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  • Calling a function within a class

    - by JM4
    I am having trouble calling a specific function within a class. The call is made: case "Mod10": if (!validateCreditCard($fields[$field_name])) $errors[] = $error_message; break; and the class code is: class CreditCardValidationSolution { var $CCVSNumber = ''; var $CCVSNumberLeft = ''; var $CCVSNumberRight = ''; var $CCVSType = ''; var $CCVSError = ''; function validateCreditCard($Number) { $this->CCVSNumber = ''; $this->CCVSNumberLeft = ''; $this->CCVSNumberRight = ''; $this->CCVSType = ''; $this->CCVSError = ''; // Catch malformed input. if (empty($Number) || !is_string($Number)) { $this->CCVSError = $CCVSErrNumberString; return FALSE; } // Ensure number doesn't overrun. $Number = substr($Number, 0, 20); // Remove non-numeric characters. $this->CCVSNumber = preg_replace('/[^0-9]/', '', $Number); // Set up variables. $this->CCVSNumberLeft = substr($this->CCVSNumber, 0, 4); $this->CCVSNumberRight = substr($this->CCVSNumber, -4); $NumberLength = strlen($this->CCVSNumber); $DoChecksum = 'Y'; // Mod10 checksum process... if ($DoChecksum == 'Y') { $Checksum = 0; // Add even digits in even length strings or odd digits in odd length strings. for ($Location = 1 - ($NumberLength % 2); $Location < $NumberLength; $Location += 2) { $Checksum += substr($this->CCVSNumber, $Location, 1); } // Analyze odd digits in even length strings or even digits in odd length strings. for ($Location = ($NumberLength % 2); $Location < $NumberLength; $Location += 2) { $Digit = substr($this->CCVSNumber, $Location, 1) * 2; if ($Digit < 10) { $Checksum += $Digit; } else { $Checksum += $Digit - 9; } } // Checksums not divisible by 10 are bad. if ($Checksum % 10 != 0) { $this->CCVSError = $CCVSErrChecksum; return FALSE; } } return TRUE; } } When I run the application - I get the following message: Fatal error: Call to undefined function validateCreditCard() in C:\xampp\htdocs\validation.php on line 339 any ideas?

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  • Monitoring UDP socket in glib(mm) eats up CPU time

    - by Gyorgy Szekely
    Hi, I have a GTKmm Windows application (built with MinGW) that receives UDP packets (no sending). The socket is native winsock and I use glibmm IOChannel to connect it to the application main loop. The socket is read with recvfrom. My problem is: this setup eats 25% percent CPU time on a 3GHz workstation. Can somebody tell me why? The application is idle in this case, and if I remove the UDP code, CPU usage drops down to almost zero. As the application has to perform some CPU intensive tasks, I could image better ways to spend that 25% Here are some code excerpts: (sorry for the printf's ;) ) /* bind */ void UDPInterface::bindToPort(unsigned short port) { struct sockaddr_in target; WSADATA wsaData; target.sin_family = AF_INET; target.sin_port = htons(port); target.sin_addr.s_addr = 0; if ( WSAStartup ( 0x0202, &wsaData ) ) { printf("WSAStartup failed!\n"); exit(0); // :) WSACleanup(); } sock = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, 0 ); if (sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { printf("invalid socket!\n"); exit(0); } if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr*) &target, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in) ) == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("failed to bind to port!\n"); exit(0); } printf("[UDPInterface::bindToPort] listening on port %i\n", port); } /* read */ bool UDPInterface::UDPEvent(Glib::IOCondition io_condition) { recvfrom(sock, (char*)buf, BUF_SIZE*4, 0, NULL, NULL); /* process packet... */ } /* glibmm connect */ Glib::RefPtr channel = Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket(udp.sock); Glib::signal_io().connect( sigc::mem_fun(udp, &UDPInterface::UDPEvent), channel, Glib::IO_IN ); I've read here in some other question, and also in glib docs (g_io_channel_win32_new_socket()) that the socket is put into nonblocking mode, and it's "a side-effect of the implementation and unavoidable". Does this explain the CPU effect, it's not clear to me? Whether or not I use glib to access the socket or call recvfrom() directly doesn't seem to make much difference, since CPU is used up before any packet arrives and the read handler gets invoked. Also glibmm docs state that it's ok to call recvfrom() even if the socket is polled (Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket()) I've tried compiling the program with -pg and created a per function cpu usage report with gprof. This wasn't usefull because the time is not spent in my program, but in some external glib/glibmm dll.

