Search Results

Search found 25391 results on 1016 pages for 'update notification'.

Page 858/1016 | < Previous Page | 854 855 856 857 858 859 860 861 862 863 864 865  | Next Page >

• Upload An Excel File in Classic ASP On Windows 2003 x64 Using Office 2010 Drivers

  - by alphadogg

  So, we are migrating an old web app from a 32-bit server to a newer 64-bit server. The app is basically a Classic ASP app. The pool is set to run in 64-bit and cannot be set to 32-bit due to other components. However, this breaks the old usage of Jet drivers and subsequent parsing of Excel files. After some research, I downloaded the 64-bit version of the new 2010 Office System Driver Beta and installed it. Presumably, this allows one to open and read Excel and CSV files. Here's the snippet of code that errors out. Think I followed the lean guidelines on the download page: Set con = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") con.ConnectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.14.0;Data Source=" & strPath & ";Extended Properties=""Excel 14.0;""" con.Open Any ideas why? UPDATE: My apologies. I did forget the important part, the error message: ADODB.Connection error '800a0e7a' Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed. /vendor/importZipList2.asp, line 56 I have installed, and uninstalled/reinstalled twice.

  Read the article

• jQuery Accordion + OL + IE6 bug

  - by DA

  Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue.

  Read the article

• How do I simulate the usage of a sequence of web pages?

  - by Rory Becker

  I have a simple sequence of web pages written in ASP.Net 3.5 SP1. Page1 - A Logon Form.... txtUsername, txtPassword and cmdLogon Page2 - A Menu (created using DevExpress ASP.Net controls) Page3 - The page redirected to by the server in the event that the user picks the right menu option in Page2 I would like to create a threaded program to simulate many users trying to use this sequence of pages. I have managed to create a host Winforms app which Launches a new thread for each "User" I have further managed to work out the basics of WebRequest enough to perform a request which retrieves the Logon page itself. Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create("http://MyURL/Logon.aspx"), HttpWebRequest) Dim Response As HttpWebResponse = TryCast(Request.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim ResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.GetEncoding(1252)) Dim HTMLResponse As String = ResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Response.Close() ResponseStream.Close() Next I need to simulate the user having entered information into the 2 TextBoxes and pressing logon.... I have a hunch this requires me to add the right sort of "PostData" to the request. before submitting. However I'm also concerned that "ViewState" may be an issue. Am I correct regarding the PostData? How do I add the postData to the request? Do I need to be concerned about Viewstate? Update: While I appreciate that Selenium or similar products are useful for acceptance testing , I find that they are rather clumsy for what amounts to load testing. I would prefer not to load 100 instances of Firefox or IE in order to simulate 100 users hitting my site. This was the reason I was hoping to take the ASPNet HttpWebRequest route.

  Read the article

• What is the best way to iterate over a large result set in JDBC/iBatis 3?

  - by paul_sns

  We're trying to iterate over a large number of rows from the database and convert those into objects. Behavior will be as follows: Result will be sorted by sequence id, a new object will be created when sequence id changes. The object created will be sent to an external service and will sometimes have to wait before sending another one (which means the next set of data will not be immediately used) We already have invested code in iBatis 3 so an iBatis solution will be the best approach for us (we've tried using RowBounds but haven't seen how it does the iteration under the hood). We'd like to balance minimizing memory usage and reducing number of DB trips. We're also open to pure JDBC approach but we'd like the solution to work on different databases. UPDATE: We need to make as few calls to DB as possible (1 call would be the ideal scenario) while also preventing the application to use too much memory. Are there any other solutions out there for this type of problem may it be pure JDBC or any other technology? Thanks and hope to hear your insights on this.

