Search Results

Search found 88142 results on 3526 pages for 'code duplication'.

Page 848/3526 | < Previous Page | 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853 854 855  | Next Page >

  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Virgin STI Help

    - by Mutuelinvestor
    I am working on a horse racing application and I'm trying to utilize STI to model a horse's connections. A horse's connections is comprised of his owner, trainer and jockey. Over time, connections can change for a variety of reasons: The horse is sold to another owner The owner switches trainers or jockey The horse is claimed by a new owner As it stands now, I have model this with the following tables: horses connections (join table) stakeholders (stakeholder has three sub classes: jockey, trainer & owner) Here are my clases and associations: class Horse < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :connection has_one :owner_stakeholder, :through => :connection has_one :jockey_stakeholder, :through => :connection has_one :trainer_stakeholder, :through => :connection end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :horse belongs_to :owner_stakeholder belongs_to :jockey_stakeholder belongs_to :trainer_stakeholder end class Stakeholder < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :horses, :through => :connections end class Owner < Stakeholder # Owner specific code goes here. end class Jockey < Stakeholder # Jockey specific code goes here. end class Trainer < Stakeholder # Trainer specific code goes here. end One the database end, I have inserted a Type column in the connections table. Have I modeled this correctly. Is there a better/more elegant approach. Thanks in advance for you feedback. Jim

    Read the article

  • Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data

    - by kodai
    Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • How to prevent git merge to merge a specific file from trunk into a branch and vice versa

    - by svenn
    Hi, I am using git while developing VHDL code. I am doing development on a component in a git branch: comp_dev. The component interface does not change, just the code inside the component. Now, this component already exists in the master branch, but in a more stable version, enough for other developers to be able to use the component. The other developers also have branches for their work, and when their code is good they merge their branches back to master. At this stage I need to be able to merge all the changes from master back to my comp_dev branch, which is basically no problem, but sometimes the stable version of the component I am working on do change as a part of other designers work, but not the interface. I have to do manual git merge -s ours on that particular file every time I want to merge, otherwise I get a conflict that I need to solve manually, throwing out their work. The same happens if I want to merge changes in other files back to master. If I forget to do git merge -s ours src/rx/state_machine.vhd comp_dev before I do a git merge, then I end up with either a manual merge, or I accidentally merge an unstable version of the state machine on top of the stable one. Is there a way to temporarily exclude one file from merges?

    Read the article

  • How to parse text as JavaScript?

    - by Danjah
    This question of mine (currently unanswered), drove me toward finding a better solution to what I'm attempting. My requirements: chunks of code which can be arbitrarily added into a document, without an identifier: [div class="thing"] [elements... /] [/div] the objects are scanned for and found by an external script: var things = yd.getElementsBy(function(el){ return yd.hasClass('thing'); },null,document ); the objects must be individually configurable, what I have currently is identifier-based: [div class="thing" id="thing0"] [elements... /] [script type="text/javascript"] new Thing().init({ id:'thing0'; }); [/script] [/div] So I need to ditch the identifier (id="thing0") so there are no duplicates when more than one chunk of the same code is added to a page I still need to be able to config these objects individually, without an identifier SO! All of that said, I wondered about creating a dynamic global variable within the script block of each added chunk of code, within its script tag. As each 'thing' is found, I figure it would be legit to grab the innerHTML of the script tag and somehow convert that text into a useable JS object. Discuss. Ok, don't discuss if you like, but if you get the drift then feel free to correct my wayward thinking or provide a better solution - please! d

    Read the article

  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

    Read the article

  • Selecting a whole database over an individual table to output to file

    - by Daniel Wrigley
    :::::::: EDIT :::::::: New code for people to have a look at, one question I have with this is where do I set were the *.gz file is saved? $backupFile = $dbname . date("Y-m-d-H-i-s") . '.gz'; $command = "mysqldump --opt -h $dbhost -u $dbuser -p $dbpass $dbname | gzip > $backupFile"; system($command); Also why the hell can you not reply yo your own post with answering it? :( :::::::: EDIT :::::::: Ok Im having trouble finding out how to select a full database for backup as an *.sql file rather than only an individual table. On the localhost I have several databases with one named "foo" and it is that which I want to backup and not any of the individual tables inside the database "foo". The code to connect to the database; //Database Information $dbhost = "localhost"; $dbname = "foo"; $dbuser = "bar"; $dbpass = "rulz"; //Connect to database mysql_connect ($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpass) or die("Could not connect: ".mysql_error()); mysql_select_db($dbname) or die(mysql_error()); The code to backup the database; // Grab the time to know when this post was submitted $time = date('Y-m-d-H-i-s'); $tableName = 'foo'; $backupFile = '/sql/backup/'. $time .'.sql'; $query = "SELECT * INTO OUTFILE '". $backupFile ."' FROM ". $tableName .""; $result = mysql_query($query)or die("Database query died: " . mysql_error()); My brain is hurting near to the end of the day so no doubts i've missed something out very obvious. Thanks in advance to anyone helping me out.