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  • PHP 'instanceof' failing with class constant

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm working on a framework that I'm trying to type as strongly as I possibly can. (I'm working within PHP and taking some of the ideas that I like from C# and trying to utilize them within this framework.) I'm creating a Collection class that is a collection of domain entities/objects. It's kinda modeled after the List<T> object in .Net. I've run into an obstacle that is preventing me from typing this class. If I have a UserCollection, it should only allow User objects into it. If I have a PostCollection, it should only allow Post objects. All Collections in this framework need to have certain basic functions, such as add, remove, iterate. I created an interface, but found that I couldn't do the following: interface ICollection { public function add($obj) } class PostCollection implements ICollection { public function add(Post $obj) {} } This broke it's compliance with the interface. But I can't have the interface strongly typed because then all Collections are of the same type. So I attempted the following: interface ICollection { public function add($obj) } abstract class Collection implements ICollection { const type = 'null'; } class PostCollection { const type = 'Post'; public function add($obj) { if(!($obj instanceof self::type)) { throw new UhOhException(); } } } When I attempt to run this code, I get syntax error, unexpected T_STRING, expecting T_VARIABLE or '$' on the instanceof statement. A little research into the issue and it looks like the root of the cause is that $obj instanceof self is valid to test against the class. It appears that PHP doesn't process the entire self::type constant statement in the expression. Adding parentheses around the self::type variable threw an error regarding an unexpected '('. An obvious workaround is to not make the type variable a constant. The expression $obj instanceof $this->type works just fine (if $type is declared as a variable, of course). I'm hoping that there's a way to avoid that, as I'd like to define the value as a constant to avoid any possible change in the variable later. Any thoughts on how I can achieve this, or have I take PHP to it's limit in this regard? Is there a way of "escaping" or encapsulating self::this so that PHP won't die when processing it?

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  • Google Docs iphone library error reporting

    - by phil harris
    I'm in the process of adding a Google Docs interface to my iPhone app, and I'm largely following the example in the GoogleDocs.m file from Tom Saxton's example app. The objective-c library I'm using is from http://code.google.com/p/gdata-objectivec-client/wiki/GDataObjCIntroduction The library file used is from gdata-objectivec-client-1.10.0.zip. This service:username:password method is a slight variant of the one found in the Saxton file GoogleDocs.m starting at line 351: - (void)service:(NSString *)username password:(NSString *)password { if(service == nil) { service = [[[GDataServiceGoogleDocs alloc] init] autorelease]; [service setUserAgent:s_strUserAgent]; [service setShouldCacheDatedData:NO]; [service setServiceShouldFollowNextLinks:NO]; (void)[service authenticateWithDelegate:self didAuthenticateSelector:@selector(ticket:authenticatedWithError:)]; } // update the username/password each time the service is requested if (username != nil && [username length] && password != nil && [password length]) [service setUserCredentialsWithUsername:username password:password]; else [service setUserCredentialsWithUsername:nil password:nil]; } // associated callback for service:username:password: method - (void)ticket:(GDataServiceTicket *)ticket authenticatedWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"%@",@"authenticatedWithError called"); if(error == nil) [self selectBackupRestore]; else { NSLog(@"error code(%d)", [error code]); NSLog(@"error domain(%d)", [error domain]); NSLog(@"localizedDescription(%@)", error.localizedDescription); NSLog(@"localizedFailureReason(%@)", error.localizedFailureReason); NSLog(@"localizedRecoveryOptions(%@)", error.localizedRecoveryOptions); NSLog(@"localizedRecoverySuggestion(%@)", error.localizedRecoverySuggestion); } } Please note the service:username:password method and the callback compile and run fine. The problem is that the callback is passing a non-nil NSError object. I added an NSLog() for every error reporting attribute of NSError and the (Xcode) log output of a test run is below. [Session started at 2010-05-27 12:27:16 -0700.] 2010-05-27 12:27:38.778 iFilebox[74596:207] authenticatedWithError called 2010-05-27 12:27:38.779 iFilebox[74596:207] error code(-1) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.780 iFilebox[74596:207] error domain(499324) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.781 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedDescription(Operation could not be completed. (com.google.GDataServiceDomain error -1.)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.782 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedFailureReason((null)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.782 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedRecoveryOptions((null)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.783 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedRecoverySuggestion((null)) My essential question is in the error reporting. I was hoping the localizedDescription would be more specific of the error. All I get for the error code value is -1, and the only description of the error is "Operation could not be completed. (com.google.GDataServiceDomain error -1.". Not very helpful. Does anyone know what a GDataServiceDomain error -1 is? Where can I find a full list of all error codes returned, and a description of what they mean?