  Read the article

• using LocalAsyncVclCall in Delphi

  - by Salvador

  Actually i am using the AsyncCalls library to execute an Query asynchronously in this way. while AsyncMultiSync([RunQuery], True, 10) = WAIT_TIMEOUT do begin FrmProgress.refresh; //Update the ellapsed time in a popup form Application.ProcessMessages; end; and everything works ok. Now i want to do the same for load the query in a grid. so i tried this while LocalAsyncVclCall(@InitGrid, 10) = WAIT_TIMEOUT do begin FrmProgress.refresh; Application.ProcessMessages; end; but obviously not compile because the type returned by LocalAsyncVclCall is IAsyncCall and not a Cardinal. also i tried this, but not works. while not LocalAsyncVclCall(@InitGrid, 10).Finished do begin FrmProgress.refresh; Application.ProcessMessages; end; How i can use LocalAsyncVclCall or another function to execute an VCL code asynchronously . i want something like this. while ExecuteMyVCLProcedure(@InitGrid) = WAIT_TIMEOUT do begin FrmProgress.refresh; Application.ProcessMessages; end; Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Entity Framework - refresh objects from database

  - by Nebo

  I'm having trouble with refreshing objects in my database. I have an two PC's and two applications. On the first PC, there's an application which communicates with my database and adds some data to Measurements table. On my other PC, there's an application which retrives the latest Measurement under a timer, so it should retrive measurements added by the application on my first PC too. The problem is it doesn't. On my application start, it caches all the data from database and never get new data added. I use Refresh() method which works well when I change any of the cached data, but it doesn't refresh newly added data. Here is my method which should update the data: public static Entities myEntities = new Entities(); public static Measurement GetLastMeasurement(int conditionId) { myEntities.Refresh(RefreshMode.StoreWins, myEntities.Measurements); return (from measurement in myEntities.Measurements where measurement.ConditionId == conditionId select measurement).OrderByDescending(cd => cd.Timestamp).First(); } P.S. Applications have different connection strings in app.config (different accounts for the same DB).

  Read the article

• git doesn't show where code was removed.

  - by Andrew Myers

  So I was tasked at replacing some dummy code that our project requires for historical compatibility reasons but has mysteriously dropped out sometime since the last release. Since disappearing code makes me nervous about what else might have gone missing but un-noticed I've been digging through the logs trying to find in what commit this handful of lines was removed. I've tried a number of things including "git log -S'add-visit-resource-pcf'", git blame, and even git bisect with a script that simply checks for the existence of the line but have been unable to pinpoint exactly where these lines were removed. I find this very perplexing, particularly since the last log entry (obtained by the above command) before my re-introduction of this code was someone else adding the code as well. commit 0b0556fa87ff80d0ffcc2b451cca1581289bbc3c Author: Andrew Date: Thu May 13 10:55:32 2010 -0400 Re-introduced add-visit-resource-pcf, see PR-65034. diff --git a/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp b/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp index f8e692d..a6f8d38 100644 --- a/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp +++ b/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp @@ -115,6 +115,7 @@ #:add-to-current-resource-pcf #:add-user-package-nickname #:add-value-criteria + #:add-visit-resource-pcf #:add-window-to-gs-params #:adjust-derived-resources #:adjust-links-candidate-criteria-types commit 9fb10e25572c537076284a248be1fbf757c1a6e1 Author: Bob Date: Sun Jan 17 18:35:16 2010 -0500 update-defpackage for Spike 33.1 Delivery diff --git a/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp b/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp index 983666d..47f1a9a 100644 --- a/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp +++ b/spike/hst/scheduler/defpackage.lisp @@ -118,6 +118,7 @@ #:add-user-package-nickname #:add-value-criteria #:add-vars-from-proposal + #:add-visit-resource-pcf #:add-window-to-gs-params #:adjust-derived-resources #:adjust-links-candidate-criteria-types This is for one of our package definition files, but the relevant source file reflects something similar. Does anyone know what could be going on here and how I could find the information I want? It's not really that important but this kind of things makes me a bit nervous.

  Read the article

• How to restrain one's self from the overwhelming urge to rewrite everything?

