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• Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

  - by p.campbell

  A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

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• WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

  - by Totophil

  There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

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• Rails CSS not Loading using Heroku

  - by eWizardII

  I have the following site set up here on Heroku - http://www.peerinstruction.net/users/sign_up the issue is that I have updated the css yet it is not being actively reflected on the site, it just shows a textbox, with some edited/custom fonts. I have attached the css file in the following gist - https://gist.github.com/f74b626c54ecbb60bbde The signup page controller: !!! Strict %html %head %title= yield(:title) || "Untitled" = stylesheet_link_tag 'application', 'web-app-theme/base', 'web-app-theme/themes/activo/style', 'web-app-theme/override' = javascript_include_tag :defaults = csrf_meta_tag = yield(:head) %body #container #header %h1 %a{:href => "/"} Peer Instruction Network #user-navigation %ul.wat-cf %li .content.login .flash - flash.each do |type, message| %div{ :class => "message #{type}" } %p= message = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => session_path(resource_name), :html => { :class => "form login" }) do |f| .group.wat-cf .left= f.label :email, :class => "label right" .right= f.text_field :email, :class => "text_field" .group.wat-cf .left= f.label :password, :class => "label right" .right= f.password_field :password, :class => "text_field" .group.wat-cf .right %button.button{ :type => "submit" } Login /= link_to "Sign In", destroy_user_session_path #box = yield The signup pages haml file: %h2 .block .content.login .flash - flash.each do |type, message| %div{ :class => "message #{type}" } %p= message = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| = devise_error_messages! %div = f.label :firstname %br/ = f.text_field :firstname %div = f.label :middlename %br/ = f.text_field :middlename %div = f.label :lastname %br/ = f.text_field :lastname %div = f.label :email %br/ = f.email_field :email %div = f.label :password %br/ = f.password_field :password %div = f.label :academic %br/ = f.text_field :academic %div= f.submit "Continue" = render :partial => "devise/shared/links" I used web-app-theme to create an activo theme and then modify it.

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• Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

  - by TheStijn

  hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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• Full Text Search in SQL Server 2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

  - by ensecoz

  I am working with SQL Server 2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQL Server cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQL Server: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

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• Why do Firefox and Opera ignore max-width inside of display: table-cell?

  - by brad

  The following code displays correctly in Chrome or IE (the image is 200px wide). In Firefox and Opera the max-width style is ignored completely. Why does this happen and is there a good work around? Also, which way is most standards compliant? Note One possible work around for this particular situation is to set max-width to 200px. However, this is a rather contrived example. I'm looking for a strategy for a variable width container. <!doctype html> <html> <head> <style> div { display: table-cell; padding: 15px; width: 200px; } div img { max-width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <img src="http://farm4.static.flickr.com/3352/4644534211_b9c887b979.jpg" /> <p> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Donec facilisis ante, facilisis posuere ligula feugiat ut. Fusce hendrerit vehicula congue. at ligula dolor. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. leo metus, aliquam eget convallis eget, molestie at massa. </p> </div> </body> </html> [Update] As stated by mVChr below, the w3.org spec states that max-width does not apply to inline elements. I've tried using div img { max-width: 100%; display: block; }, but it does not seem to correct the issue.

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• broken SQL 2008 SP1 Web Edition (can not login with SSMS)

  - by gerryLowry

  Scenario: My installation of SQL Server 2008 Web Edition SP1 was working properly. Since I've recently joined Microsoft's Website Spark*, I removed SQL2008 and installed SQL 2008 again using my Website Spark edition and license from the MSDN download site. Next, I updated SQL 2008 to SP1 (this is required because I'm running Windows 2008 Server R2 Web edition). When I launch SSMS (SQL Server Management Studio), "User name" is "myhost\Administrator" and is greyed out so it can not be changed. When I installed my Website Spark version, I did not include "myhost\Administrator" when I was configuring SQL 2008 service accounts. Instead I created an administrator account "myhost\mySQLaccount". ERROR MESSAGE: Connect to Server (X) Cannot connect to (local) Additional information: Login failed for user 'myhost'Admistrator' (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456) I tried to use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to correct this problem but could not find any useful way to fix this issue. How to I fix this problem? Connect to Server ... Server type: Database Engine Server name: (local) Authentication: Windows Authentication Please advise. Thank you. Gerry * http://www.microsoft.com/web/websitespark/default.aspx

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• Aggregating / Collecting AJAX requests

  - by Ganesh Shankar

  I have situation where a user can manipulate a large set of data (presented in a table) by using a bunch of filters represented as checkboxes. The page is AJAXed up so the user doesn't have to wait for a full page refresh every time they click a filter. The way it's currently implemented is by having an event handler watch all the checkboxes and request filtered data from the server when a click event is triggered. This works fine. However, there is a usability & performance issue with doing it this way. For example, if a user clicks 6 checkboxes, 6 AJAX requests are triggered and they all come back at various intervals causing the page to be updated 6 times. This will most probably annoy the user and seems rather inefficient. I want to put some kind of timeout on the event handler to do something like this: "Wait for 1 second and if there are no more filters clicked trigger the AJAX request". However, at the moment I've only been able to delay all 6 requests by 1 second. I'm not sure how to aggregate / collect the filter info into 1 AJAX request. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated!

