Search Results

Search found 22901 results on 917 pages for 'query bug'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 850/917 | < Previous Page | 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853 854 855 856 857  | Next Page >

  • How to manage data access / preloading efficiently using web services in C# ?

    - by Amadeus45
    Hello all, Ok, this is very "generic" question. We currently have a SQL Server database for which we need to develop an application in ASP.NET with will contain all the business logic in C# Web Services. The thing is that, architecturally speaking, I'm not sure how to design the web service and the data management. There are many things to consider : We need have very rapid access to data. Right now, we have over a million "sales" and "purchases" record from which we need to often calculate and load the current stock for a given day according to a serie of parameter. I'm not sure how we should preload the data and keep the data in the Web Service. Doing a stock calculation within a SQL query will be very lengthy. They currently have a stock calculation application that preloads all sales and purchases for the day and afterwards calculate the stock on the code-side. We want to develop powerful reporting tools. We want to implement a "pivot table" but not sure how to implement it and have good performances. For the reasons above, I'm not sure how to design the data model. Anybody can give me any guidelines on how to start, or from their personnal experiences (what have you done in the past ?) I'm not sure if it's possible to make a bounty even though the question is new (I'd put 300 rep on it, since I really need something). If you know how, let me know. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Redis Cookbook Chat Recipe

    - by Tommy Kennedy
    I am a new starter to Node.Js and Redis. I got the Redis cookbook and was trying out the Chat client & Server recipe. I was wondering if anybody got the code to work or if there is some bug in the code. I dont see where the sent messages from the client get invoked on the server. Any help would be great. Regards, Tom Client Code: <?php ?> <html> <head> <title></title> <script src="http://192.168.0.118:8000/socket.io/socket.io.js"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> var socket = io.connect('192.168.0.118',{port:8000}); socket.on('message', function(data){ alert(data); //var li = new Element('li').insert(data); //$('messages').insert({top: li}); }); </script> </head> <body> <ul id="messages"> <!-- chat messages go here --> </ul> <form id="chatform" action=""> <input id="chattext" type="text" value="" /> <input type="submit" value="Send" /> </form> <script> $('#chatform').submit(function() { socket.emit('message', 'test'); //$('chattext').val()); $('chattext').val(""); // cleanup the field return false; }); </script> </body> </html> Server Code: var http = require('http'); io = require('socket.io'); redis = require('redis'); rc = redis.createClient(); //rc1 = redis.createClient(); rc.on("connect",function(){ rc.subscribe("chat"); console.log("In Chat Stream"); }); rc.on("message",function (channel,message){ console.log("Sending hope: " + message); //rc1.publish("chat","hope"); socketio.sockets.emit('message',message); }); server = http.createServer(function(req,res){ res.writeHead(200,{'content-type':'text/html'}); res.end('<h1>hello world</h1>'); }); server.listen(8000); var socketio = io.listen(server);

    Read the article

  • Linq to sql Repository pattern , Some doubts

    - by MindlessProgrammer
    I am using repository pattern with linq to sql, I am using a repository class per table. I want to know , am i doing at good/standard way, ContactRepository Contact GetByID() Contact GetAll() COntactTagRepository List<ContactTag> Get(long contactID) List<ContactTag> GetAll() List<ContactTagDetail> GetAllDetails() class ContactTagDetail { public Contact Contact {get;set;} public ContactTag COntactTag {get;set;} } When i need a contact i call method in contactrepository, same for contacttag but when i need contact and tags together i call GetDetais() in ContactTag repository its not returning the COntactTag entity generated by the orm insted its returning ContactTagDetail entity conatining both COntact and COntactTag generated by the orm, i know i can simple call GetAll in COntactTag repository and can access Contact.ContactTag but as its linq to sql it will there is no option to Deferred Load in query level, so whenever i need a entity with a related entity i create a projection class Another doubt is where i really need to right the method i can do it in both contact & ContactTag repostitory like In contact repository GetALlWithTags() or something but i am doing it in in COntactTag repository Whats your suggestions ?