  - by Scott Saad

  Setup Have you ever had the experience of going into a piece of code to make a seemingly simple change and then realizing that you've just stepped into a wasteland that deserves some serious attention? This usually gets followed up with an official FREAK OUT moment, where the overwhelming feeling of rewriting everything in sight starts to creep up. It's important to note that this bad code does not necessarily come from others as it may indeed be something we've written or contributed to in the past. Problem It's obvious that there is some serious code rot, horrible architecture, etc. that needs to be dealt with. The real problem, as it relates to this question, is that it's not the right time to rewrite the code. There could be many reasons for this: Currently in the middle of a release cycle, therefore any changes should be minimal. It's 2:00 AM in the morning, and the brain is starting to shut down. It could have seemingly adverse affects on the schedule. The rabbit hole could go much deeper than our eyes are able to see at this time. etc... Question So how should we balance the duty of continuously improving the code, while also being a responsible developer? How do we refrain from contributing to the broken window theory, while also being aware of actions and the potential recklessness they may cause? Update Great answers! For the most part, there seems to be two schools of thought: Don't resist the urge as it's a good one to have. Don't give in to the temptation as it will burn you to the ground. It would be interesting to know if more people feel any balance exists.

  Read the article

• moving a sprite causes jerky movement

  - by mac_55

  I've got some jerky movement of my sprite. Basically, when the user touches a point on the screen, the sprite should move to that point. This is working mostly fine... it's even taking into account a delta - because frame rate may not be consistant. However, I notice that the y movement usually finishes before the x movement (even when the distances to travel are the same), so it appears like the sprite is moving in an 'L' shape rather than a smooth diagonal line. Vertical and horizontal velocity (vx, vy) are both set to 300. Any ideas what's wrong? How can I go about getting my sprite to move in a smooth diagonal line? - (void)update:(ccTime)dt { int x = self.position.x; int y = self.position.y; //if ball is to the left of target point if (x<targetx) { //if movement of the ball won't take it to it's target position if (x+(vx *dt) < targetx) { x += vx * dt; } else { x = targetx; } } else if (x>targetx) //same with x being too far to the right { if (x-(vx *dt) > targetx) { x -= vx * dt; } else { x = targetx; } } if (y<targety) { if (y+(vy*dt)<targety) { y += vy * dt; } else { y = targety; } } else if (y>targety) { if (y-(vy*dt)>targety) { y -= vy * dt; } else { y = targety; } } self.position = ccp(x,y); }

  Read the article

• embedded SWF isn't shown (SWFLoader)

  - by Trantec

  I embed a swf as ByteArray and load it at runtime with the SWFLoader. Here is the internal swf that I want to load: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Label id="rLabel" text="From InternalSWF"/> </mx:Application> The embeding swf loads it with the following code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" applicationComplete="main();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.managers.SystemManager; import mx.events.FlexEvent; [Embed(source="../../InternalSWF/bin-release/InternalSWF.swf", mimeType="application/octet-stream")] mimeType="application/octet-stream")] private const internalSWF:Class; public function main(): void { var binary:ByteArray = new internalSWF() as ByteArray; // setup swfloader rSwfLoader.trustContent = true; rSwfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, onSWFLoaded ); rSwfLoader.load(binary); } public function onSWFLoaded( event:Event ): void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Box> <mx:SWFLoader id="rSwfLoader" height="100%" width="100%" scaleContent="true"/> <mx:Text id="rText" text="from EmbedingSWF"/> </mx:Box> The label "from EmbedingSWF" is shown on both, local and on the webserver. But the label with "From InternalSWF" isn't shown on the webserver, just on the local machine. With some tests I found out that the internal swf is loaded correctly, because it's later added applicationComplete-Function is called. Is this a bug in Adobe-Flash-Player or am I missunderstanding something ? Update: Internet Explorer is fine. Firefox and Chrome not...

  Read the article

• Ruby and duck typing: design by contract impossible?