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  • Joda Time cannot subtract one hour

    - by Leoa
    In my android program, I have a spinner that allows the user to select different times. Each selection is processed with Joda time to subtract the minutes. It works fine for minutes 0 to 59 and 61 and greater. However, when 60 minutes is subtracted, the time is not updated, and the original time is shown. How do I get Joda time to subtract 60 minutes? Spinner: public class MyOnItemSelectedListener implements OnItemSelectedListener { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int pos, long id1) { String mins = parent.getItemAtPosition(pos).toString(); int intmins=0; // process user's selection of alert time if(mins.equals("5 minutes")){intmins = 5;} if(mins.equals("10 minutes")){intmins = 10;} if(mins.equals("20 minutes")){intmins = 20;} if(mins.equals("30 minutes")){intmins = 30;} if(mins.equals("40 minutes")){intmins = 40;} if(mins.equals("50 minutes")){intmins = 50;} if(mins.equals("60 minutes")){intmins = 60;} if(mins.equals("120 minutes")){intmins = 120;} String stringMinutes=""+intmins; setAlarm(intmins, stringMinutes); } else { } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView parent) { mLocationDisplay.setText(" " + location); } } public void setAlarm(int intmins, String mins) { // based alarm time on start time of event. TODO get info from database. String currentDate; SimpleDateFormat myFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss"); Date date1 = null; DateTime dt; currentDate = eventdate + " " + startTimeMilitary;// startTimeMilitary; try { date1 = myFormat.parse(currentDate); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } dt = new DateTime(date1); long dateInMillis = dt.getMillis(); String sDateInMillis = Long.toString(dateInMillis); // subtract the selected time from the event's start time String newAlertTime = subtractTime(dt, intmins); newAlertTime = subtractTime(dt, intmins); //......}

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  • linq to sql with nservicebus table lock issue

    - by IGoor
    I am building a system using NServiceBus and my DataLayer is using Linq 2 SQL. The system is made up of 2 services. Service1 receives messages from NSB. It will query Table1 in my database and inserts a record into Table1 If a certain condition is met a new NSB message is sent to the 2nd service Service2 will update records also in Table1 when it receives messages from Service1 and it does some other non database related work. Service2 is a long running process. The problem I am having is the moment Service2 updates a record in Table1, the table is locked. The lock seems to be in place until Service2 has completed all it is processing. i.e. The lock is not released after my datacontext is disposed. This causes the query in Service1 to timeout. Once Service2 completes processing, Service1 resumes processing again without problem. So for example Service1 code may look like: int x =0; using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { x = (from dp in db.Table1 select dp).Count(); // this line will timeout while service2 is processing Table1 t = new Table1(); t.Data = "test"; db.Table1.InsertOnSubmit(t); db.SubmitChanges(); } if(x % 50 == 0) CallService2(); The code in service2 may look like: using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { Table1 t = db.Table1.Where(t => t.id == myId); t.Data = "updated"; db.SubmitChanges(); } // I would have expected the lock to have been released at this point, but this is not the case. DoSomeLongRunningTasks(); // lock will be released once service2 exits I don't understand why the lock is not released when the datacontext is disposed in Service2. To get around the problem I have been calling: db.ExecuteCommand("SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED"); and this works, but I am not happy using it. I want to solve this problem properly. Has any one experienced this sort of problem before and does any one know how to solve it? Why is the lock not released after the datacontext has been disposed? Thanks in advance. p.s. sorry for the extremely long post.

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  • ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

    - by contactmatt
    The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

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  • How can I map a spring controller to a url with .jsp extension?

    - by Matteo Caprari
    Hi. We are in the process of migrating a jsp-only application to Spring-MVC. For various reasons we can't change the extension of the current pages. (calls to login.jsp need to handled by a spring controller that will use a jsp file as view). We are doing this iteratively, so some pages need to stay jsp files (calls to welcome.jsp won't be handled by a controller). To do that I mapped both the DispatcherDervlet and the HandlerMapping to *.jsp, and configured the JstlView in the standard way. Unfortunately, if I browse to //login.jsp I get an error saying <No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/<context>/WEB-INF/jsp/login.jsp] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring'> It all works if I change .jsp to any other extension in DispatcherServlet and HandlerMapping. web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> spring-servlet.xml: <!-- View resolver --> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> <!-- URL Mapping --> <bean id="publicUrlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="urlMap"> <map> <entry key="/login.jsp" value-ref="loginController"/> </map> </property> </bean> Thanks a lot.

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  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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  • Python-How to call up a function from another module?

