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  • How should I handle expected errors? eg. "username already exists"

    - by Pheter
    I am struggling to understand how I should design the error handling parts of my code. I recently asked a similar question about how I should go about returning server error codes to the user, eg. 404 errors. I learnt that I should handle the error from within the current part of the application; seem's simple enough. However, what should I do when I can't handle the error from the current link in the chain? For example, I may have a class that is used to manage authentication. One of it's methods could be createUser($username, $password). Within that function, I need to determine if the username already exists. If this is true, how should I alert the calling code about this? Returning null instead of a user object is one way. But how do I then know what caused the error? How should I handle errors in such a way that calling code can easily find out what caused the error? Is there a design pattern commonly used for this kind of situation?

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  • What is wrong with this Fortran '77 snippet?

    - by notJim
    I've been tasked with maintaing some legacy fortran code, and I'm having trouble getting it to compile with gfortran. I've written a fair amount of Fortran 95, but this is my first experience with Fortran 77. This snippet of code is the problematic one: CHARACTER*22 IFILE, OFILE IFILE='TEST.IN' OFILE='TEST.OUT' OPEN(5,FILE=IFILE,STATUS='NEW') OPEN(6,FILE=OFILE,STATUS='NEW') common/pabcde/nfghi When I compile with gfortran file.FOR, all lines starting with the common statement are errors (e.g. Error: Unexpected COMMON statement at (1) for each following line until it hits the 25 error limit). I compiled with -Wall -pedantic, but fixing the warnings did not fix this problem. The crazy thing is that if I comment out all 4 lines starting with IF='TEST.IN', the program compiles and works as expected, but I must comment out all of them. Leaving any of them uncommented gives me the same errors starting with the common statement. If I comment out the common statement, I get the same errors, just starting on the following line. I am on OS X Leopard (not Snow Leopard) using gfortran. I've used this very system with gfortran extensively to write Fortran 95 programs, so in theory the compiler itself is sane. What the hell is going on with this code?

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  • google maps api keys to be set webserver-wide, (as env var? inside apache?)

    - by ~knb
    I have a web site with many virtual hosts and each registered with several domain names (ending in .org, .de), site1.mysite.de, site2.mysite.org Then I have different templating systems based on several programming languages (perl and php) in use on the web server. The Google Maps Api requires a unique Google Maps api key for each vhost. I want to have something like a web-server wide variable $goomapkey that I can call from inside my code. In PHP code, Now I have a kludgy case-analysis solution like $domain = substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], -3); if (".de" == $domain){ //if ("xxxxxx" eq substr($ENV{SERVER_NAME}, 0, 5)){ // $gookey = "ABQIAAA..."; //} else { //site1.de $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1Js..."; //} } elseif ("dev" == substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], 0, 3)){ //dev.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsSb..."; } else { //www.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsS..."; //TODO: Add more keys for each virtual host, for my.machinename.de, IP-address based URL, ... } ... inside my php-based CMS. A non-ideal solution, because it is, php-only, and I still have to set it at several html templates inside the CMS, and there are too many cases. I want the google maps api key to be set by the apache web server who examines the request *early in the request loop before any php page template code is constructed and evaluated. is an environment variable a good solution? which technology should be used to set the $goomapkey variable? I'd prefer mod_perl2 Apache request handler, but the documentation is confusing (many API changes in the past ). Which Apache module could I use? Is there a built-in Apache module that does the same thing?

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  • OpenGL Mipmapping: how does OpenGL decide on map level?

    - by Droozle
    Hi, I am having trouble implementing mipmapping in OpenGL. I am using OpenFrameworks and have modified the ofTexture class to support the creation and rendering of mipmaps. The following code is the original texture creation code from the class (slightly modified for clarity): glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); glTexSubImage2D(texData.textureTarget, 0, 0, 0, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); This is my version with mipmap support: glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); gluBuild2DMipmaps(texData.textureTarget, texData.glTypeInternal, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); The code does not generate errors (gluBuild2DMipmaps returns '0') and the textures are rendered without problems. However, I do not see any difference. The scene I render consists of "flat, square tiles" at z=0. It's basically a 2D scene. I zoom in and out by using "glScale()" before drawing the tiles. When I zoom out, the pixels of the tile textures start to "dance", indicating (as far as I can tell) unfiltered texture look-up. See: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b_As2Np3m8A at 25s. My question is: since I do not move the camera position, but only use scaling of the whole scene, does this mean OpenGL can not decide on the appropriate mipmap level and uses the full texture size (level 0)? Paul

