == 2L). It seems that first id value caching while first run of productQuery, and therefore all further calls valid only when dataContext contains Data.Product {id==1L}. This issue can't be reproduced if I've used direct query instead of its precompiled version. Also, all tests I've performed on test mdf base using SQL Server 2008 express and Visual studio 2010 final from my ASP.net application.

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  • Testing Web Application: "Mirror" ad-hoc testing in another window

    - by Narcissus
    I don't even really know if the title is the best way to explain what I'm trying to do, but anyway... We have a web app that is being ported to a number of DB backends via MDB2. Our unit tests are pretty lacking at the moment, but our internal users are pretty good at knowing what to test to see if things are broken. What I'm 'imagining' is a browser plug in (don't really care which browser it is for) or a similar system that essentially takes every event from one window and 'mirrors' it in the other browser/s. The reason I'd like this is so that I can have various installations that use different DB backends, and have the user open a window/tab to each installation. From there, however, I'd like them to be able to 'work' in one window and have that 'work' I occur at the same time in each of the 'cloned' windows. From there, they should be able to do some quick eyeballing of the information that comes back, without having to worry about timing differences and so (very much). I know it's a big ask, but I figure if anyone knows of a solution, I'd find it here... Any thoughts?

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  • Properly handling NSURLConnection errors

    - by Cal S
    Hi, I have a simple form interface set up that send username and password information to a server: (working) NSString *postData = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"user=%@&pass=%@",[self urlEncodeValue:sysUsername],[self urlEncodeValue:password]]; NSLog(@"Post data -> %@", postData); /// NSData* postVariables = [postData dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; NSMutableURLRequest* request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; NSString* postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postVariables length]]; NSURL* postUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost/~csmith/cocoa/test.php"]; [request setURL:postUrl]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody: postVariables]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:NULL error:NULL]; NSLog(@"Post data SENT & returned -> %@", returnData); How do I handle connection errors such as no internet connection, firewall, etc. Also, does this method use the system-wide proxy settings? Many of my users are behind a proxy. Thanks a lot!

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  • Bug on submitted app binary but not in the simulator - CALayer position contains NaN

    - by Jonathan Thurft
    I submitted my app to the App Store where is ready to download. I've since then received some interesting crash reports when people select an image from the ImagePicker in one of my views. This bug (see below) makes the app crash. I was wondering 2 things. Can anyone spot the problem in the code below? How do you deal with bugs that are only in the App Binary but do not show up when trying to recreate them on the dev environment? - I can make the app crash with the Binary that is on the app store but when I do the same on the simulator or on my test phone the app works perfectly.. The Crash report in BugSense CALayer position contains NaN: [798 nan] Class: CALayerInvalidGeometry 0x00120e99 -[imageCroppingViewController imagePickerController:didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:] (imageCroppingViewController.m:126) + 163481 The Code - (void) imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { UIImage *image = [info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]; imageView.image = image; CGRect rect; rect.size.width = image.size.width; rect.size.height = image.size.height; imageView.center = scrollView.center; [imageView setFrame:rect]; scrollView.contentSize = imageView.frame.size; self.navigationController.navigationBar.hidden = NO; [myPicker.view removeFromSuperview]; }

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  • Updating a C# 2.0 events example to be idiomatic with C# 3.5?

    - by Damien Wildfire
    I have a short events example from .NET 2.0 that I've been using as a reference point for a while. We're now upgrading to 3.5, though, and I'm not clear on the most idiomatic way to do things. How would this simple events example get updated to reflect idioms that are now available in .NET 3.5? // Args class. public class TickArgs : EventArgs { private DateTime TimeNow; public DateTime Time { set { TimeNow = value; } get { return this.TimeNow; } } } // Producer class that generates events. public class Metronome { public event TickHandler Tick; public delegate void TickHandler(Metronome m, TickArgs e); public void Start() { while (true) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(3000); if (Tick != null) { TickArgs t = new TickArgs(); t.Time = DateTime.Now; Tick(this, t); } } } } // Consumer class that listens for events. public class Listener { public void Subscribe(Metronome m) { m.Tick += new Metronome.TickHandler(HeardIt); } private void HeardIt(Metronome m, TickArgs e) { System.Console.WriteLine("HEARD IT AT {0}",e.Time); } } // Example. public class Test { static void Main() { Metronome m = new Metronome(); Listener l = new Listener(); l.Subscribe(m); m.Start(); } }

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  • Emailing a fixed document through Outlook

    - by MoominTroll
    I've added functionality to an application that prints out a bunch of information to a FixedDOcument and sends this off to the printer. This works just fine, however the request is that there be an in application function that emails the document using OUtlook and its here that I come unstuck. I'd very much like to just reuse the class that makes the fixed document for printing to generate the text for email, but I'm struggling to do this. I've tried the following... Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application oApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application(); MailItem email = (MailItem)(oApp.CreateItem(OlItemType.olMailItem)); email.Recipients.Add("[email protected]"); email.Subject = "Hello"; email.Body = "TEST"; FixedDocument doc = CreateReport(); //make my fixed document //this doesn't work, and the parameters it takes suggest it never will email.Attachments.Add(doc, OlAttachmentType.olByValue, 1, null); email.Send(); I can't help but think I'm on completely the wrong tack here, but I don't really want to have to write a bunch of new text formatting (since email.Body only takes a string) when I've already got the content formatted how I want it. Note that the content is all textual, so I don't really care if it gets sent as an attachment or as text in the emails body. Ideally if its sent as an attachment it won't be saved anywhere permanently. Any pointers?

