Search Results

Search found 37415 results on 1497 pages for 'attribute id'.

Page 846/1497 | < Previous Page | 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853  | Next Page >

  • create jquery array to use as options

    - by SoulieBaby
    Hi all, I'm sure this is really simple, but I can't seem to get it working. I have a "time" select list, which has a number as "rel" attached to each option. If the user changes the time select, I want a new list of options to display depending on what is selected. If that makes sense? Here's my first select: <select name="time" id="time"> <option value="7:00am" rel="10">7:00am</option> <option value="12:30pm" rel="16">12:30pm</option> </select> If the user selects 7:00am, I want a new option list (using jquery) to give options from 1 - 10. Like this: <select name="quantity" id="quantity"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> ............................ <option value="10">10</option> </select> Here's what I have so far... <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> jQuery("#time").change(function(){ var positions = jQuery("#time :selected").attr("rel"); //this grabs the rel from time //this is where it should create a list of options to append(??) to the select list.. jQuery("#showQuantity").show(); //this shows the hidden field for quantity }); </script> I hope it makes sense, but I'm stuck on it. Thank you in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Kohana Sessions data does not persist across pages in chrome and ir browsers

    - by user1062637
    Kohana Session data does not persist across pages opened in Chrome and IE browsers the same works fine in a Firefox browser Kohana version used is 2.3 session config files hold $config['driver'] = 'native'; /** * Session storage parameter, used by drivers. */ $config['storage'] = ''; /** * Session name. * It must contain only alphanumeric characters and underscores. At least one letter must be present. */ $config['name'] = 'NITWSESSID'; /** * Session parameters to validate: user_agent, ip_address, expiration. */ $config['validate'] = array(); /** * Enable or disable session encryption. * Note: this has no effect on the native session driver. * Note: the cookie driver always encrypts session data. Set to TRUE for stronger encryption. */ $config['encryption'] = FALSE; /** * Session lifetime. Number of seconds that each session will last. * A value of 0 will keep the session active until the browser is closed (with a limit of 24h). */ $config['expiration'] = 2700; /** * Number of page loads before the session id is regenerated. * A value of 0 will disable automatic session id regeneration. */ $config['regenerate'] = 0; /** * Percentage probability that the gc (garbage collection) routine is started. */ $config['gc_probability'] = 2; Help needed urgently

    Read the article

  • Hibernate collection mapping challenge

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two character of its code : class Item{ string code; string name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <!--====================================== --> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"></many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> <!--====================================== --> </class> </hibernate-mapping> How to definition the mapping relationship? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Hibernate collection mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

    Read the article

  • Hiding a Bar button item in the view

    - by devb0yax
    How can you able to hide the (done) bar button item in a view? Basically, I have a view controller added with navigation bar (in IB) then, I also added a bar button item into the nav bar. I just want initially the (done) bar button item is hidden.. when input is in the text view the (done) button is already visible. Any idea on this implementation on a view controller? Here's my sample code: @interface MyTextViewViewController : UIViewController <UITextViewDelegate> { UITextView *m_textView; UIBarButtonItem *doneBarButtonItem; } @property(nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UITextView *m_textView; @property(nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *doneBarButtonItem; - (IBAction)saveAction:(id)sender; .m file: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; doneBarButtonItem.hidden = YES; --> compile error!!! } - (void)textViewDidBeginEditing:(UITextView *)textView { doneBarButtonItem.hidden = NO; --> compile error!!! } - (IBAction)saveAction:(id)sender { doneBarButtonItem.hidden = YES; --> compile error!!! ... }

    Read the article

  • jQuery noobie can't make a checked checkbox show an alert.

    - by Kyle Sevenoaks
    I found this answer before, to fire an alert if the button is pressed but the checkbox isn't checked. Why won't this work? <input value="1" type="checkbox" name="salgsvilkar" ID="checkbox2" style="float:left;" onclick="document.getElementById('scrollwrap').style.cssText='border-color:#85c222; background-color:#E5F7C7;';" /><label for="checkbox2" class="akslabel">Salgs og leveringsvilkår er lest og akseptert</label> </span> {literal} <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { //checkbox $("#checkbox2").click(function(){ //if this... //alert("this")... if($("#checkbox2").is(':checked')) { alert("im checked"); } }); //button $("#fullfor_btn").click(function(e){ if(!$("#checkbox2").is(':checked')) { alert("you did not check the agree to terms..."); e.preventDefault(); } }); } </script> {/literal} This on another .tpl: <label></label> <button type="submit" class="submit" name="{$method}" id="fullfor_btn" title="Fullfør bestillingen nå" value="">&nbsp;</button> What could be going wrong? The jQuery doesn't fire anything at all.