  - by davetron5000

  Method signature in Java: public List<String> getFilesIn(List<File> directories) similar one in ruby def get_files_in(directories) In the case of Java, the type system gives me information about what the method expects and delivers. In Ruby's case, I have no clue what I'm supposed to pass in, or what I'll expect to receive. In Java, the object must formally implement the interface. In Ruby, the object being passed in must respond to whatever methods are called in the method defined here. This seems highly problematic: Even with 100% accurate, up-to-date documentation, the Ruby code has to essentially expose its implementation, breaking encapsulation. "OO purity" aside, this would seem to be a maintenance nightmare. The Ruby code gives me no clue what's being returned; I would have to essentially experiment, or read the code to find out what methods the returned object would respond to. Not looking to debate static typing vs duck typing, but looking to understand how you maintain a production system where you have almost no ability to design by contract. Update No one has really addressed the exposure of a method's internal implementation via documentation that this approach requires. Since there are no interfaces, if I'm not expecting a particular type, don't I have to itemize every method I might call so that the caller knows what can be passed in? Or is this just an edge case that doesn't really come up?

  Read the article

• Compiled Haskell libraries with FFI imports are invalid when imported into GHCI

  - by John Millikin

  I am using GHC 6.12.1, in Ubuntu 10.04 When I try to use the FFI syntax for static storage, only modules running in interpreted mode (ie GHCI) work properly. Compiled modules have invalid pointers, and do not work. I'd like to know whether anybody can reproduce the problem, whether this an error in my code or GHC, and (if the latter) whether it's a known issue. I'm using sys_siglist because it's present in a standard library on my system, but I don't believe the actual storage used matters (I discovered this while writing a binding to libidn). If it helps, sys_siglist is defined in <signal.h> as: extern __const char *__const sys_siglist[_NSIG]; I thought this type might be the problem, so I also tried wrapping it in a plain C procedure: #include<stdio.h> const char **test_ffi_import() { printf("C think sys_siglist = %X\n", sys_siglist); return sys_siglist; } However, importing that doesn't change the result, and the printf() call prints the same pointer value as show siglist_a. My suspicion is that it's something to do with static and dynamic library loading. Update: somebody in #haskell suggested this might be 64-bit specific; if anybody tries to reproduce it, can you mention your architecture and whether it worked in a comment? Code as follows: -- A.hs {-# LANGUAGE ForeignFunctionInterface #-} module A where import Foreign import Foreign.C foreign import ccall "&sys_siglist" siglist_a :: Ptr CString -- -- B.hs {-# LANGUAGE ForeignFunctionInterface #-} module B where import Foreign import Foreign.C foreign import ccall "&sys_siglist" siglist_b :: Ptr CString -- -- Main.hs {-# LANGUAGE ForeignFunctionInterface #-} module Main where import Foreign import Foreign.C import A import B foreign import ccall "&sys_siglist" siglist_main :: Ptr CString main = do putStrLn $ "siglist_a = " ++ show siglist_a putStrLn $ "siglist_b = " ++ show siglist_b putStrLn $ "siglist_main = " ++ show siglist_main peekSiglist "a " siglist_a peekSiglist "b " siglist_b peekSiglist "main" siglist_main peekSiglist name siglist = do ptr <- peekElemOff siglist 2 str <- maybePeek peekCString ptr putStrLn $ "siglist_" ++ name ++ "[2] = " ++ show str I would expect something like this output, where all pointer values identical and valid: $ runhaskell Main.hs siglist_a = 0x00007f53a948fe00 siglist_b = 0x00007f53a948fe00 siglist_main = 0x00007f53a948fe00 siglist_a [2] = Just "Interrupt" siglist_b [2] = Just "Interrupt" siglist_main[2] = Just "Interrupt" However, if I compile A.hs (with ghc -c A.hs), then the output changes to: $ runhaskell Main.hs siglist_a = 0x0000000040378918 siglist_b = 0x00007fe7c029ce00 siglist_main = 0x00007fe7c029ce00 siglist_a [2] = Nothing siglist_b [2] = Just "Interrupt" siglist_main[2] = Just "Interrupt"

  Read the article

• Is there a good way to QuickCheck Happstack.State methods?