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  • Programming logic best practice - redundant checks

    - by eldblz
    I'm creating a large PHP project and I've a trivial doubt about how to proceed. Assume we got a class books, in this class I've the method ReturnInfo: function ReturnInfo($id) { if( is_numeric($id) ) { $query = "SELECT * FROM books WHERE id='" . $id . "' LIMIT 1;"; if( $row = $this->DBDrive->ExecuteQuery($query, $FetchResults=TRUE) ) { return $row; } else { return FALSE; } } else { throw new Exception('Books - ReturnInfo - id not valid.'); } } Then i have another method PrintInfo function PrintInfo($id) { print_r( $this->ReturnInfo($id) ); } Obviously the code sample are just for example and not actual production code. In the second method should I check (again) if id is numeric ? Or can I skip it because is already taken care in the first method and if it's not an exception will be thrown? Till now I always wrote code with redundant checks (no matter if already checked elsewhere i'll check it also here) Is there a best practice? Is just common sense? Thank you in advance for your kind replies.

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  • ASP .NET Button event handlers do not fire on the first click, but on the second click after a PostB

    - by John
    Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers were triggered. On the second click, they fired. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition (within GetAdministrationInterface) public override Control GetAdministrationInterface() { // more code... Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me!"; btn.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); // more code... } Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something } Page_Load Method that calls GetAdministrationInterface protected void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsAsync) { List<AdministrationInterface> interfaces = <DATABASE CALL>; foreach(AdministrationInteface ai in interfaces) { placeholderDiv.Controls.Add(ai.GetAdministrationInterface()); } } }

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  • Git rebase and semi-tracked per-developer config files.

    - by dougkiwi
    This is my first SO question and I'm new-ish to Git as well. Background: I am supposed to be the version control guru for Git in my group of about 8 developers. As I don't have a lot of Git experience, this is exciting. I decided we need a shared repository that would be the authoritative master for the production code and the main meeting-point for the development code. As we work for a corporation, we really do need to show an authoritive source for the production code at least. I have instructed the developers to pull-rebase when pulling from the shared repository, then push the commits that they want to share. We have been running into problems with a particular type of file. One of these files, which I currently assume is typical of the problem, is called web.config. We want a version-controlled master web.config for devs to clone, but each dev may make minor edits to this file that they wish to locally save but not share. The problem is this: how do I tell git not to consider local changes or commits to this file to be relevent for rebasing and pushing? Gitignore does not seem to solve the problem, but maybe that's because I put web.config into .gitignore too late? In some simple situations we have stacked local changes, rebased, pushed, and popped the stack, but that doesn't seem to work all of the time. I haven't picked up the pattern quite yet. The published documentation on pull --rebase tends to deal with simplier situations. Or do I have the wrong idea entirely? Are we misusing Git? Dougkiwi

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  • Rails partial gets double escaped when using link_to_function

    - by dombesz
    Hi, I have the following code. def add_resume_link(name, form) link_to_function name do |page| html = form.fields_for :resumes, @general_resume.resumes.build, :child_index => 'NEW_RECORD' do |form_parent| render :partial => 'resume_form', :locals=>{:form=>form_parent} end page << "$('resumes').insert({ bottom: '#{escape_javascript(html)}'.replace(/NEW_RECORD/g, id) });" end end And on the resume_form i have somewhere: =add_skill_link("Add Skill", form, "resume_#{id}_skills") and the function looks like: def add_skill_link(name, form, id) link_to_function name do |page| html = form.fields_for :skill_items, @general_resume.skill_items.build, :child_index => 'NEW_RECORD' do |form_parent| render :partial=>'skill_form', :locals=>{:form=>form_parent, :parent=>id} end page << "$('#{id}').insert({ bottom: '#{escape_javascript(html)}'.replace(/NEW_RECORD/g, new Date().getTime()) });" end end So basically i have a javascript code which dinamically adds a piece of html (add_resume) and contains another javascript code which dinamically adds a select box to the page. My problem is that the add_skill_link works fine if i use from the server side, i mean rendering from server side. And gets double escaped when using within the upper described way. I tried to remove the escape_javascript from the add_skill_link bit still not good. Any ideas?