    Read the article

  • Cast object to interface when created via reflection

    - by Al
    I'm trying some stuff out in Android and I'm stuck at when trying to cast a class in another .apk to my interface. I have the interface and various classes in other .apks that implement that interface. I find the other classes using PackageManager's query methods and use Application#createPackageContext() to get the classloader for that context. I then load the class, create a new instance and try to cast it to my interface, which I know it definitely implements. When I try to cast, it throws a class cast exception. I tried various things like loading the interface first, using Class#asSubclass, etc, none of which work. Class#getInterfaces() shows the interface is implemented. My code is below: PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); List<ResolveInfo> lr = pm.queryIntentServices(new Intent("com.example.some.action"), 0); ArrayList<MyInterface> list = new ArrayList<MyInterface>(); for (ResolveInfo r : lr) { try { Context c = getApplication().createPackageContext(r.serviceInfo.packageName, Context.CONTEXT_IGNORE_SECURITY | Context.CONTEXT_INCLUDE_CODE); ClassLoader cl = c.getClassLoader(); String className = r.serviceInfo.name; if (className != null) { try { Class<?> cls = cl.loadClass(className); Object o = cls.newInstance(); if (o instanceof MyInterface) { //fails list.add((MyInterface) o); } } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } // some exceptions removed for readability } } catch (NameNotFoundException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); }

    Read the article

  • Sometimes big delay when using PHP mail()

    - by Robbert Dam
    I have a website which processes orders from a Windows application. This works as follows: User clicks "Order now" in the windows app App uploads a file with POST to a PHP script The script immediately calls the PHP mail() function (order is not stored in a db) This works fine most of the time. However, sometimes a big delay occurs (several days). Customers calls why the product has not yet been delivered. E-mail headers of delayed mail follows: Microsoft Mail Internet Headers Version 2.0 Received: from barracuda.nkl.nl ([10.0.0.1]) by smtp.nkl.nl with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.3790.3959); Wed, 26 May 2010 16:26:51 +0200 X-ASG-Debug-ID: 1274883818-2f8800000000-X58hIK X-Barracuda-URL: http://10.0.0.1:8000/cgi-bin/mark.cgi Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by barracuda.nkl.nl (Spam & Virus Firewall) with ESMTP id ECAFD15776A for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:38 +0200 (CEST) Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (server45.firstfind.nl [93.94.226.76]) by barracuda.nkl.nl with ESMTP id 85bAT2AU58kkxjPb for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:38 +0200 (CEST) X-Barracuda-Envelope-From: [email protected] Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Debian-3+etch1) with ESMTP id o4QEM3Hb004301 for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:31 +0200 Received: (from nklsemin@localhost) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Submit) id o4J9lA7M031307; Wed, 19 May 2010 11:47:10 +0200 Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 11:47:10 +0200 Message-Id: <[email protected]> To: [email protected] X-ASG-Orig-Subj: easyfit - ref: Hoen3443 Subject: easyfit - ref: Hoen3443 X-PHP-Script: www.nklseminar.nl/emailer/upload.php for 77.61.220.217 From: [email protected] Content-type: text/html X-Virus-Scanned: by amavisd-new X-Barracuda-Connect: server45.firstfind.nl[93.94.226.76] X-Barracuda-Start-Time: 1274883820 X-Barracuda-Bayes: INNOCENT GLOBAL 0.0000 1.0000 -2.0210 X-Barracuda-Virus-Scanned: by Barracuda Spam & Virus Firewall at nkl.nl X-Barracuda-Spam-Score: 0.92 X-Barracuda-Spam-Status: No, SCORE=0.92 using global scores of TAG_LEVEL=2.0 QUARANTINE_LEVEL=1000.0 KILL_LEVEL=3.0 tests=DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX, DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX_2, HTML_MESSAGE, MIME_HEADER_CTYPE_ONLY, MIME_HTML_ONLY, NO_REAL_NAME X-Barracuda-Spam-Report: Code version 3.2, rules version 3.2.2.30817 Rule breakdown below pts rule name description ---- ---------------------- -------------------------------------------------- 0.00 NO_REAL_NAME From: does not include a real name 0.01 DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX Date: is 96 hours or more before Received: date 0.00 MIME_HTML_ONLY BODY: Message only has text/html MIME parts 0.00 HTML_MESSAGE BODY: HTML included in message 0.86 MIME_HEADER_CTYPE_ONLY 'Content-Type' found without required MIME headers 2.07 DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX_2 DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX_2 Return-Path: [email protected] X-OriginalArrivalTime: 26 May 2010 14:26:51.0343 (UTC) FILETIME=[7B80DDF0:01CAFCDF] The delay seems to occur here: Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Debian-3+etch1) with ESMTP id o4QEM3Hb004301 for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:31 +0200 Received: (from nklsemin@localhost) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Submit) id o4J9lA7M031307; Wed, 19 May 2010 11:47:10 +0200 I've reported this issue various times to the web hosting service that hosts my website. They say the delay does not occur in their network (impossible). But they do confirm that the e-mail is first seen in their mail server on May 26, which is 7 days after the mail has been composed. The order is marked with the timestamp of the user's local PC, which also matches May 19 (so it's not a PC clock problem) It's also interesting to see that all delayed mails (orders were placed on different days) come in at once. So I suddenly receive 14 e-mail in my mailbox from various days. Any idea were this delay may be introduced? Could there be a bug in my PHP code that causes this? (I cannot believe I can introduce a loop of 7 days in my PHP code)