    Read the article

  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

    Read the article

  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

    Read the article

  • Pass Memory in GB Using Import-CSV Powershell to New-VM in Hyper-V Version 3

    - by PowerShell
    I created the below function to pass memory from a csv file to create a VM in Hyper-V Version 3 Function Install-VM { param ( [Parameter(Mandatory=$true)] [int64]$Memory=512MB ) $VMName = "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng" $vmpath = "c:\2012vms" New-VM -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*1024) -Name $VMName -Path $VMPath -Verbose } Import-Csv "C:\2012vms\Vminfo1.csv" | ForEach-Object { Install-VM -Memory ([int64]$_.Memory) } But when i try to create the VM it says mismatch between the memory parameter passed from import-csv, i receive an error as below VERBOSE: New-VM will create a new virtual machine "dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng". New-VM : 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng' failed to modify device 'Memory'. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) Invalid startup memory amount assigned for 'dv.VMWIN2K8R2-3.Hng'. The minimum amount of memory you can assign to a virtual machine is '8' MB. (Virtual machine ID CE8D36CA-C8C6-42E6-B5C6-2AA8FA15B4AF) A parameter that is not valid was passed to the operation. At line:48 char:9 + New-VM -ComputerName $HyperVHost -MemoryStartupBytes ([int64]$memory*10 ... + ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ + CategoryInfo : InvalidArgument: (Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.VMTask:VMTask) [New-VM], VirtualizationOpe rationFailedException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : InvalidParameter,Microsoft.HyperV.PowerShell.Commands.NewVMCommand Also please not in the csv file im passing memory as 1,2,4.. etc as shown below, and converting them to MB by multiplying them with 1024 later Memory 1 Can Anyone help me out on how to format and pass the memory details to the function

    Read the article

  • ROR accepts_nested_attributes_for one to many relationship with selection

    - by bilash.saha
    I have two models Doctors and Questions like the follwong: Doctor Model class Doctor < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions has_many :brands accepts_nested_attributes_for :questions end Question model class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :discipline belongs_to :doctor belongs_to :brand end Now you can clearly see that Doctor has many questions and brands and question belongs to doctor and brand.I want to add previously saved question to a doctor from doctors edit page. I want to remove them as well.How can I proceed ? I tried like : <%= form.fields_for :questions, question,:child_index => (question.new_record? ? "index_to_replace_with_js" : nil) do |question_form| %> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="label">Select Question</div> <%= question_form.collection_select :id, Question.all, :id, :title ,{:include_blank => true } %> </td> </tr> </table> but this doesnot works for me.Can you give me a solution with proper example ?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

    - by Rob
    After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC Routing on Postback

    - by Mark Kadlec
    In my ASP.net MVC View I have a dropdown that I want to get details on selection and asynchronously update a div. My aspx is as follows: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Portal", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "TheForm" })) {%> <h2>Index</h2> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Details", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "mpkResults" })) { %> <%=Html.DropDownList("Docs", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["Docs"], new { onchange = "document.getElementById('TheForm').submit();" })%> <p><input type="submit" value="Details" /></p> <% } %> <div id="mpkResults" style="margin:10px 0px 0px 0px;"></div> ... The onchange event fires correctly on selection of the dropdown, but instead of the Details method in my code behind firing, it hits my Index method. Why is the details method not getting hit on the onchange event? My Details() method in the controller is: public ActionResult Details() { ... < It never gets here, just goes to the index() method } It's a little frustrating right now since I'm sure it is a simple mistake but not sure what it could be. I looked at the Source of my page and sure enough, the form looks like it should be routing to the Details Action: <form action="/Portal/Details" method="post" ... Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

    - by Zayatzz
    ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails Truncate text - can I use it for a combination of title and content?