  - by Paul Kuliniewicz

  I have a set of Happstack.State MACID methods that I want to test using QuickCheck, but I'm having trouble figuring out the most elegant way to accomplish that. The problems I'm running into are: The only way to evaluate an Ev monad computation is in the IO monad via query or update. There's no way to create a purely in-memory MACID store; this is by design. Therefore, running things in the IO monad means there are temporary files to clean up after each test. There's no way to initialize a new MACID store except with the initialValue for the state; it can't be generated via Arbitrary unless I expose an access method that replaces the state wholesale. Working around all of the above means writing methods that only use features of MonadReader or MonadState (and running the test inside Reader or State instead of Ev. This means forgoing the use of getRandom or getEventClockTime and the like inside the method definitions. The only options I can see are: Run the methods in a throw-away on-disk MACID store, cleaning up after each test and settling for starting from initialValue each time. Write the methods to have most of the code run in a MonadReader or MonadState (which is more easily testable), and rely on a small amount of non-QuickCheck-able glue around it that calls getRandom or getEventClockTime as necessary. Is there a better solution that I'm overlooking?

  Read the article

• Reference 3.5 assembly from 4.0 winforms phail

  - by Dean Lunz

  So I have this utility library that is compiled as a dll under .net 3.5 and it is used by my asp.net 3.5 website. I created a .net 4.0 winforms app to push data onto the website. I want to make use of the functionality in the utilities library from this winforms app. The problem lies in that when I make reference to the utilities library and use the code in it intellisense barks at me saying that it can't find the objects in that library. The thing is I would switch the winforms app to 3.5 which fixes the problem, but I am using Tasks which require 4.0. And because my website and utilities library both run 3.5 and my website is hosted at godaddy that currently only supports asp.net 3.5 so compiling my utilities library under 4.0 for my winforms app is not going to work because it breaks my website. I have tried the app.config trick ala useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true" ... But that did not help. Obviously I could start a new utilities project for 4.0 and and copy the code files from the existing utilities library then reference the new 4.0 utilities library in my winforms app but, that strikes me as being rather overkill when all I want to do is reference the library and use it's functionality. Not to mention that I would have two utility libraries both containing the exact same code, and if I update the code in one I will need to make sure that the other is also updated. I could use add file as link, but you get the idea. So is there anything else I could try or any other way to solve or get around this? Or am I just going to have to break down and create a identical clone of the utilities library for 4.0.

  Read the article

• DB2 Child Table Not Working - Create Table

  - by gamerzfuse

  I have a bit of a task before me. (DB2 Database) I need to create a table that will be a child table (is that what it is called in SQL?) I need it so that it has a foreign key constraint with my other table, so when the parent table is modified (record deleted) the child table also loses that record. Once I have the table, I also need to populate it with the data from the other table (if there is an easy way to UPDATE this). If you could point me in the right direction, this would help alot, as I do not even know what syntax to look for. Thanks in advance The table I have in place: create table titleauthors ( au_id char(11), title_id char(6), au_ord integer, royaltyshare decimal(5,2)); The table I am creating: create table titles ( title_id char(6), title varchar(80), type varchar(12), pub_id char(4), price decimal(9,2), advance decimal(9,2), ytd_sales integer, contract integer, notes varchar(200), pubdate date); I need the title_id to be matched with the title_id from the parent table AND use the ON DELETE CASCADE syntax to delete when that table is deleted from. My Attempt: CREATE TABLE BookTitles ( title_id char(6) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT BookTitles_title_id_pk REFERENCES titleauthors(title_id) ON DELETE CASCADE, title varchar(80) NOT NULL, type varchar(12), pub_id char(4), price decimal(9,2), advance decimal(9,2), ytd_sales integer, contract integer, notes varchar(200), pubdate date) ; Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Looping through recordset with VBA