    - by user2691540
    I am making a project where I need several modules which are imported into one main module to make a pizza ordering service. Upon finishing this (to a working standard) I decided to re-code it so that the whole order is completed with one tkinter window, now instead of using input(), I use tkinter.Entry() etc. etc. To do this I had to use functions for each step so it is broken up nicely, e.g. the code asks if the user wants pickup or delivery, the user clicks a button which sets some variables and one of the buttons is then configured to say "continue" and the command leads to the next step of the pizza ordering process e.g. getting the name. The problem I have is that when I get past the last function of the first module the configured button has a command to go to a function in the second module, but it says that the command is not defined??? I have tried my way around this but cannot import the configured button variable into the next module, and anything else I tried gave no result, it simply doesn't go to the next module after the first module is done. I have made the main tkinter window in the main module and have it that it will mainloop after importing the other modules so shouldn't the function I want to call upon be defined? How can I get from one function to the next if the latter is in a seperate module? Is this possible or do I have to rethink my approach and if so how? Ok then, have made some more code to show what my problem is, this isn't what I am actually using but it's a lot shorter and has the same issue: this is the main module: import tkinter mainwindow = tkinter.Tk() # here i set the window to a certain size etc. import mod1 import mod2 mainwindow.mainloop() this is mod1: import tkinter def button1(): label.destroy() button1.destroy() button2.config(text = "continue", command = func2) def button2(): label.destroy() button1.destroy() button2.config(text = "continue", command = func2) label = tkinter.Label(text = "example label") button1 = tkinter.Button(text = "button1", command = button1) button2 = tkinter.Button(text = "button2", command = button2) label.pack() button1.pack() button2.pack() this is mod2: def func2(): button2.destroy() print ("haha it works...") I still get the problem that func2 is not defined? Thanks in advance

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  • Best of both worlds: browser and desktop game?

    - by Ricket
    When considering a platform for a game, I've decided on multi-platform (Win/Lin/Mac) but can't make up my mind as far as browser vs. desktop. As I'm not all too far in development, and now having second thoughts, I'd like your opinion! Browser-based games using Java applets: market penetration is reasonably high (for version 6, it's somewhere around 60% I believe?) using JOGL, 3D performance/quality is decent; certainly good enough to render the crappy 3D graphics that I make there's the (small?) possibility of porting something to Android great for an audience of gamers who switch computers often; can sit down at any computer, load a webpage and play it also great for casual gamers or less knowledgeable gamers who are quite happy with playing games in a browser but don't want to install more things to their computer written in a high-level language which I am more familiar with than C++ - but at the same time, I would like to improve my skills with C++ as it is probably where I am headed in the game industry once I get out of school... easier update process: reload the page. Desktop games using good ol' C++ and OpenGL 100% market penetration, assuming complete cross-platform; however, that number reduces when you consider how many people will go through downloading and installing an executable compared to just browsing to a webpage and hitting "yes" to a security warning. more trouble to maintain the cross-platform; but again, for learning purposes I would embrace the challenge and the knowledge I would gain better performance all around true full screen, whereas browser games often struggle with smooth full screen graphics (especially on Linux, in my experience) can take advantage of distribution platforms such as Steam more likely to be considered a "real" game, whereas browser and Java games are often dismissed as not being real games and therefore not played by "hardcore gamers" installer can be large; don't have to worry so much about download times Is there a way to have the best of both worlds? I love Java applets, but I also really like the reasons to write a desktop game. I don't want to constantly port everything between a Java applet project and a C++ project; that would be twice the work! Unity chose to write their own web player plugin. I don't like this, because I am one of the people that will not install their web player for anything, and I don't see myself being able to convince my audience to install a browser plugin. What are my options? Are there other examples out there besides Unity, of games that have browser and desktop versions? Did I leave out anything in the pro/con lists above?

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  • Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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  • Issues declaring already existing NSMutableArray in new class

    - by Graeme
    I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items) which is located in the (TableView) subclass. Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the (items) NSMutableArray. Herein lies the issue - I need to somehow get the data from the (items) NSMutableArray into the new (mapView) subclass which I'm struggling with - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the mapView class when it already is in the applications memory. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) class to the (mapView) class (i.e. how do I declare the NSMutableArray in the (mapView) class)? Here's a overview of how the system works: App opened Data downloaded (using DataImporter class) when (TableView) viewDidLoad runs Data stored in NSMutableArray accessible by the (TableView) class And from here I need to access and declare the array from a new (mapView) class. Any help greatly appreciated, thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into original NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

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  • Ideas for designing an automated content tagging system needed

    - by Benjamin Smith
    I am currently designing a website that amongst other is required to display and organise small amounts of text content (mainly quotes, article stubs, etc.). I currently have a database with 250,000+ items and need to come up with a method of tagging each item with relevant tags which will eventually allow for easy searching/browsing of the content for users. A very simplistic idea I have (and one that I believe is employed by some sites that I have been looking to for inspiration (http://www.brainyquote.com/quotes/topics.html)), is to simply search the database for certain words or phrases and use these words as tags for the content. This can easily be extended so that if for example a user wanted to show all items with a theme of love then I would just return a list of items with words and phrases relating to this theme. This would not be hard to implement but does not provide very good results. For example if I were to search for the month 'May' in the database with the aim of then classifying the items returned as realting to the topic of Spring then I would get back all occurrences of the word May, regardless of the semantic meaning. Another shortcoming of this method is that I believe it would be quite hard to automate the process to any large scale. What I really require is a library that can take an item, break it down and analyse the semantic meaning and also return a list of tags that would correctly classify the item. I know this is a lot to ask and I have a feeling I will end up reverting to the aforementioned method but I just thought I should ask if anyone knew of any pre-existing solution. I think that as the items in the database are short then it is probably quite a hard task to analyse any meaning from them however I may be mistaken. Another path to possibly go down would be to use something like amazon turk to outsource the task which may produce good results but would be expensive. Eventually I would like users to be able to (and want to!) tag content and to vote for the most relevant tags, possibly using a gameification mechanic as motivation however this is some way down the line. A temporary fix may be the best thing if this were the route I decided to go down as I could use the rough results I got as the starting point for a more in depth solution. If you've read this far, thanks for sticking with me, I know I'm spitballing but any input would be really helpful. Thanks.