    Read the article

  • bad_alloc occuring when allocating small structs

    - by SalamiArmi
    A bad_alloc has started showing up in some code which looks perfectly valid to me and has worked very well in the past. The bad alloc only occurs once every 50-3000 iterations of the code, which is also confusing. The code itself is from a singly linked list, simply adding a new element to the queue: template<typename T> struct container { inline container() : next(0) {} container *next; T data; }; void push(const T &data) { container<T> *newQueueMember = new container<T>; //... unrelated to crash } Where T is: struct test { int m[256]; }; Changing the size of the array allocated array to anything but very small values (1-8 ints) still results in a bad_alloc occasionally. A few extra notes about my program: - I used Poco::ThreadPool to thread my program. I've only recently added this functionality, before I had it running with Win32 threads. However, only the main thread ever calls push(). - I am also occasionally getting other crashes which could be related. However, when I try to debug with visual studio 2008, I can't navigate back to the call stack, or the crash happens deep within new(). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to accept a button tag to be in some range iphone sdk

    - by neha
    Hi all, In my application I'm doing dynamic resizing of cells and label in it depending upon the text in it. I'm adding button to cells in uitableview. I'm taking the label instance and button instance in a new label and button variable respectively and setting their frames to arrange them properly after resizing. if(cel==nil) { //some code original_label=[[UILabel alloc]init]; original_label.tag=111; //SOME MORE CODE GOES HERE original_button=[[UIButton alloc]init]; original_button.tag=222; //SOME MORE CODE GOES HERE } new_label=(UILabel *) [cell viewWithTag:111]; //This' how I'm taking the label instance on cell and below button instance on cell in new variables new_button = (UIButton * ) [cell viewWithTag:222]; Earlier I kept the tags of all the buttons on cells same, so it was easier to get button instances on cells properly and were being arranged properly. But now I want to recognize these buttons separately as I'm adding some functionality on button_click. I'm giving the buttons that are added to the cells incremental tags[1,2,3...9 and so on]. Now, how can I take these button tags in some range like[suppose 1-9]? Can anybody help? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C# reflection instantiation

    - by NickLarsen
    I am currently trying to create a generic instance factory for which takes an interface as the generic parameter (enforced in the constructor) and then lets you get instantiated objects which implement that interface from all types in all loaded assemblies. The current implementation is as follows:     public class InstantiationFactory     {         protected Type Type { get; set; }         public InstantiationFactory()         {             this.Type = typeof(T);             if (!this.Type.IsInterface)             {                 // is there a more descriptive exception to throw?                 throw new ArgumentException(/* Crafty message */);             }         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedTypes()         {             // this line of code found in other stack overflow questions             var types = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()                 .SelectMany(a = a.GetTypes())                 .Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */);             return types;         }         public IEnumerable GetImplementations(IEnumerable types)         {             var implementations = types.Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */                 .Select(x = CreateInstance(x));             return implementations;         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedImplementations()         {             var loadedTypes = GetLoadedTypes();             var implementations = GetImplementations(loadedTypes);             return implementations;         }         private T CreateInstance(Type type)         {             T instance = default(T);             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             if (/* valid to instantiate test */)             {                 object constructed = constructor.Invoke(null);                 instance = (T)constructed;             }             return instance;         }     } It seems useful to me to have my CreateInstance(Type) function implemented as an extension method so I can reuse it later and simplify the code of my factory, but I can't figure out how to return a strongly typed value from that extension method. I realize I could just return an object:     public static class TypeExtensions     {         public object CreateInstance(this Type type)         {             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             return /* valid to instantiate test */ ? constructor.Invoke(null) : null;         }     } Is it possible to have an extension method create a signature per instance of the type it extends? My perfect code would be this, which avoids having to cast the result of the call to CreateInstance():     Type type = typeof(MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType);     MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType usable = type.CreateInstance();

    Read the article

  • How to interrupt a thread performing a blocking socket connect?