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• .NET out of memory troubleshooting

  - by bushman

  After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

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• Java: Exception in thread main java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError

  - by cath

  I am trying to get the Red5 Flash Media Server working on my computer. I have installed it, but when I run the server I get this error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/red5/server/Bootstrap Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.red5.server.Bootstrap at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:217) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:334) Could not find the main class: org.red5.server.Bootstrap. Program will exit. I came across this link where someone had the same issue: http://trac.red5.org/ticket/762 It looks like they ran this command: export CLASSPATH=3D$RED5_HOME/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback- core-0.9.18.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar I have red5 installed in /usr/share/red5, so I ran this: export CLASSPATH=3D$/usr/share/red5/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-core-0.9.18.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar Yet despite all this I am still seeing the same error message.

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• WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

  - by WPF-it

  I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

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• Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

  - by prodigitalson

  Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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• Memory leak dyld dlopen

  - by imthi

  I am getting leak and I cannot detect from where this is happening. The stack trace does not give full info after dyld open. For few leaks I am not getting any stack trace info. All I get is only object memory address. Is anyone else facing the same issue. I am using XCode 3.2 on show leopard. 18 0x103038 17 0x1033c7 16 0x1034a1 15 0x90145f48 14 dyld dlopen 13 dyld dyld::link(ImageLoader*, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 12 dyld ImageLoader::link(ImageLoader::LinkContext const&, bool, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 11 dyld ImageLoader::recursiveLoadLibraries(ImageLoader::LinkContext const&, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 10 dyld dyld::libraryLocator(char const*, bool, char const*, ImageLoader::RPathChain const*) 9 dyld dyld::load(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&) 8 dyld dyld::loadPhase0(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 7 dyld dyld::loadPhase1(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 6 dyld dyld::loadPhase3(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 5 dyld dyld::loadPhase4(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 4 dyld dyld::loadPhase5(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 3 dyld dyld::mkstringf(char const*, ...) 2 dyld strdup 1 dyld mallocenter

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• Tableview not updating correctly after adding person

  - by tazboy

  I have to be missing something simple here but it escapes me. After the user enters a new person to a mutable array I want to update the table. The mutable array is the datasource. I believe my issue lies within cellForRowAtIndexPath. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { TextFieldCell *customCell = (TextFieldCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"TextCellID"]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"cell"]; if (indexPath.row == 0) { if (customCell == nil) { NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TextFieldCell" owner:nil options:nil]; for (id currentObject in nibObjects) { if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[TextFieldCell class]]) customCell = (TextFieldCell *)currentObject; } } customCell.nameTextField.delegate = self; cell = customCell; } else { if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:@"cell"]; cell.textLabel.text = [[self.peopleArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row-1] name]; NSLog(@"PERSON AT ROW %d = %@", indexPath.row-1, [[self.peopleArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row-1] name]); NSLog(@"peopleArray's Size = %d", [self.peopleArray count]); } } return cell; } When I first load the view everything is great. This is what prints: PERSON AT ROW 0 = Melissa peopleArray's Size = 2 PERSON AT ROW 1 = Dave peopleArray's Size = 2 After I add someone to that array I get this: PERSON AT ROW 1 = Dave peopleArray's Size = 3 PERSON AT ROW 2 = Tom peopleArray's Size = 3 When I add a second person I get: PERSON AT ROW 2 = Tom peopleArray's Size = 4 PERSON AT ROW 3 = Ralph peopleArray's Size = 4 Why is not printing everyone in the array? This pattern continues and it only ever prints two people, and it's always the last two people. What the heck am I missing?

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• How do I add a comment to an image using jQuery

  - by marcamillion

  So I am trying to replicate Facebook's picture tagging functionality, and I have the functionality that onClick, a box is created and there is a comment box. Now the issue is that I want to be able to (without doing any back-end processing) take the input from the input field and add it in some form to the underlying image area that they have selected. I would also like to add a small image to that area, that shows that a comment is there. How do I do that? See the code below for what I have for the comment box: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live('click', function(e){ tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); }); }); </script> Now...whenever the user presses enter, the info in the comment box is appended to the URL like so: .html?comment=comment value# Thanks

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• asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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• What is causing my HTTP server to fail with "exit status -1073741819"?