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  • How to get the top keys from a hash by value

    - by Kirs Kringle
    I have a hash that I sorted by values greatest to least. How would I go about getting the top 5? There was a post on here that talked about getting only one value. What is the easiest way to get a key with the highest value from a hash in Perl? I understand that so would lets say getting those values add them to an array and delete the element in the hash and then do the process again? Seems like there should be an easier way to do this then that though. My hash is called %words. use strict; use warnings; use Tk; #Learn to install here: http://factscruncher.blogspot.com/2012/01/easy-way-to-install-tk- on-strawberry.html #Reading in the text file my $file0 = Tk::MainWindow->new->Tk::getOpenFile; open( my $filehandle0, '<', $file0 ) || die "Could not open $file0\n"; my @words; while ( my $line = <$filehandle0> ) { chomp $line; my @word = split( /\s+/, lc($line)); push( @words, @word ); } for (@words) { s/[\,|\.|\!|\?|\:|\;|\"]//g; } #Counting words that repeat; put in hash my %words_count; $words_count{$_}++ for @words; #Reading in the stopwords file my $file1 = "stoplist.txt"; open( my $filehandle1, '<', $file1 ) or die "Could not open $file1\n"; my @stopwords; while ( my $line = <$filehandle1> ) { chomp $line; my @linearray = split( " ", $line ); push( @stopwords, @linearray ); } for my $w ( my @stopwords ) { s/\b\Q$w\E\B//ig; } #Comparing the array to Hash and deleteing stopwords my %words = %words_count; for my $stopwords ( @stopwords ) { delete $words{ $stopwords }; } #Sorting Hash Table my @keys = sort { $words{$b} <=> $words{$a} or "\L$a" cmp "\L$b" } keys %words; #Starting Statistical Work my $value_count = 0; my $key_count = 0; #Printing Hash Table $key_count = keys %words; foreach my $key (@keys) { $value_count = $words{$key} + $value_count; printf "%-20s %6d\n", $key, $words{$key}; } my $value_average = $value_count / $key_count; #my @topwords; #foreach my $key (@keys){ #if($words{$key} > $value_average){ # @topwords = keys %words; # } #} print "\n", "The number of values: ", $value_count, "\n"; print "The number of elements: ", $key_count, "\n"; print "The Average: ", $value_average, "\n\n";

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  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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  • JQuery - Pass variables to PHP script via AJAX call and then display file

    - by hfidgen
    Hiya, I'm trying to generate Outlook event files for my events, doing so on the fly as and when someone requests it by pressing a link on the page. Here's what i've got so far, but I can't find out how to get the browser to download the content which is returned. I know how I could do this if I sent everything via _GET, but I'd prefer to do it via _POST, hence I'm going down this route.. Any thoughts? Thanks! HTML / Javascript <script> $(function() { $(".button").click(function() { // validate and process form // first hide any error messages var start = $("input#start").val(); var end = $("input#end").val(); var dataString = 'start='+ start + '&end=' + end; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/calendar.php", data: dataString, success: function(data) { //Need to return the file contents somehow! } }); return false; }); }); </script> <form name="calendar" method="post" action=""> <input type="hidden" name="start" id="start" value="<?php echo $start; ?>" /> <input type="hidden" name="end" id="end" value="<?php echo $end; ?>" /> <input type="submit" name="submit" class="button" id="submit_btn" value="Outlook" /> </fieldset> </form> PHP File <?php if (isset($_POST['start'])) { $start = $_POST['start']; $end = $_POST['end']; $c = header("Content-Type: text/Calendar"); $c .= header("Content-Disposition: inline; filename=calendar.ics"); $c .= "BEGIN:VCALENDAR\n"; $c .= "VERSION:2.0\n"; $c .= "PRODID:-//xxxyyyy//NONSGML //EN\n"; $c .= "METHOD:REQUEST\n"; // requied by Outlook $c .= "BEGIN:VEVENT\n"; $c .= "UID:". $start . $end ."-" . "-xxxxyyyy.com\n"; // required by Outlook $c .= "DTSTAMP:".date('Ymd').'T'.date('His')."\n"; // required by Outlook $c .= "DTSTART:20080413T000000\n"; $c .= "SUMMARY:" . "\n"; $c .= "DESCRIPTION:" . "\n"; $c .= "END:VEVENT\n"; $c .= "END:VCALENDAR\n"; echo $c; } else { echo "Sorry you can't access this page directly"; } ?>

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  • youtube - video upload failure - unable to convert file - encoding the video wrong?