  - by Robert

  I am trying to assign salespeople (rsSalespeople) to customers (rsCustomers) in a round-robin fashion in the following manner: Navigate to first Customer, assign the first SalesPerson to the Customer. Move to Next Customer. If rsSalesPersons is not at EOF, move to Next SalesPerson; if rsSalesPersons is at EOF, MoveFirst to loop back to the first SalesPerson. Assign this (current) SalesPerson to the (current) Customer. Repeat step 2 until rsCustomers is at EOF (EOF = True, i.e. End-Of-Recordset). It's been awhile since I dealt with VBA, so I'm a bit rusty, but here is what I have come up with, so far: Private Sub Command31_Click() 'On Error GoTo ErrHandler Dim intCustomer As Integer Dim intSalesperson As Integer Dim rsCustomers As DAO.Recordset Dim rsSalespeople As DAO.Recordset Dim strSQL As String strSQL = "SELECT CustomerID, SalespersonID FROM Customers WHERE SalespersonID Is Null" Set rsCustomers = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset(strSQL) strSQL = "SELECT SalespersonID FROM Salespeople" Set rsSalespeople = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset(strSQL) rsCustomers.MoveFirst rsSalespeople.MoveFirst Do While Not rsCustomers.EOF intCustomers = rsCustomers!CustomerID intSalesperson = rsSalespeople!SalespersonID strSQL = "UPDATE Customers SET SalespersonID = " & intSalesperson & " WHERE CustomerID = " & intCustomer DoCmd.RunSQL (strSQL) rsCustomers.MoveNext If Not rsSalespeople.EOF Then rsSalespeople.MoveNext Else rsSalespeople.MoveFirst End If Loop ExitHandler: Set rsCustomers = Nothing Set rsSalespeople = Nothing Exit Sub ErrHandler: MsgBox (Err.Description) Resume ExitHandler End Sub My tables are defined like so: Customers --CustomerID --Name --SalespersonID Salespeople --SalespersonID --Name With ten customers and 5 salespeople, my intended result would like like: CustomerID--Name--SalespersonID 1---A---1 2---B---2 3---C---3 4---D---4 5---E---5 6---F---1 7---G---2 8---H---3 9---I---4 10---J---5 The above code works for the intitial loop through the Salespeople recordset, but errors out when the end of the recordset is found. Regardless of the EOF, it appears it still tries to execute the rsSalespeople.MoveFirst command. Am I not checking for the rsSalespeople.EOF properly? Any ideas to get this code to work?

  Read the article

• How to get TinyMCE and Jquery validate to work together?

  - by chobo2

  Hi I am using jquery validate and the jquery version of tinymce. I found this piece of code that makes tinymce to validate itself every time something changes in it. Hi I am using the jquery validate with my jquery tinymce so I have this in my code // update validation status on change onchange_callback: function (editor) { tinyMCE.triggerSave(); $("#" + editor.id).valid(); }, This works however there is one problem. If a user copies something from word it brings all that junk styling with it what is usually over 50,000 characters. This is way over my amount of characters a user is allowed to type in. So my jquery validation method goes off telling me that they went over the limit. In the mean time though tinymce has cleaned up that mess and it could be possible now the user has not gone over the limit. Yet the message is still there. So is there a better function call I can put this in? Maybe tell tinymce to delay the valid when a paste is happening, or maybe a different callback? Anyone got any ideas?