    Read the article

  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

    Read the article

  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

    Read the article

  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

    Read the article

  • What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

    - by SnAzBaZ
    I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SOAP Messages on iPhone

    - by CocoaNewBee
    Hello everyone !! I have to use several SOAP messages to get data from a web service. I got some examples how to do that but they all have the XML (http://icodeblog.com/2008/11/03/iphone-programming-tutorial-intro-to-soap-web-services/) // ---- LOGIN ----- NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap12:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap12=\"http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope\">\n" "<soap12:Body>\n" "<Login xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\">\n" "<sUserID>USER</sUserID>\n" "<sUserPw>PASSWORD</sUserPw>\n" "<sDomain>SERVER</sDomain>\n" "</Login>\n" "</soap12:Body>\n" "</soap12:Envelope>\n" ]; NSString *urlToSend = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://SERVER/DIRECTORY/WSDL_FILE.ASMX"]; NSString *callTOMake = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://WEBSERVER/Login"]; TWO questions: 1) Does it make sense to read the SOAP Message from a class or a file into xcode?? or sould I just define them thru the code ?? 2) I used SOAPUI & .NET to query the service. It works fine... but when I do it from the iphone simulator it returns the following: 2010-03-10 15:13:54.773 Hello_SOAP[91204:207] soap:ClientServer did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: http://WEBSERVER/DIRECTORY/Login How can I figure out what the issue is that's causing the said error on the simulator??

    Read the article

  • Wildcards in T-SQL LIKE vs. ASP.net parameters

    - by Vinzcent
    In my SQL statement I use wildcards. But when I try to select something, it never select something. While when I execute the query in Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, it works fine. What am I doing wrong? Click handler protected void btnTitelAuteur_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cvalTitelAuteur.Enabled = true; cvalTitelAuteur.Validate(); if (Page.IsValid) { objdsSelectedBooks.SelectMethod = "getBooksByTitleAuthor"; objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Clear(); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("title", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("author", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.Select(); gvSelectedBooks.DataBind(); pnlZoeken.Visible = false; pnlKiezen.Visible = true; } } In my Data Access Layer public static DataTable getBooksByTitleAuthor(string title, string author) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.GENRE " + "FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID " +"WHERE (tblBooks.TITLE LIKE '%@title%');"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add("@title", SqlDbType.Text); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["@title"].Value = title; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Books"); return ds.Tables["Books"]; }

    Read the article

  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

    Read the article

  • MySQL 1064 error, works in command line and phpMyAdmin; not in app

    - by hundleyj
    Here is my query: select * from (select *, 3956 * 2 * ASIN(SQRT(POWER(SIN(RADIANS(45.5200077 - lat)/ 2), 2) + COS(RADIANS(45.5200077)) * COS(RADIANS(lat)) * POWER(SIN(RADIANS(-122.6942014 - lng)/2),2))) AS distance from stops order by distance, route asc) as p group by route, dir order by distance asc limit 10 This works fine at the command line and in PHPMyAdmin. I'm using Dbslayer to connect to MySQL via my JavaScript backend, and the request is returning a 1064 error. Here is the encoded DBSlayer request string: http://localhost:9090/db?{%22SQL%22:%22select%20*%20from%20%28select%20*,%203956%20*%202%20*%20ASIN%28SQRT%28POWER%28SIN%28RADIANS%2845.5200077%20-%20lat%29/%202%29,%202%29%20+%20COS%28RADIANS%2845.5200077%29%29%20*%20COS%28RADIANS%28lat%29%29%20*%20POWER%28SIN%28RADIANS%28-122.6942014%20-%20lng%29/2%29,2%29%29%29%20AS%20distance%20from%20%60stops%60%20order%20by%20%60distance%60,%20%60route%60%20asc%29%20as%20p%20group%20by%20%60route%60,%20%60dir%60%20order%20by%20%60distance%60%20asc%20limit%2010%22} And the response: {"MYSQL_ERRNO" : 1064 , "MYSQL_ERROR" : "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '(RADIANS(45.5200077)) * COS(RADIANS(lat)) * POWER(SIN(RADIANS(-122.6942014 - lng' at line 1" , "SERVER" : "trimet"} Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