    - by Jason R
    I have some code that spawns a pthread that attempts to maintain a socket connection to a remote host. If the connection is ever lost, it attempts to reconnect using a blocking connect() call on its socket. Since the code runs in a separate thread, I don't really care about the fact that it uses the synchronous socket API. That is, until it comes time for my application to exit. I would like to perform some semblance of an orderly shutdown, so I use thread synchronization primitives to wake up the thread and signal for it to exit, then perform a pthread_join() on the thread to wait for it to complete. This works great, unless the thread is in the middle of a connect() call when I command the shutdown. In that case, I have to wait for the connect to time out, which could be a long time. This makes the application appear to take a long time to shut down. What I would like to do is to interrupt the call to connect() in some way. After the call returns, the thread will notice my exit signal and shut down cleanly. Since connect() is a system call, I thought that I might be able to intentionally interrupt it using a signal (thus making the call return EINTR), but I'm not sure if this is a robust method in a POSIX threads environment. Does anyone have any recommendations on how to do this, either using signals or via some other method? As a note, the connect() call is down in some library code that I cannot modify, so changing to a non-blocking socket is not an option.

    Read the article

  • Focus behavior in Applet-Javascript interaction

    - by Dan
    I have a web page with an applet that opens a popup window and also makes Javascript calls. When that Javascript call results in a focus() call on an HTML input, that causes the browser window to push itself in front of the applet window. But only on certain browsers, namely MSIE. On Firefox the applet window remains on top. How can I keep that behavior consistent in MSIE? Note that using the old Microsoft VM for Java also achieves the desired (applet window in front) result. HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function focusMe() { document.getElementById('mytext').focus(); } </script> </head> <body> <applet id="myapplet" mayscript code="Popup.class" ></applet> <form> <input type="text" id="mytext"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('myapplet').showPopup()" value="click"> </form> </body> </html> Java code: public class Popup extends Applet { Frame frame; public void start() { frame = new Frame("Test Frame"); frame.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Button button = new Button("Push Me"); frame.add("Center", button); button.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { frame.setVisible(false); } }); frame.pack(); } public void showPopup() { frame.setVisible(true); JSObject.getWindow(this).eval("focusMe()"); } }

    Read the article

  • Why am I having this InstantiationException in Java when accessing final local variables?

    - by Oscar Reyes
    I was playing with some code to make a "closure like" construct ( not working btw ) Everything looked fine but when I tried to access a final local variable in the code, the exception InstantiationException is thrown. If I remove the access to the local variable either by removing it altogether or by making it class attribute instead, no exception happens. The doc says: InstantiationException Thrown when an application tries to create an instance of a class using the newInstance method in class Class, but the specified class object cannot be instantiated. The instantiation can fail for a variety of reasons including but not limited to: - the class object represents an abstract class, an interface, an array class, a primitive type, or void - the class has no nullary constructor What other reason could have caused this problem? Here's the code. comment/uncomment the class attribute / local variable to see the effect (lines:5 and 10 ). import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; class InstantiationExceptionDemo { //static JTextField field = new JTextField();// works if uncommented public static void main( String [] args ) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); JButton button = new JButton("Click"); final JTextField field = new JTextField();// fails if uncommented button.addActionListener( new _(){{ System.out.println("click " + field.getText()); }}); frame.add( field ); frame.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH ); frame.pack();frame.setVisible( true ); } } class _ implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ){ try { this.getClass().newInstance(); } catch( InstantiationException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } catch( IllegalAccessException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } } } Is this a bug in Java? edit Oh, I forgot, the stacktrace ( when thrown ) is: Caused by: java.lang.InstantiationException: InstantiationExceptionDemo$1 at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:340) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:308) at _.actionPerformed(InstantiationExceptionDemo.java:25)