    - by Quhby
    I have <%=link_to topic.title, topic_path(topic) % - <%= truncate(topic.description_without_embed, :length=50, :omission ="...") % But what I really want to do is to truncate both the title and the post to 50 characters. How can this be done? The output should look something like Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. instead of Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. I don't need to use the truncate method, any method would be helpful. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • PendingIntent sent from a notication.

    - by totem
    Hi, What im trying to accomplish is to send a notification through the notification manager that once clicked will do something in the application only if its currently running. i have tried to use: notification.contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, nNotificationCounter, Someintent, PendingIntent.FLAG_NO_CREATE) Which allways caused an exception once trying to use the notify. I switched to: Notification notification = new Notification(icon, tickerText, when); RemoteViews contentView = new RemoteViews(getPackageName(), R.layout.some_notification); contentView.setTextViewText(R.id.title, sTitle); contentView.setTextViewText(R.id.text, sText); notification.contentView = contentView; notification.defaults |= Notification.DEFAULT_SOUND; notification.number = nNotificationCounter; Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, MainWindow.class).setAction(ACTION_RESET_MESSGE_COUNTER); notification.contentIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, nNotificationCounter, notificationIntent, 0); and although this code doesn't cause an exception. it doesnt call my BroadcastReceiver which is defined as follows: public class IncomingReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { if (intent.getAction().equals(ACTION_RESET_MESSGE_COUNTER)) { System.out.println("GOT THE INTENT"); return; } } } and set in the onCreate: IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter(ACTION_RESET_MESSGE_COUNTER); IncomingReceiver receiver = new IncomingReceiver(); context.registerReceiver(receiver, filter); Does anyone see something wrong with the code? Or how would i go about to get messages when the notification is clicked, but not create any activity if it isn't already created. edit: added the intent creation and notification creation. Thanks, Tom

    Read the article

  • scrollLeft works but scrollTop doesn't work

    - by Xiao Jia
    I have the following HTML with CSS .container { overflow: scroll; } etc. <body> <div class="container"> <div id="markers"></div> <img id="map" src="/img/map.jpg"/> </div> </body> map.jpg is very large and I want to scroll to a fixed position like this: $(function(){ console.log($('.container').scrollTop()); $('.container').scrollTop(1000); console.log($('.container').scrollTop()); console.log($('.container').scrollLeft()); $('.container').scrollLeft(1750); console.log($('.container').scrollLeft()); }); scrollLeft works fine but scrollTop doesn't. Below is the console output. 0 0 0 1750 I've been searching for half an hour but still don't know how to fix it... UPDATE: CSS about .container #markers and #map .container { overflow: scroll; width: 100%; max-width: 100%; height: 100%; max-height: 100%; margin: 0; padding: 0; } #map { width: 5000px; max-width: 5000px; height: 2907px; max-height: 2907px; cursor: crosshair; } #markers { position: relative; top: 0; left: 0; width: 0; height: 0; margin: 0; padding: 0; }

    Read the article

  • Give More Prominence To DIV or <P> That Is After Floating DIV

    - by Aahan Krish
    Consider this HTML: <div id="entry-content"> <div id="my-300px-ad">AD CODE HERE</div> <p><img src="file.jpg" alt="file" /></p> <p>SOME TEXT</p> <p>SOME MORE TEXT</p> </div> Now, consider that the div#my-300px-ad is floating right. Would it be possible for me to have the image in the next paragraph show up before the ad so that the TEXT in its following paragraphs can wrap around the ad? For example, like this: Why so...? The thing is, due to various reasons (including Google) I want to avoid placing an ad in BETWEEN the post's content. CSS only I am sure that something like this would be possible with some JavaScript code. But I am looking for a CSS-based solution only. (Cross-browser compatibility, = IE8) Please note that ONLY the CSS of div#my-300px-ad can be changed. Nothing else should be touched as this is not a static HTML page, besides they are articles. PS: It was hard to frame a one-line question for this. Please feel free to edit the question's title if it can be made more clear.