  Read the article

• Important question about linq to SQL performance on high loaded web applications

  - by Alex

  I started working with linq to SQL several weeks ago. I got really tired of working with SQL server directly through the SQL queries (sqldatareader, sqlcommand and all this good stuff).  After hearing about linq to SQL and mvc I quickly moved all my projects to these technologies. I expected linq to SQL work slower but it suprisongly turned out to be pretty fast, primarily because I always forgot to close my connections when using datareaders. Now I don't have to worry about it. But there's one problem that really bothers me. There's one page that's requested thousands of times a day. The system gets data in the beginning, works with it and updates it. Primarily the updates are ++ @ -- (increase and decrease values). I used to do it like this UPDATE table SET value=value+1 WHERE ID=@I'd It worked with no problems obviously. But with linq to SQL the data is taken in the beginning, moved to the class, changed and then saved. Stats.registeredusers++; Db.submitchanges(); Let's say there were 100 000 users. Linq will say "let it be 100 001" instead of "let it be increased by 1". But if there value of users has already been increased (that happens in my site all the time) then linq will be like oops, this value is already 100 001. Whatever I'll throw an exception" You can change this behavior so that it won't throw an exception but it still will not set the value to 100 002. Like I said, it happened with me all the time. The stas value was increased twice a second on average. I simply had to rewrite this chunk of code with classic ado net. So my question is how can you solve the problem with linq

  Read the article

• At what line in the following code should I be commiting my UnitOfWork ?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I have the following code which is in a transaction. I'm not sure where/when i should be commiting my unit of work. If someone knows where, can they please explain WHY they have said, where? (i'm trying to understand the pattern through example(s), as opposed to just getting my code to work). Here's what i've got :- using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, new TransactionOptions { IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadUncommitted })) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #1 ? // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #2 ? } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #3 ? } _unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #4 ? transactionScope.Complete(); } Cheers :)

  Read the article

• Android - I can't make a widget clickable to launch an intent

  - by Daniele

  Hi all. I am new to Android development. I have developed a very simple widget that was meant to interact with the user via an ImageButton. What I am trying to do now is as follows. When a user taps the button (after adding the widget to their home screen), I want the phone to dial a certain telephone number. A sort of speed dial for your home screen. Unfortunately when I tap the button nothing happens. This is the body of my SpeedDialAppWidgetProvider.onUpdate method: Log.d("", "beginning of onUpdate"); final int N = appWidgetIds.length; for (int i=0; i<N; i++) { int appWidgetId = appWidgetIds[i]; Log.d("", "dealing with appWidgetId: " + appWidgetId); // Create an Intent to launch ExampleActivity Intent dialIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_CALL, Uri.parse("tel:1234567")); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, dialIntent, 0); Log.d("", "pendingIntent classname " + pendingIntent.getClass().getName()); // Get the layout for the App Widget and attach an on-click listener to the button RemoteViews remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.speed_dial_appwidget); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.dial_icon, pendingIntent); Log.d("", "remoteViews classname " + remoteViews.getClass().getName()); // Tell the AppWidgetManager to perform an update on the current App Widget appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(appWidgetId, remoteViews); Log.d("", "end of onUpdate"); I can see the method is called and the result of the logging makes sense. The speed_dial_appwidget.xml file is like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" androidrientation="vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <ImageButton id="@+id/dial_icon" android:src="@drawable/speed_dial" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> </LinearLayout> Can you please help me with this? Thanks in advance, Dan

  Read the article

• Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

  - by Ryan Nichols

  I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

  Read the article

• Bi-directional view model syncing with "live" collections and properties (MVVM)

  - by Schneider

  I am getting my knickers in a twist recently about View Models (VM). Just like this guy I have come to the conclusion that the collections I need to expose on my VM typically contain a different type to the collections exposed on my business objects. Hence there must be a bi-directional mapping or transformation between these two types. (Just to complicate things, on my project this data is "Live" such that as soon as you change a property it gets transmitted to other computers) I can just about cope with that concept, using a framework like Truss, although I suspect there will be a nasty surprise somewhere within. Not only must objects be transformed but a synchronization between these two collections is required. (Just to complicate things I can think of cases where the VM collection might be a subset or union of business object collections, not simply a 1:1 synchronization). I can see how to do a one-way "live" sync, using a replicating ObservableCollection or something like CLINQ. The problem then becomes: What is the best way to create/delete items? Bi-directinal sync does not seem to be on the cards - I have found no such examples, and the only class that supports anything remotely like that is the ListCollectionView. Would bi-directional sync even be a sensible way to add back into the business object collection? All the samples I have seen never seem to tackle anything this "complex". So my question is: How do you solve this? Is there some technique to update the model collections from the VM? What is the best general approach to this?