    Read the article

  • Pass Parameter to Subroutine in Codebehind

    - by Sanjubaba
    I'm trying to pass an ID of an activity (RefNum) to a Sub in my codebehind. I know I'm supposed to use parentheses when passing parameters to subroutines and methods, and I've tried a number of ways and keep receiving the following error: BC30203: Identifier expected. I'm hard-coding it on the front-end just to try to get it to pass [ OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ], but it's obviously wrong. :( Front-end: <asp:DetailsView ID="dvEditActivity" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="RefNum" OnDataBound="dvSectorID_DataBound" OnItemUpdated="dvEditActivity_ItemUpdated" DataSourceID="dsEditActivity" > <Fields> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <br /><span style="color:#0e85c1;font-weight:bold">Sector</span><br /><br /> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblistSector" runat="server" DataSourceID="dsGetSectorNames" DataTextField="SectorName" DataValueField="SectorID" OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ></asp:CheckBoxList> <%-- Datasource to populate cblistSector --%> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="dsGetSectorNames" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn %>" ProviderName="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn.ProviderName %>" SelectCommand="SELECT SectorID, SectorName from Sector ORDER BY SectorID"></asp:SqlDataSource> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> Code-behind: Sub FillSectorCBList(ByVal RefNum As String, ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Dim SectorIDs As New ListItem Dim myConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("dbConn").ConnectionString() Dim objConn As New SqlConnection(myConnection) Dim strSQL As String = "SELECT DISTINCT A.RefNum, AS1.SectorID, S.SectorName FROM Activity A LEFT OUTER JOIN Activity_Sector AS1 ON AS1.RefNum = A.RefNum LEFT OUTER JOIN Sector S ON AS1.SectorID = S.SectorID WHERE A.RefNum = @RefNum ORDER BY A.RefNum" Dim objCommand As New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn) objCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("RefNum", RefNum) Dim ad As New SqlDataAdapter(objCommand) Try [Code] Finally [Code] End Try objCommand.Connection.Close() objCommand.Dispose() objConn.Close() End Sub Any advice would be great. I'm not sure if I even have the right approach. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Ajax function partially fails when alert removed

    - by YsoL8
    Hello. I have a problem in the following code: //quesry the db for image information function queryDB (parameters) { var parameters = "p="+parameters; alert ("hello"); if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { // use the info alert (xmlhttp.responseText); } } xmlhttp.open("POST", "js/imagelist.php", true); //Send the proper header information along with the request xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.send(parameters); } When I remove the alert statement 4 lines down I hit problems. This function is being called by a loop, and without the alert, I only get results for the last value sent to the statement. With it, I get everything I was expecting and really I'm at a loss to know why. I've heard that this may be a timing issue as I'm sending new requests before the old one is finished. I also heard polling being mentioned, but I can't find any information detailed enough. I'm new to synchronous services and I'm not really aware of the issues.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: Custom Function in bootstrap that uses $ajax->link not working

    - by nekko
    Hello I have two questions: (1) Is it best practice to create global custom functions in the bootstrap file? Is there a better place to store them? (2) I am unable use the following line of code in my custom function located in my bootstrap.php file: $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); echo $url; I receive the following error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: ajax [APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271] Code } function testAjax () { $url = $ajax->link ( 'Delete', array ('controller' => 'events', 'action' => 'delete', 22 ), array ('update' => 'event' ), 'Do you want to delete this event?' ); testAjax - APP\config\bootstrap.php, line 271 include - APP\views\event\queue.ctp, line 19 View::_render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 649 View::render() - CORE\cake\libs\view\view.php, line 372 Controller::render() - CORE\cake\libs\controller\controller.php, line 766 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 211 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE\cake\dispatcher.php, line 181 [main] - APP\webroot\index.php, line 91 However it works as intended if I place that same code in my view: <a onclick=" event.returnValue = false; return false;" id="link1656170149" href="/shout/events/delete/22">Delete</a> Please help :) Thanks in advance!!

    Read the article

  • Managing large binary files with git

    - by pi
    Hi there. I am looking for opinions of how to handle large binary files on which my source code (web application) is dependent. We are currently discussing several alternatives: Copy the binary files by hand. Pro: Not sure. Contra: I am strongly against this, as it increases the likelihood of errors when setting up a new site/migrating the old one. Builds up another hurdle to take. Manage them all with git. Pro: Removes the possibility to 'forget' to copy a important file Contra: Bloats the repository and decreases flexibility to manage the code-base and checkouts/clones/etc will take quite a while. Separate repositories. Pro: Checking out/cloning the source code is fast as ever, and the images are properly archived in their own repository. Contra: Removes the simpleness of having the one and only git repository on the project. Surely introduces some other things I haven't thought about. What are your experiences/thoughts regarding this? Also: Does anybody have experience with multiple git repositories and managing them in one project? Update: The files are images for a program which generates PDFs with those files in it. The files will not change very often(as in years) but are very relevant to a program. The program will not work without the files. Update2: I found a really nice screencast on using git-submodule at GitCasts.