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  • Google Chrome is doing things wrong again

    - by Stefan Liebenberg
    Chrome is wrongly reporting width and height values for images during, or just after, load time. Jquery is used in this code example: <img id='image01' alt='picture that is 145x134' src='/images/picture.jpg' /> <script> var img = $( 'img#image01' ) img.width() // would return 145 in Firefox and 0 in Chrome. img.height() // would return 134 in Firefox and 0 in Chrome. </script> If you put the script in a onload function, the result is the same. but if you run the code a few seconds after the page has loaded, chrome returns the correct result. <script> function example () { var img = $( 'img#image01' ); img.width() // returns 145 in both Firefox and Chrome. img.height() // returns 134 in both Firefox and Chrome. } window.setTimeout( example, 1000 ) </script> Also if you specify the width and height values in the img tag, the script seems to work as expected in both Firefox and Chrome. <img id='image01' src='/images/picture.jpg' width=145 height=134 /> But as you cannot always control the html input, this is not an ideal workaround. Can jQuery be patched with a better workaround for this problem? or will I need to specify the width and height for every image in my code?

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  • Effective communication in a component-based system

    - by Tesserex
    Yes, this is another question about my game engine, which is coming along very nicely, with much thanks to you guys. So, if you watched the video (or didn't), the objects in the game are composed of various components for things like position, sprites, movement, collision, sounds, health, etc. I have several message types defined for "tell" type communication between entities and components, but this only goes so far. There are plenty of times when I just need to ask for something, for example an entity's position. There are dozens of lines in my code that look like this: SomeComponent comp = (SomeComponent)entity.GetComponent(typeof(SomeComponent)); if (comp != null) comp.GetSomething(); I know this is very ugly, and I know that casting smells of improper OO design. But as complex as things are, there doesn't seem to be a better way. I could of course "hard-code" my component types and just have SomeComponent comp = entity.GetSomeComponent(); but that seems like a cop-out, and a bad one. I literally JUST REALIZED, while writing this, after having my code this way for months with no solution, that a generic will help me. SomeComponent comp = entity.GetComponent<SomeComponent>(); Amazing how that works. Anyway, this is still only a semantic improvement. My questions remain. Is this actually that bad? What's a better alternative?

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  • How do I determine whether calculation was completed, or detect interrupted calculation?

    - by BenTobin
    I have a rather large workbook that takes a really long time to calculate. It used to be quite a challenge to get it to calculate all the way, since Excel is so eager to silently abort calculation if you so much as look at it. To help alleviate the problem, I created some VBA code to initiate the the calculation, which is initiated by a form, and the result is that it is not quite as easy to interrupt the calculation process, but it is still possible. (I can easily do this by clicking the close X on the form, but I imagine there are other ways) Rather than taking more steps to try and make it harder to interrupt calculation, I'd like to have the code detect whether calculation is complete, so it can notify the user rather than just blindly forging on into the rest of the steps in my code. So far, I can't find any way to do that. I've seen references to Application.CalculationState, but the value is xlDone after I interrupt calculation, even if I interrupt the calculation after a few seconds (it normally takes around an hour). I can't think of a way to do this by checking the value of cells, since I don't know which one is calculated last. I see that there is a way to mark cells as "dirty" but I haven't been able to find a way to check the dirtiness of a cell. And I don't know if that's even the right path to take, since I'd likely have to check every cell in every sheet. The act of interrupting calculation does not raise an error, so my ON ERROR doesn't get triggered. Is there anything I'm missing? Any ideas? Any ideas?