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  • unicode convertion problem

    - by bhoomi-nature
    Hai frnds i am bhoomi new to php,i am having having below problem in my coding please can you help anyone 1.first i want to open one word document which is having content and i wann to edit it 2.for that i am opening word document from the server and at that time its opening with garbage value(i thing its not converting to utf8 format) 3.wen i delete that garbage value and insert something from textarea to that file it is going to insert and next time onwords its its getting open properly. 4.actually i wann that doc file should open with english words wats there in that doc instead of garbage value..first time opening only its giving problem. i am using below code for that please do the needful $filename = 'test.doc'; if(isset($_REQUEST['Submit'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened file. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, 'r'); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); ? Edit file

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  • Followed the official android documentations but still could not use SQLite in app

    - by user366539
    My DBHelper class public class DBHelper extends SQLiteOpenHelper { public DBHelper(Context context) { super(context,"SIMPLE_DB",null,1); } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE SIMPLE_TABLE ( " + "ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY " + "DESC TEXT);"); } @Override public void onUpgrade(SQLiteDatabase db, int oldVersion, int newVersion) { } } Activity class public class SimpleDatabase extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); DBHelper dbHelper = new DBHelper(this); SQLiteDatabase db = dbHelper.getReadableDatabase(); db.execSQL("INSERT INTO SIMPLE_TABLE VALUES (NULL, 'test');"); Cursor cursor = db.rawQuery("SELECT * FROM SIMPLE_TABLE", null); TextView text = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.textbox); text.setText(cursor.getString(0)); } } I figure it crashed (application has stopped unexpectedly!) at SQLiteDatabase db = ... because if I commented the code out from there to the end then it worked fine. But I have no idea whatsoever why it does that. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Why is my view controllers view not quadratic?

    - by mystify
    I created an UIViewController subclass, and figured out that the default implementation of -loadView in UIViewController will ignore my frame size settings in a strange way. To simplify it and to make sure it's really not the fault of my code, I did a clean test with a plain instance of UIViewController directly, rather than making a subclass. The result is the same. I try to make an exactly quadratic view of 320 x 320, but the view appears like 320 x 200. iPhone OS 3.0, please check this out: UIViewController *ts = [[UIViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; ts.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f); ts.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self.view addSubview:ts.view]; like you can see, I do this: 1) Create a UIViewController instance 2) Set the frame of the view to a quadratic dimension of 320 x 320 3) Give it a color, so I can see it 4) Added it as a subview. Now the part, that's even more strange: When I make my own implementation of -loadView, i.e. if I put this code in there like this: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f)]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; self.view = v; [v release]; } then it looks right. Now lets think about that: In the first example, I do pretty much exactly the same, just that I let UIViewController create the view on it's own, and then take it over in order to change it's frame. Right? So why do I get this strange error? Right now I see no other way of messing around like that to correct this wrong behavior. I did not activate anything like clipsToBounds and there's no other code touching this.

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  • Beginner having difficulty with SQL query

    - by Vulcanizer
    Hi, I've been studying SQL for 2 weeks now and I'm preparing for an SQL test. Anyway I'm trying to do this question: For the table: 1 create table data { 2 id int, 3 n1 int not null, 4 n2 int not null, 5 n3 int not null, 6 n4 int not null, 7 primary key (id) 8 } I need to return the relation with tuples (n1, n2, n3) where all the corresponding values for n4 are 0. The problem asks me to solve it WITHOUT using subqueries(nested selects/views) It also gives me an example table and the expected output from my query: 01 insert into data (id, n1, n2, n3, n4) 02 values (1, 2,4,7,0), 03 (2, 2,4,7,0), 04 (3, 3,6,9,8), 05 (4, 1,1,2,1), 06 (5, 1,1,2,0), 07 (6, 1,1,2,0), 08 (7, 5,3,8,0), 09 (8, 5,3,8,0), 10 (9, 5,3,8,0); expects (2,4,7) (5,3,8) and not (1,1,2) since that has a 1 in n4 in one of the cases. The best I could come up with was: 1 SELECT DISTINCT n1, n2, n3 2 FROM data a, data b 3 WHERE a.ID <> b.ID 4 AND a.n1 = b.n1 5 AND a.n2 = b.n2 6 AND a.n3 = b.n3 7 AND a.n4 = b.n4 8 AND a.n4 = 0 but I found out that also prints (1,1,2) since in the example (1,1,2,0) happens twice from IDs 5 and 6. Any suggestions would be really appreciated.

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  • Printing the "source" class in a log statement with a log4j wrapper

    - by Dur4ndal
    My application has a homebrew logging class that I'm migrating to using log4j under the covers. However, since I'm using the homebrew class to pass the rest of the application's logging statements to log4j, the output statements are logged as coming from the wrapper class instead of the source class. Is there a way to ensure that the "correct" source is being shown besides creating new org.apache.log4j.Logger instances for every log statement? I've also tried using the Logger.log(String callerFQCN, Priority level, Object message, Throwable t) method, but it doesnt seem to be working, for example: public class Logger2 { public static org.apache.log4j.Logger log4JLogger = org.apache.log4j.Logger.getLogger(Logger2.class); public static void warning(Object source, String message) { log(source, message, Level.WARN, null) } private static void log(Object source, String message, Level level, Throwable t) { String className = source.getClass().getName(); System.out.println("Logging class should be " + className); log4JLogger.log(className, loggingLevel, message, t); } } When called by: public void testWarning() { Logger2.warning(new Integer(3), "This should warn"); } Prints: Logging class should be java.lang.Integer 2010-05-25 10:49:57,152 WARN test.Logger2 - This should warn

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