    - by Anthony
    I am using .NET to create a video uploading application. Although it's communicating with YouTube and uploading the file, the processing of that file fails. YouTube gives me the error message, "Upload failed (unable to convert video file)." This supposedly means that "your video is in a format that our converters don't recognize..." I have made attempts with two different videos, both of which upload and process fine when I do it manually. So I suspect that my code is a.) not encoding the video properly and/or b.) not sending my API request properly. Below is how I am constructing my API PUT request and encoding the video: Any suggestions on what the error could be would be appreciated. Thanks P.S. I'm not using the client library because my application will use the resumable upload feature. Thus, I am manually constructing my API requests. Documentation: http://code.google.com/intl/ja/apis/youtube/2.0/developers_guide_protocol_resumable_uploads.html#Uploading_the_Video_File Code: // new PUT request for sending video WebRequest putRequest = WebRequest.Create(uploadURL); // set properties putRequest.Method = "PUT"; putRequest.ContentType = getMIME(file); //the MIME type of the uploaded video file //encode video byte[] videoInBytes = encodeVideo(file); public static byte[] encodeVideo(string video) { try { byte[] fileInBytes = File.ReadAllBytes(video); Console.WriteLine("\nSize of byte array containing " + video + ": " + fileInBytes.Length); return fileInBytes; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("\nException: " + e.Message + "\nReturning an empty byte array"); byte [] empty = new byte[0]; return empty; } }//encodeVideo //encode custom headers in a byte array byte[] PUTbytes = encode(putRequest.Headers.ToString()); public static byte[] encode(string headers) { ASCIIEncoding encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] bytes = encoding.GetBytes(headers); return bytes; }//encode //entire request contains headers + binary video data putRequest.ContentLength = PUTbytes.Length + videoInBytes.Length; //send request - correct? sendRequest(putRequest, PUTbytes); sendRequest(putRequest, videoInBytes); public static void sendRequest(WebRequest request, byte[] encoding) { Stream stream = request.GetRequestStream(); // The GetRequestStream method returns a stream to use to send data for the HttpWebRequest. try { stream.Write(encoding, 0, encoding.Length); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("\nException writing stream: " + e.Message); } }//sendRequest

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  • iPhone app works hundreds of times, then crashes from memory error on startup, then never works unti

    - by peter
    I have a Cocos2d/openGL iPhone game. It's a universal app and I'm dealing with an occasional but nasty error on the iPad. We are loading a lot of textures up front (3 2048x2048 textures). I'm working on reducing this up front load, but what worries me is I really don't understand the root cause of this crash that permanently breaks the app. This is the deal: 1. App works fine for hundreds of plays on the iPad 2. Eventually (I'm guessing due to other programs using up some memory and not letting go or whatever) the app starts crashing on startup. It just closes again in the middle of loading. 3. The App will now never work again on that iPad, closing immediately every time, until the iPad is restarted. Obviously my app is demanding too much memory up front to work reliably every time, I get that. What I don't get is why when it fails once, it has failed forever until the iPad is restarted. Can anyone explain what is going on here? EDIT: forgot to add organizer crash lags just say low memory, like this every time (I changed my app name to MyAppName below). Again, I know it's low memory, but why does it stay low memory until restart?: Incident Identifier: E7A2507C-3FB1-4E3B-B315-09F094236541 CrashReporter Key: 0fda9d667f2c6073f20a76809aa25438b6854d15 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.2 (7B367) Date: 2010-04-30 16:59:44 -0400 Free pages: 437 Wired pages: 17228 Purgeable pages: 0 Largest process: MyAppName Processes Name UUID Count resident pages MyAppName <6307ce41802850944baa78d29224fa7f> 22385 (jettisoned) (active) mediaserverd <ea8bac28b06fe3980fdd44b5caceb563> 242 DTMobileIS <a0f651e43881e66f50f8a95abea72921> 5826 notification_pro <4c9a7ee0a5bbe160465991228f2d2f2e> 67 syslog_relay <4ceaed776d2df957fa130712f4ef21d0> 66 notification_pro <4c9a7ee0a5bbe160465991228f2d2f2e> 67 notification_pro <4c9a7ee0a5bbe160465991228f2d2f2e> 67 afcd <4f3c9566e33b4463f05603d990584e5d> 72 ptpd <83de0f774bd6553d513ae9e19b0f9b56> 181 syslogd <66247e305d5c0bf6f1ce1cc950653263> 81 lsd <a4d852c1c8da2b3d231bdc90887b52ba> 130 iapd <a8534cbde4b90ad5915dd26ab03ff3e3> 204 notifyd <5e9d5bee7c3eae1c8b494c79eb11406e> 71 BTServer <64e4a6ea6b1240db2331e05a29caa862> 108 CommCenter <97bf297944ac4bde19bcee96dd23bd5f> 181 SpringBoard <c7a5904c12db7b14334a4edaa4cabaa9> 5339 (active) configd <aca9fa3380322669164fd6b1a3864300> 373 fairplayd.K48 <2d997ffca1a568f9c5400ac32d8f0782> 84 locationd <dd1ea88105c62173908ce767db5c4d37> 599 mDNSResponder <820560222d47a1f2a0dce98a7f8a9721> 108 lockdownd <497fd54c79a680bf29f5d9320f514613> 303 MobileStorageMou <c277b79c2157c4dc5cfc5c3ca35bd5f2> 69 launchd <66972eee4d865c4383b33d985d22994b> 98 **End**