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  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

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  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

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  • Item in multiple lists

    - by Evan Teran
    So I have some legacy code which I would love to use more modern techniques. But I fear that given the way that things are designed, it is a non-option. The core issue is that often a node is in more than one list at a time. Something like this: struct T { T *next_1; T *prev_1; T *next_2; T *prev_2; int value; }; this allows the core have a single object of type T be allocated and inserted into 2 doubly linked lists, nice and efficient. Obviously I could just have 2 std::list<T*>'s and just insert the object into both...but there is one thing which would be way less efficient...removal. Often the code needs to "destroy" an object of type T and this includes removing the element from all lists. This is nice because given a T* the code can remove that object from all lists it exists in. With something like a std::list I would need to search for the object to get an iterator, then remove that (I can't just pass around an iterator because it is in several lists). Is there a nice c++-ish solution to this, or is the manually rolled way the best way? I have a feeling the manually rolled way is the answer, but I figured I'd ask.

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  • WPF Event Handler in Another Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have built a series of event handlers for some custom WPF controls. The event handles format the text displayed when the user enters or leaves a textbox based on the type of data contained (Phone number, zip code, monetary value, etc.) Right now I have all of the events locally in the C# code directly attached to the xaml. Because I have developed a could controls, this means that the logic is repeated a lot, and if I want to change the program-wide functionality I would have to make changes everywhere the event code is located. I am sure there is a way to put all of my event handlers in a single class. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction? I saw this article: Event Handler located in different class than MainWindow But I'm not sure if it directly relates to what I'm doing. I would rather make small changes to the existing logic that I have, as it works, then rewrite everything into commands. I would essentially like to something like this if possible: LostFocus="ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBox_LostFocus" It is easy enough to do something like this: private void TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(sender, e); } private void TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(sender, e); } But that is less elegant.

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  • how to execute any function in jquery after few seconds on the click of any link

    - by james Bond
    I have struts2 jquery grid where on click of a row I am calling a jQuery function for performating a struts2 action. My code is running fine. I want to perform my jQuery function after delay of a few seconds. How can I do this? <script type="text/javascript"> //assume this code is working fine on rowselect from my jquery grid, New Updation in it is "i want to execute or load the url after few seconds" $(function(){ $.subscribe('rowselect', function(event,data) { var param = (event.originalEvent.id); $("#myAdvanceDivBoxx").load('<s:url action='InsertbooksToSession' namespace='/admin/setups/secure/jspHomepage/bookstransaction'/>'+"?bid="+event.originalEvent.id); }); }); </script> What i tried is the below code but am unable to get the output which i am looking for: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $.subscribe('rowselect', function(event,data) { var param = (event.originalEvent.id); $("#myAdvanceDivBoxx").load('<s:url action='InsertbooksToSession' namespace='/admin/setups/secure/jspHomepage/bookstransaction'/>'+"?bid="+event.originalEvent.id); }).delay(9000); }); </script>

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  • HTML input not working correctly with AJAX update panels used else where on page

    - by Sean P
    I have some update panels on my page that do some asyncpostbacks to keep some dropdownlists correctly populated. My problem is that on my page i have an HTML input that is handling some file uploads. With the AJAX on the page with asyncpostbacks, and while i step through my code behind, the files arent being uploaded. Using a postbacktrigger (non-async) is not possible because of my layout. Here is my code: <div id="divFileInputs" runat="server"> <input id="file1" name="fileInput" type="file" runat="server" size="50" style="width: 50em" onfocus="AddFileInput()" class="textbox" /></div> <select id="selectFileList" name="ListBox1" size="5" style="width: 50em; text-align: left;" class="textbox" /> <input id="RemoveAttachmentButton" type="button" value="Remove" onclick="RemoveFileInput()" class="removebutton " /> </div> Here is my code behind: Protected Sub CopyAttachments(ByVal issueId As String) Dim files As HttpFileCollection = Request.Files Dim myStream As System.IO.Stream Dim service As New SubmitService.Service For i As Integer = 0 To files.Count - 1 Dim postedFile As HttpPostedFile = files(i) Dim fileNameWithoutPath As String = System.IO.Path.GetFileName(postedFile.FileName) If fileNameWithoutPath.Length > 0 And issueId.Length > 0 Then Dim fileLength As Integer = postedFile.ContentLength Dim fileContents(fileLength) As Byte ' Read the file into the byte array. Send it to the web service. myStream = postedFile.InputStream myStream.Read(fileContents, 0, fileLength) service.ClearQuestAttachToIssue(issueId, fileNameWithoutPath, fileContents) End If Next service = Nothing End Sub When I put a breakpoint in at the declaration of service and then check the value of "files", the count is 0. I am expecting it to be 2 when i have one file uploaded. Anyone know how to fix this?