  Read the article

• add row to a BindingSource gives different autoincrement value from whats saved into DB

  - by Ruben Trancoso

  I have a DataGridView that shows list of records and when I hit a insert button, a form should add a new record, edit its values and save it. I have a BindingSource bound to a DataGridView. I pass is as a parameter to a NEW RECORD form so // When the form opens it add a new row and de DataGridView display this new record at this time DataRowView currentRow; currentRow = (DataRowView) myBindindSource.AddNew(); when user confirm to save it I do a myBindindSource.EndEdit(); // inside the form and after the form is disposed the new row is saved and the bindingsorce position is updated to the new row DataRowView drv = myForm.CurrentRow; avaliadoTableAdapter.Update(drv.Row); avaliadoBindingSource.Position = avaliadoBindingSource.Find("ID", drv.Row.ItemArray[0]); The problem is that this table has a AUTOINCREMENT field and the value saved may not correspond the the value the bindingSource gives in EDIT TIME. So, when I close and open the DataGridView again the new rowd give its ID based on the available slot in the undelying DB at the momment is was saved and it just ignores the value the BindingSource generated ad EDIT TIME, Since the value given by the binding source should be used by another table as a foreingKey it make the reference insconsistent. There's a way to get the real ID was saved to the database?

  Read the article

• Classic ASP - Email form with attached file - please help

  - by apg1985

  Hi Guys, Ive got abit of a problem ive got an email web form that send the input to an email address but what I now need is a file input field were the user can also send an image as an attachment. So contact name, logo (attachment). Ive been told in order to send the attachment it needs to be saved in a folder on my hosting before it can be sent. Ive spoken to the hosting company and they dont have anything in place to make this easier such as aspupload. In the form name="contactname" and name="logo" I have a folder in the root directory called logos (this asp page also exists in the root directory) Man I hope someone can help me spent along time looking for answers Dim contactname, logo contactname = request.form("contactname") If request("contactname") <> "" THEN Set myMail=CreateObject("CDO.Message") myMail.Subject="Form" myMail.From="web@email" myMail.To="web@email" myMail.HTMLBody = "" & contactname & "" myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/sendusing") = 2 myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserver") = "relay.host" myMail.Configuration.Fields.Item("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserverport") = 25 myMail.Configuration.Fields.Update myMail.Send set myMail=nothing

  Read the article

• Javascript callback not firing when AJAX operation complete

  - by MisterJames

  Given the following code on an ASP.NET MVC View: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("AddCommunity", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "community-list", OnSuccess = "BindCommunityHover" })) { %> Add Community: <input type="text" id="communityName" name="communityName" /> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <% } %> And the following JavaScript method in the file: function BindCommunityHover() { $(".community-item-li").hover( function () { $(this).addClass("communityHover"); }, function () { $(this).removeClass("communityHover"); } ); }; Is there any reason why BindCommunityHover is not being called when the AJAX result comes back? The community-list div is properly updated (the action returns a partial view). I have also tried setting OnComplete (instead of OnSuccess) to no avail. The BindCommunityHover method is called in a $(function(){...}); block when the page first loads, and for all existing .community-item-li elements, it works. The partial result from my controller replaces all items in that div with more of the same class. The OnSuccess method is supposed to fire after the document is updated. Update: k...this gets weird. I added the following to the BindCommunityHover method: alert($(".community-item-li").size()); I'm getting 240 in the alert when the page loads and when the callback fires. So, the callback IS firing, jQuery is matching the elements but not applying the styles...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 854 855 856 857 858 859 860 861 862 863 864 865  | Next Page >