  - by Keeblebrox

  As an exercise I created a small HTTP server that generates random game mechanics, similar to this one. I wrote it on a Windows 7 (32-bit) system and it works flawlessly. However, when I run it on my home machine, Windows 7 (64-bit), it always fails with the same message: exit status -1073741819. I haven't managed to find anything on the web which references that status code, so I don't know how important it is. Here's code for the server, with redundancy abridged: package main import ( "fmt" "math/rand" "time" "net/http" "html/template" ) // Info about a game mechanic type MechanicInfo struct { Name, Desc string } // Print a mechanic as a string func (m MechanicInfo) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("%s: %s", m.Name, m.Desc) } // A possible game mechanic var ( UnkillableObjects = &MechanicInfo{"Avoiding Unkillable Objects", "There are objects that the player cannot touch. These are different from normal enemies because they cannot be destroyed or moved."} //... Race = &MechanicInfo{"Race", "The player must reach a place before the opponent does. Like \"Timed\" except the enemy as a \"timer\" can be slowed down by the player's actions, or there may be multiple enemies being raced against."} ) // Slice containing all game mechanics var GameMechanics []*MechanicInfo // Pseudorandom number generator var prng *rand.Rand // Get a random mechanic func RandMechanic() *MechanicInfo { i := prng.Intn(len(GameMechanics)) return GameMechanics[i] } // Initialize the package func init() { prng = rand.New(rand.NewSource(time.Now().Unix())) GameMechanics = make([]*MechanicInfo, 34) GameMechanics[0] = UnkillableObjects //... GameMechanics[33] = Race } // serving var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func randMechHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, req *http.Request) { mechanics := [3]*MechanicInfo{RandMechanic(), RandMechanic(), RandMechanic()} if err := index.Execute(w, mechanics); err != nil { http.Error(w, err.Error(), http.StatusInternalServerError) } } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", randMechHandler) if err := http.ListenAndServe(":80", nil); err != nil { panic(err) } } In addition, the unabridged code, the _base.html template, and the index.html template. What could be causing this issue? Is there a process for debugging a cryptic exit status like this?

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• Has anyone used Ant4Eclipse with Project Lombok?

  - by gmcnaughton

  Has anyone successfully used Ant4Eclipse (http://www.ant4eclipse.org/) in combination with Project Lombok (http://projectlombok.org/)? Lombok provides annotations for removing boilerplate code; however, it doesn't appear to play nicely with Ant4Eclipse (headless compilation of Eclipse projects). For instance, the following Lombok sample compiles fine in Eclipse and javac: import lombok.Getter; public class LombokTest { private @Getter String foo; public LombokTest() { String s = this.getFoo(); } } But compiling with Ant4Eclipse's <buildJdtProject> yields the following: [javac] Compiling 1 source file [javac] ---------- [javac] 1. WARNING in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 4) [javac] private @Getter String foo; [javac] ^^^ [javac] The field LombokTest.foo is never read locally [javac] ---------- [javac] 2. ERROR in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 8) [javac] String s = this.getFoo(); [javac] ^^^^^^ [javac] The method getFoo() is undefined for the type LombokTest [javac] ---------- Has anyone successfully used these libraries together? Thanks! Edit: sample project demonstrating the issue

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• SQL Server Index cost

  - by yellowstar

  I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

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• maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

  - by Ed

  Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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• .NET Hashtable - "Same" key, different hashes

  - by Simon Lindgren

  Is it possible for two .net strings to have different hashes? I have a Hashtable with amongst others the key "path". When I loop through the elements in the table to print it, i can see that the key exists. When trying to looking it up however, there is no matching element. Debugging suggests that the string I'm looking for has a different hash than the one I'm supplying as the key. This code is in a Castle Monorail project, using brail as a view engine. The key I'm looking for is inserted by a brail line like this: UrlHelper.Link(node.CurrentPage.LinkText, {@params: {@path: "/Page1"}}) Then, in this method (in a custom IRoutingRule): public string CreateUrl(System.Collections.IDictionary parameters) { PrintDictionaryToLog(parameters); string url; if (parameters.Contains("path")) { url = (string)parameters["path"]; } else { return null; } } The key is printed to the log, but the function returns null. I didn't know this could even be a problem with .net strings, but I guess this is some kind of encoding issue? Oh, and this is running mono.

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• How to get debugging of an App Engine application working?

  - by Chris Lacy

  I've got 10+ years in C/C++, and it appears Visual Studio has spoilt me during that time. In Visual Studio, debbuging issimple: I just add a breakpoint to a line of code, and as soon as that code is executed, my breakpoint triggers, at which point I can view a callstack, local/member variables, etc. I'm trying to achieve this functionality under App Engine. I assume that is possible? All the searching I've done to this point has led me to using Pydev in Eclipse. As best I can tell, I am successfully launching my simple 'hello world' program in Debug mode. But the IDE doesn't even seem to have an option to set a breakpoint? I must be missing something. I've googled long and hard about this, but am having no luck. Most results trace back to the same old threads that don't deal directly with my issue. Can anyone shed some light on how you get basic debugging setup using Pydev/Eclipse with App Engine? Alternatively, if there's an easier way to debug App Engine than using Pydev/Eclipse, I'd love to hear about it. Thanks in advance.

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• Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

  - by awe

  I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

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• Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

  - by Mike Davis

  There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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• How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

  - by Russ Hayward

  I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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