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  • Hide jQuery Accordion while loading

    - by zac
    I am testing a site build with a slow connection and I noticed the jQuery Accordion stays expanded for a long time, until the rest of the site is loaded, and then finally collapses. Not very pretty. I was wondering how I could keep it collapsed through the loading process and only expand when clicked. I am working with the standalone 1.6 version of the accordion plugin. The basic structure : <div class="sidebar"> <ul id="navigation" class="ui-accordion-container"> <li><a class="head" href="#">1</a> <ul class="sub"> <li><a href="#">1a</a></li> <li><a href="#">2a</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> and the script jQuery().ready(function(){ jQuery('#navigation').accordion({ active: 'false', header: '.head', navigation: true, animated: 'easeslide', collapsible: true }); }); I tried to hide the elements in the CSS to keep them from appearing while loading but all that achieved is in having them always hidden. Maybe the problem is in the CSS I have a background image in each of the sub menus: #navigation{ margin:0px; margin-left: 10px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; font-size: 1.1em; width:200px; text-transform: uppercase; padding-bottom: 30px; } #navigation ul{ border-width:0px; margin:0px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; } #navigation li{ list-style:none outside none; } #navigation li ul{ height:185px; overflow:auto; } #navigation li ul.sub{ background:url('../images/sub.jpg') no-repeat; dispaly: block; } #navigation li li a{ color:#000000; display:block; text-indent:20px; text-decoration: none; padding: 6px 0; } #navigation li li a:hover{ background-color:#FFFF99; color:#FF0000; } Thanks in advance for any advice on how to have this thing run a little smoother and having the accordion always collapsed. -edit - I forgot to mention that I am also hoping for a solution that will allow the nav to still be accessible for those without javscript.

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  • drupal jQuery 1.4 on specific pages

    - by Mark
    I'm looking for a way to force drupal to use 1.4 on specific pages. This is the same as this old question:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2842792/drupal-jquery-1-4-on-specific-pages It look me a while to try the answer which I marked correct. But because I'm new to module dev overall I couldn't figure it out based on the answer. The code from that answer looked like this: /** * Implementation of hook_theme_registry_alter(). * Based on the jquery_update module. * * Make this page preprocess function runs *last*, * so that a theme can't call drupal_get_js(). */ function MYMODULE_theme_registry_alter(&$theme_registry) { if (isset($theme_registry['page'])) { // See if our preprocess function is loaded, if so remove it. if ($key = array_search('MYMODULE_preprocess_page', $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'])) { unset($theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][$key]); } // Now add it on at the end of the array so that it runs last. $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][] = 'MYMODULE_preprocess_page'; } } /** * Implementation of moduleName_preprocess_hook(). * Based on the jquery_update module functions. * * Strips out JS and CSS for a path. */ function MYMODULE_preprocess_page(&$variables, $arg = 'my_page', $delta=0) { // I needed a one hit wonder. Can be altered to use function arguments // to increase it's flexibility. if(arg($delta) == $arg) { $scripts = drupal_add_js(); $css = drupal_add_css(); // Only do this for pages that have JavaScript on them. if (!empty($variables['scripts'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($scripts['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.js']); $variables['scripts'] = drupal_get_js('header', $scripts); } // Similar process for CSS but there are 2 Css realted variables. // $variables['css'] and $variables['styles'] are both used. if (!empty($variables['css'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.css']); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.color.css']); $variables['styles'] = drupal_get_css($css); } } } I need the jquery_update 1.3.2 to be unset on the node-types of 'blog' and 'video'. Can someone help me out? Thank you.

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  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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  • A NSMutableArray is destroying my life!