    Read the article

  • Fastcgi 500 error on preg_match_all in PHP

    - by Bertvan
    Hi, I'm trying to set up some exotic PHP code (I'm no expert), and I get a FastCGI Error 500 on a PHP line containing 'preg_match_all'. When I comment out the line, the page is returned with a 200 (but not how it was meant to be). The code is parsing php, html and javascript content loaded from the database and is composing them to return the finished page. Now, by placing around some error_log entries I could determine that the line with the preg_match_all is the cause of the 500. However the line is hit multiple times during the loading of the page and on other occasions, the line does not cause an error. Here's how it looks like exactly: preg_match_all ("/(<([\w]+)[^>]*>)((?:.|\n)*)(<\/\\2>)/", $part['data'], $tags, PREG_PATTERN_ORDER|PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); The subject string is a piece of text that looks like: <script> ... some javascript functions ... </script> [Edit:] This is code that is up and running correctly elsewhere, so this very well could be a PHP setting or environment difference. I'm using PHP 5.2.13 on IIS6 with FastCGI. [Edit:] Nothing is mentioned in the log files. At least not in the ones I checked: IIS Logs Event Logs PHP Log Any thoughts or direction would be welcome.

    Read the article

  • Trying to set PC clock programmatically just before Daylight Saving Time ends

    - by Moe Sisko
    To reproduce : 1) Add Microsoft.VisualBasic assembly to your project reference 2) Change PC timezone to : (GMT+10:00) Canberra, Melbourne, Sydney . Ensure PC is set to automatically adjust clock for daylight savings time. (For this timezone, daylight savings time ends at 3am on 4 Apr 2010.) 3) add following code : public void SetNewDateTime(DateTime dt) { Microsoft.VisualBasic.DateAndTime.Today = dt; // ignores time component Microsoft.VisualBasic.DateAndTime.TimeOfDay = dt; // ignores date component } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime dt = new DateTime(2010, 4, 5, 5, 0, 0); // XX SetNewDateTime(dt); // XX System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); DateTime dt2 = new DateTime(2010, 4, 4, 1, 0, 0); SetNewDateTime(dt2); } 4) When button 1 is clicked, the PC clock eventually shows 2am, whereas 1 am was expected. (If code marked at "XX" is removed, the clock sometimes shows the correct time of 1 am). Any idea what is happening ? (Or is there a more reliable way of setting the PC clock from C# code ?) TIA.

    Read the article

  • UML Modelling in C++Builder 2010 Professional

    - by Gordon Brandly
    I'd like to do some basic class diagram UML models in the Pro version of C++Builder 2010. Embarcadero has a C++Builder Features Matrix document, one line of which says "UML Code Visualization – at any time, get a UML model view of your source code" and has a check in the "Professional" column of that table -- I assume this means it should be available to me. Yet, when I open an existing project and do a View | Model View, there's nothing in the Model View window. The only diagram I can find is on the Graph tab of the C++ Class Explorer. I wouldn't call that a UML diagram myself -- is that what Embarcadero is referring to? Embarcadero's table shows that many UML diagrams are not available in Pro, but it looks to me like Class Diagrams should be available. Other lines in that same table indicate that both "Full two-way class diagrams with synchronization between code and diagrams" and "Diagram hyper-linking and annotations" are also supposed to be available in Pro. The Class Explorer graph is one-way only as far as I can tell, so I hope they're referring to something else I haven't been able to find so far. Thanks for any insight into this.

    Read the article

  • How do tools like Hiphop for PHP deal with heterogenous arrays?