    Read the article

  • Selenium Webdriver Java - looking for alternatives for Actions and Robot when performing drag-and-drop

    - by Ja-ke Alconcel
    I first tried Actions class and the drag-and-drop does work on different elements, however it was unable to locate the a specific draggable element on it's exact screen/webpage position. Here's the code I've used: Point loc = driver.findElement(By.id("thiselement")).getLocation(); System.out.println(loc); WebElement drag = driver.findElement(By.id("thiselement")); Actions test = new Actions(driver); test.dragAndDropBy(drag, 0, 60).build().perform(); I checked the element with it's pixel location and it prints (837, -52), which was somewhere on top of the webpage and was pixels away from the actual element. Then I tried using the Robot class and works perfectly fine on my script, but can only provide constant successful runs on a single test machine, running it with a different machine with different screen resolution and screen size will render the script to fail due to the dependency of Robot on the pixel location of the element. The sample code of the Robot script I'm using: Robot dragAndDrop = new Robot(); dragAndDrop.mouseMove(945, 166); //actual pixel location of the draggable element dragAndDrop.mousePress(InputEvent.BUTTON1_MASK); sleep(3000); dragAndDrop.mouseMove(945, 226); dragAndDrop.mouseRelease(InputEvent.BUTTON1_MASK); sleep(3000); Is there any alternative for Actions and Robot to automate drag-and-drop? Or maybe a help on working the script to work on Actions as I really can't use Robot. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

    Read the article

  • Android - Looping Activity to Repeat MediaPlayer

    - by Austin Anderson
    I'm trying to create a soundboard for longer audio files and can't figure out how to stop an audio file and start it again without closing the activity. Let's say each audio file is one minute long. If I play the first audio file for 20 seconds and start the next audio file, the first stops playing and the second starts playing. However, if I click the first audio file again, the second stops playing and the first does not. I need help. This is driving me insane. bAudio1 = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.bAudio1); bAudio2 = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.bAudio2); mpAudio1 = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.audio1); mpAudio2 = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.audio2); bAudio1.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mpAudio1.isPlaying()) { mpAudio1.stop(); } else { if(mpAudio2.isPlaying()) { mpAudio2.stop(); } mpAudio1.start(); } } }); bAudio2.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(mpAudio2.isPlaying()) { mpAudio2.stop(); } else { if(mpAudio1.isPlaying()) { mpAudio1.stop(); } mpAudio2.start(); } } }); Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Adobe Air update error "file version doesn't match" but it's the same!...

    - by baroquedub
    I'm using Claus Wahlers' AIR Remote Updater class (codeazur.com.br/lab/airremoteupdater/). All works fine and an update is triggered if the remote version is newer. The newer file is downloaded and the update starts. However I then get "an error has occured" message: "This application cannot be installed because this installer has been mis-configured" (The same file will update without errors when run manually "Would you like to replace the currently installed version?" Choosing 'replace' works fine) I have enabled Air Application Installer logging and I can see that both the app id and the pub id match - this seems to be a common reason for this problem (forums.adobe.com/thread/243421?tstart=60) The error given in the log file is as follows: AIR file version doesn't match Requested version: ; AIR file version: 1.0.2 But if I unzip the new app file and look at META-INF\AIR\application.xml the version designator shows <version>1.0.2</version> As requested! The log file is also showing me where the newer file is being downloaded and unpacked. If I look at the application.xml file in that directory: Unpackaging to C:\Documents and Settings\myusername\Local Settings\Temp\fla893D.tmp the version designator also shows <version>1.0.2</version> I don't get it?! The log tells me that the requested file version doesn't match but it's exactly the same as what's shown in the version designator of the downloaded update package... This is driving me crazy. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • Updating an input value with Jquery

    - by Evan
    I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

    Read the article

  • Does className exist in Mootools ?

    - by anna mae
    Hi, I want to update this very simple JS to Mootools 1.2 and it's not easy. This function : function changeclass(x){ document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass0"; document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass" + x; } is triggered in the DOM by : <div id="someclass"> a href="javascript: changeclass(0)">Unstyled</a a href="javascript: changeclass(1)">link one</a a href="javascript: changeclass(2)">link two</a a href="javascript: changeclass(3)">link three</a </div> to call the according CSS classes like : .ziclass1 h1{ color: rgb(142,11,0); font-family: Verdana; font-size: 2.5em; letter-spacing: 0.1em; } and changes the layout accordingly in : <div id="content" class="ziclass3"> ... </div> I know I can add an event to the triggers like : $(#someclass.each(function(element,index) { element.addEvent('click', function(){ //some code }); But, how do I get #content class classname ? Through an array ? I am a bit confused here. I'd be really grateful for any help to set me on the right track

    Read the article

  • Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853  | Next Page >