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  • SSE (SIMD extensions) support in gcc

    - by goldenmean
    Hi, I see a code as below: include "stdio.h" #define VECTOR_SIZE 4 typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); // vector of four single floats typedef union f4vector { v4sf v; float f[VECTOR_SIZE]; } f4vector; void print_vector (f4vector *v) { printf("%f,%f,%f,%f\n", v->f[0], v->f[1], v->f[2], v->f[3]); } int main() { union f4vector a, b, c; a.v = (v4sf){1.2, 2.3, 3.4, 4.5}; b.v = (v4sf){5., 6., 7., 8.}; c.v = a.v + b.v; print_vector(&a); print_vector(&b); print_vector(&c); } This code builds fine and works expectedly using gcc (it's inbuild SSE / MMX extensions and vector data types. this code is doing a SIMD vector addition using 4 single floats. I want to understand in detail what does each keyword/function call on this typedef line means and does: typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); What is the vector_size() function return; What is the __attribute__ keyword for Here is the float data type being type defined to vfsf type? I understand the rest part. thanks, -AD

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  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

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  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

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  • How can I change jtable height at runtime

    - by wniroshan
    I hava a JFrame with multiple JPanels of similar width aligned one below other. I use one of these JPanels to display a JTable which is the last JPanel of the lot. This JPanel has a JScrollpane as a child component. This is where I try to add my table dynamically. Initial height of this JScrollpane is set to 40. I designed above template using Netbeans 6.8 Now I'm trying to add the table to the JPanel. When a button is pressed below code snippet is called. The class which includes this code extends javax.swing.JFrame class. I am expecting below code would adjust table height according to the row count and display the table. SearchTable = new JTable(RowData, DisplayNames) { @Override public boolean isCellEditable(int rowIndex, int vColIndex) { return false; } }; // if row count is less than 10 then display all the rows without a scroll bar if (SearchTable.getRowCount() < 10) { pnl_tblpanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (SearchTable.getRowCount() + 4))); scr_tblholder.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (SearchTable.getRowCount() + 4))); } else {// if row count is more than 10 display first 10 rows and add a scroll bar pnl_tblpanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (10 + 2))); scr_tblholder.setAutoscrolls(true); } //pnl_tblpanel.add(scr_tblholder); scr_tblholder.setViewportView(SearchTable); //pnl_tblpanel.repaint(); pnl_tblpanel.validate(); this.validate(); //this.repaint(); pnl_tblpanel.setVisible(true); this.pack(); The table displays, but the table height is not changed according to the row count. It stays its default value. I have been trying many combinations of validate and repaint but nothing worked. (More in desperation) Can anyone shed some light on this Thank you

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  • How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

    - by John Canady
    I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

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  • FormsAuthentication authCookie is null only for some users

    - by mbalkema
    I am experiencing a strange problem with asp.net forms authentication. This problem only occurs for 3 users out of 30+ users that have successfully logged in. I am using very basic auth code that I have used many times and have never seen this problem. After the users successfully authenticates and the auth cookie is created, cookie added, and response.redirect to FormsAuthentication.GetRedirect(userid, false) is called. The Application_AuthenticateRequest method in Global.asax is hit. // Extract the forms authentication cookie string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[cookieName]; if (null == authCookie) { // There is no authentication cookie. return; } So immediately after a "good" cookie is saved and the redirect occurs the cookie is null. I have run the code through the debugger and the cookie is only null on these 3 users. But the cookie looks the same as the cookie for the many users that login successfully. Any ideas? This is standard code that should just work.

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