    - by Brann
    I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

    Read the article

  • Using application roles with DataReader

    - by Shahar
    I have an application that should use an application role from the database. I'm trying to make this work with queries that are actually run using Subsonic (2). To do this, I created my own DataProvider, which inherits from Subsonic's SqlDataProvider. It overrides the CreateConnection function, and calls sp_appsetrole to set the application role after the connection is created. This part works fine, and I'm able to get data using the application role. The problem comes when I try to unset the application role. I couldn't find any place in the code where my provider is called after the query is done, so I tried to add my own, by changing SubSonic code. The problem is that Subsonic uses a data reader. It loads data from the data reader, and then closes it. If I unset the application role before the data reader is closed, I get an error saying: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. If I unset the application role after the data reader is closed, I get an error saying ExecuteNonQuery requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is closed. I can't seem to find a way to close the data reader without closing the connection.

    Read the article

  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

    Read the article

  • Who to select value from DropDown list in PHP???Problem

    - by sandy
    Hello .. I want to know the error in this code The following code retrieves the names of the members of the database query in the dropdownlist But how do I know who you selected.... I want to send messages only to the members that selected form dropdown list <?php include ("connect.php"); $name = $_POST['sector_list']; echo $name ; ?> <form method="POST" action="" > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list" class="inputstandard"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('select * from members ') or die (mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option size ="40" value=" '. $row['MemberID'] . '" name="' . $row['MemberName']. '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> </select> </form> I hope somebody can help me

    Read the article

  • AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

    - by Ross
    Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

    Read the article

  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

    Read the article

  • how to split a very large database on sql server

    - by ken jackson
    I have a 90 GB SQL Server database that I want to make more manageable. It stores stock data from 50+ different stocks from 2009 and 2010, and each stock is a separate table. Some tables have hundreds of millions of rows, and other have just a few million. What I want to do is somehow split the database, so that I don't have a single database file that is 90 GB. What I want is to be able to somehow magically split all the tables so that I can backup the 2009 data once and not have to keep on including it in the backup every time I backup the entire database, however, I would like the 2009 data to be included whenever I do a query. Is partitioning the database the way to go? Will it do the above for me, or will I need some other solution? I research partitioning, but I wasn't sure if that would solve all my problems. I wasn't able to find anything that would tell me whether or not it would migrate prexisting data, or whether it only worked for newly inserted data. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, Ken

    Read the article

  • pass other form elements to ajax suggestion box script

    - by Alex Calder
    I paid somebody to build me a jQuery AJAX suggestion box script a while back. It works great. Now I'm trying to learn about it enough to modify it to do something different. Right now, the script that generates the suggestions just takes the query text and does the same check every time. Now, I want to be able to pass along additional info so different things are looked for with each instance of a search box. The HTML... simple, obvious. input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / The jQuery looks like this: jQuery(document).ready(function() { $('.suggest').autocomplete( { source:'output.php', minLength:3, focus: function (event, ui) { $(event.target).val(ui.item.label); return false; } } ); [snip] } Instead of: source:'output.php', minLength:3, I'd like: source:'output.php?arg1=blah1&arg2=blah2', minLength:3, where arg1 and arg2 are passed along in the form... input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / input type="hidden" name="arg1" value="blah1" input type="hidden" name="arg2" value="blah2" Does this make sense? Thanks guys. I know just about "this much" about OOL's and javascript, so I'm learning... Alex

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

    Read the article

  • KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

    - by BestPractices
    Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 846 847 848 849 850 851 852 853 854 855 856 857  | Next Page >