    - by Derek Thurn
    I think HipHop for PHP is an interesting tool. It essentially converts PHP code into C++ code. Cross compiling in this manner seems like a great idea, but I have to wonder, how do they overcome the fundamental differences between the two type systems? One specific example of my general question is heterogeneous data structures. Statically typed languages don't tend to let you put arbitrary types into an array or other container because they need to be able to figure out the types on the other end. If I have a PHP array like this: $mixedBag = array("cat", 42, 8.5, false); How can this be represented in C++ code? One option would be to use void pointers (or the superior version, boost::any), but then you need to cast when you take stuff back out of the array... and I'm not at all convinced that the type inferencer can always figure out what to cast to at the other end. A better option, perhaps, would be something more like a union (or boost::variant), but then you need to enumerate all possible types at compile time... maybe possible, but certainly messy since arrays can contain arbitrarily complex entities. Does anyone know how HipHop and similar tools which go from a dynamic typing discipline to a static discipline handle these types of problems?

    Read the article

  • .net IHTTPHandler Streaming SQL Binary Data

    - by Yisman
    Hello everybody I am trying to implement an ihttphandeler for streaming files. files may be tiny thumbnails or gigantic movies the binaries r stored in sql server i looked at a lot of code online but something does not make sense isnt streaming supposed to read the data piece by piece and move it over the line? most of the code seems to first read the whole field from mssql to memory and then use streaming for the output writing wouldnt it b more eficient to actually stream from disk directly to http byte by byte (or buffered chunks?) heres my code so far but cant figure out the correct combination of the sqlreader mode and the stream object and the writing system Public Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As HttpContext) Implements IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest context.Response.BufferOutput = False Dim FileField=safeparam(context.Request.QueryString("FileField")) Dim FileTable=safeparam(context.Request.QueryString("FileTable")) Dim KeyField=safeparam(context.Request.QueryString("KeyField")) Dim FileKey=safeparam(context.Request.QueryString("FileKey")) Using connection As New SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("Main").ConnectionString) Using command As New SqlCommand("SELECT " & FileField & "Bytes," & FileField & "Type FROM " & FileTable & " WHERE " & KeyField & "=" & FileKey, connection) command.CommandType = Data.CommandType.Text enbd using end using end sub please be aware that this sql command also returns the file extension (pdf,jpg,doc...) in the second field of the query thank you all very much

    Read the article

  • How to update application files using patching?

    - by Marek
    I am not interested in any auto update solution, such as ClickOnce or the MS Updater Block. For anyone feeling the urge to ask why not: I am already using these and there is nothing wrong with them, I would just like to learn about any efficient alternatives. I would like to publish patches = small differences that will modify existing files of the deployment with the smallest possible delta. Not only code needs to be patched, but also resource files. Patching the running code can be accomplished by maintaining two separate synchronized copies of the deployment (no on the fly changes to the running executable are required). The application itself can be xcopy deployed (to avoid MSI auto-correcting the modified files or breaking ClickOnce signatures). I would like to learn how to handle different versions of patches (e.g. there is a patch issued that fixes one error and later another patch that fixes another error (in the same file) - users may have any combination of these and there comes a third patch - in text files, this may be easy to implement, but how about executable files? (native Win32 code vs. .NET, any difference?) If the first problem is too hard to solve or unsolvable for executables, I would like to at least learn if there is a solution that implements simple patching with serial revisions - in order to install revision 5, user must have all previous revisions installed to ensure validity of the deployment. Are there any existing solutions to accomplish this? NOTE: There are a few questions on SO that may seem like duplicates, but none with a good answer. This question is about the Windows platform, preferably .NET.

    Read the article

  • Strange XCode debugger behavior with UITableView datasource

    - by Tarfa
    Hey guys. I've got a perplexing issue. In my subclassed UITableViewController my datasource methods lose their tableview reference depending on lines of code I put inside the method. For example, in this code block: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 5; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id i = tableView; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } the "id i = tableView;" causes the tableview to become nil (0x0) -- and it causes it to be nil before I ever start stepping into the method. If I insert an assignment statement above the "id i = tableview;" statement: CGFloat x = 5.0; id i = tableView; then tableview retains its pointer (i.e. is not nil) if I place the breakpoint after the "id i = tableView;" line. In other words, the breakpoint must be set after the "id i = tableView"; assignment in order for tableView to retain its pointer. If the breakpoint is set before the assignment is made and I just hang at that breakpoint for a bit then after a couple of seconds the console logs this error message: Assertion failed: (cls), function getName, file /SourceCache/objc4_Sim/objc4-427.5/runtime/objc-runtime-new.mm, line 3990. Although the code works when I don't step through the method, I need my debugger to work! It makes programming kind of challenging when your debugging tools become your enemy. Anyone know what the cause and solution are? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 844 845 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853 854 855  | Next Page >