    - by camilo
    EDITED to show the relevant part of the code Hi. There's a strange problem with an NSMutableArray which I'm just not understanding... Explaining: I have a NSMutableArray, defined as a property (nonatomic, retain), synthesized, and initialized with 29 elements. realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; After the initialization, I can insert elements as I wish and everything seems to be working fine. While I'm running the application, however, if I insert a new element in the array, I can print the array in the function where I inserted the element, and everything seems ok. However, when I select a row in the table, and I need to read that array, my application crashes. In fact, it cannot even print the array anymore. Is there any "magical and logical trick" everybody should know when using a NSMutableArray that a beginner like myself can be missing? Thanks a lot. I declare my array as realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; I insert objects in my array with [realSectionNames addObject:[category categoryFirstLetter]]; although I know i can also insert it with [realSectionNames insertObject:[category categoryFirstLetter] atIndex:i]; where the "i" is the first non-occupied position. After the insertion, I reload the data of my tableView. Printing the array before or after reloading the data shows it has the desired information. After that, selecting a row at the table makes the application crash. This realSectionNames is used in several UITableViewDelegate functions, but for the case it doesn't matter. What truly matters is that printing the array in the beginning of the didSelectRowAtIndexPath function crashes everything (and of course, doesn't print anything). I'm pretty sure it's in that line, for printing anything he line before works (example): NSLog(@"Anything"); NSLog(@"%@", realSectionNames); gives the output: 2010-03-24 15:16:04.146 myApplicationExperience[3527:207] Anything [Session started at 2010-03-24 15:16:04 +0000.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 3527. Still not understanding what kind of stupidity I've done this time... maybe it's not too late to follow the career of brain surgeon?

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  • Poor man's "lexer" for C#

    - by Paul Hollingsworth
    I'm trying to write a very simple parser in C#. I need a lexer -- something that lets me associate regular expressions with tokens, so it reads in regexs and gives me back symbols. It seems like I ought to be able to use Regex to do the actual heavy lifting, but I can't see an easy way to do it. For one thing, Regex only seems to work on strings, not streams (why is that!?!?). Basically, I want an implementation of the following interface: interface ILexer : IDisposable { /// <summary> /// Return true if there are more tokens to read /// </summary> bool HasMoreTokens { get; } /// <summary> /// The actual contents that matched the token /// </summary> string TokenContents { get; } /// <summary> /// The particular token in "tokenDefinitions" that was matched (e.g. "STRING", "NUMBER", "OPEN PARENS", "CLOSE PARENS" /// </summary> object Token { get; } /// <summary> /// Move to the next token /// </summary> void Next(); } interface ILexerFactory { /// <summary> /// Create a Lexer for converting a stream of characters into tokens /// </summary> /// <param name="reader">TextReader that supplies the underlying stream</param> /// <param name="tokenDefinitions">A dictionary from regular expressions to their "token identifers"</param> /// <returns>The lexer</returns> ILexer CreateLexer(TextReader reader, IDictionary<string, object> tokenDefinitions); } So, pluz send the codz... No, seriously, I am about to start writing an implementation of the above interface yet I find it hard to believe that there isn't some simple way of doing this in .NET (2.0) already. So, any suggestions for a simple way to do the above? (Also, I don't want any "code generators". Performance is not important for this thing and I don't want to introduce any complexity into the build process.)

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  • ReadFile doesn't work asynchronously on Win7 and Win2k8

    - by f0b0s
    According to MSDN ReadFile can read data 2 different ways: synchronously and asynchronously. I need the second one. The folowing code demonstrates usage with OVERLAPPED struct: #include <windows.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> void Read() { HANDLE hFile = CreateFileA("c:\\1.avi", GENERIC_READ, 0, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, NULL); if ( hFile == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { printf("Failed to open the file\n"); return; } int dataSize = 256 * 1024 * 1024; char* data = (char*)malloc(dataSize); memset(data, 0xFF, dataSize); OVERLAPPED overlapped; memset(&overlapped, 0, sizeof(overlapped)); printf("reading: %d\n", time(NULL)); BOOL result = ReadFile(hFile, data, dataSize, NULL, &overlapped); printf("sent: %d\n", time(NULL)); DWORD bytesRead; result = GetOverlappedResult(hFile, &overlapped, &bytesRead, TRUE); // wait until completion - returns immediately printf("done: %d\n", time(NULL)); CloseHandle(hFile); } int main() { Read(); } On Windows XP output is: reading: 1296651896 sent: 1296651896 done: 1296651899 It means that ReadFile didn't block and returned imediatly at the same second, whereas reading process continued for 3 seconds. It is normal async reading. But on windows 7 and windows 2008 I get following results: reading: 1296661205 sent: 1296661209 done: 1296661209. It is a behavior of sync reading. MSDN says that async ReadFile sometimes can behave as sync (when the file is compressed or encrypted for example). But the return value in this situation should be TRUE and GetLastError() == NO_ERROR. On Windows 7 I get FALSE and GetLastError() == ERROR_IO_PENDING. So WinApi tells me that it is an async call, but when I look at the test I see that it is not! I'm not the only one who found this "bug": read the comment on ReadFile MSDN page. So what's the solution? Does anybody know? It is been 14 months after Denis found this strange behavior.

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