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  • Parsing XML in Javascript getElementsByTagName not working

    - by Probocop
    Hi, I am trying to parse the following XML with javascript: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <ResultSet> <Result> <URL>www.asd.com</URL> <Value>10500</Value> </Result> </ResultSet> The XML is generated by a PHP script to get how many pages are indexed in Bing. My javascript function is as follows: function bingIndexedPages() { ws_url = "http://archreport.epiphanydev2.co.uk/worker.php?query=bingindexed&domain="+$('#hidden_the_domain').val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: ws_url, dataType: "xml", success: function(xmlIn){ alert('success'); result = xmlIn.getElementsByTagName("Result"); $('#tb_actualvsindexedbing_indexed').val($(result.getElementsByTagName("Value")).text()); $('#img_actualvsindexedbing_worked').attr("src","/images/worked.jpg"); }, error: function() {$('#img_actualvsindexedbing_worked').attr("src","/images/failed.jpg");} }); } The problem I'm having is firebug is saying: 'result.getElementsByTagName is not a function' Can you see what is going wrong? Thanks

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  • how to extract information from JSON using jQuery

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have a JSON response that is formatted from my C# WebMethod using the JavascriptSerializer Class. I currently get the following JSON back from my query: {"d":"[{\"Lat\":\"51.85036\",\"Long\":\"-8.48901\"},{\"Lat\":\"51.89857\",\"Long\":\"-8.47229\"}]"} I'm having an issue with my code below that I'm hoping someone might be able to shed some light on. I can't seem to get at the information out of the values returned to me. Ideally I would like to be able to read in the Lat and Long values for each row returned to me. Below is what I currently have: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "page.aspx/LoadWayPoints", data: "{'args': '" + $('numJourneys').val() + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { if (msg.d != '[]') { var lat = ""; var long = ""; $.each(msg.d, function () { lat = this['MapLatPosition']; long = this['MapLongPosition']; }); alert('lat =' + lat + ', long =' + long); } } }); I think the issue is something to do with how the JSON is formatted but I might be incorrect. Any help would be great. Thanks, Rich

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  • How do you lock down & secure files stored on server in ASP.NET?

    - by Jon
    How do I go about securing files that are stored on the server? We have an ASP.NET app which generates PDFs. These are not stored in the wwwroot folder but in another folder i.e. C:\inetpub\data. This provides more security but maybe not enough. The ASP.NET/IIS process will need write access to this folder so it generate the PDFs there. Once the pdf is generated, it can be viewed using an ASP.NET form called viewpdf.aspx with the file to be viewed add to the query string like so viewpdf.aspx?FILE=mynewfile.pdf. This is loaded from a gridview. The full path to C:\inetpub\data is resolved and loaded in the Page_load event of the viewer page. Now I'm wondering how to secure this. Anybody could just view the file. Not by entering in the URL, as it won't been seen by IIS (its not in wwwroot), but could change the querystring in the viewpdf page. How do I stop anybody hacking this?

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  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • XPath: limit scope of result set

    - by Laramie
    Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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  • customer.name joining transactions.name vs. customer.id [serial] joining transactions.id [integer]

    - by Frank Computer
    INFORMIX-SQL 7.32 Pawnshop Application: one-to-many relationship where each customer (master) can have many transactions (detail). customer( id serial, pk_name char(30), {PATERNAL-NAME MATERNAL-NAME, FIRST-NAME MIDDLE-NAME} [...] ); unique index on id; unique cluster index on name; transaction( fk_name char(30), ticket_number serial, [...] ); dups cluster index on fk_name; unique index on ticket_number; Several people have told me this is not the correct way to join master to detail. They said I should always join customer.id[serial] to transactions.id[integer]. When a customer pawns merchandise, clerk queries the master using wildcards on name. The query usually returns several customers, clerk scrolls until locating the right name, enters a 'D' to change to detail transactions table, all transactions are automatically queried, then clerk enters an 'A' to add a new transaction. The problem with using customer.id joining transaction.id is that although the customer table is maintained in sorted name order, clustering the transaction table by fk_id groups the transactions by fk_id, but they are not in the same order as the customer name, so when clerk is scrolling through customer names in the master, the system has to jump allover the place to locate the clustered transactions belonging to each customer. As each new customer is added, the next id is assigned to that customer, but new customers dont show up in alphabetical order. I experimented using id joins and confirmed the decrease in performance. How can I use id joins instead of name joins and still preserve the clustered transaction order by name if transactions has no name column?

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  • Lucene DuplicateFilter question

    - by chardex
    Hi, Why DuplicateFilter doesn't work together with other filters? For example, if a little remake of the test DuplicateFilterTest, then the impression that the filter is not applied to other filters and first trims results: public void testKeepsLastFilter() throws Throwable { DuplicateFilter df = new DuplicateFilter(KEY_FIELD); df.setKeepMode(DuplicateFilter.KM_USE_LAST_OCCURRENCE); Query q = new ConstantScoreQuery(new ChainedFilter(new Filter[]{ new QueryWrapperFilter(tq), // new QueryWrapperFilter(new TermQuery(new Term("text", "out"))), // works right, it is the last document. new QueryWrapperFilter(new TermQuery(new Term("text", "now"))) // why it doesn't work? It is the third document. }, ChainedFilter.AND)); ScoreDoc[] hits = searcher.search(q, df, 1000).scoreDocs; assertTrue("Filtered searching should have found some matches", hits.length > 0); for (int i = 0; i < hits.length; i++) { Document d = searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); String url = d.get(KEY_FIELD); TermDocs td = reader.termDocs(new Term(KEY_FIELD, url)); int lastDoc = 0; while (td.next()) { lastDoc = td.doc(); } assertEquals("Duplicate urls should return last doc", lastDoc, hits[i].doc); } }

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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Beginner SQL section: avoiding repeated expression

    - by polygenelubricants
    I'm entirely new at SQL, but let's say that on the StackExchange Data Explorer, I just want to list the top 15 users by reputation, and I wrote something like this: SELECT TOP 15 DisplayName, Id, Reputation, Reputation/1000 As RepInK FROM Users WHERE RepInK > 10 ORDER BY Reputation DESC Currently this gives an Error: Invalid column name 'RepInK', which makes sense, I think, because RepInK is not a column in Users. I can easily fix this by saying WHERE Reputation/1000 > 10, essentially repeating the formula. So the questions are: Can I actually use the RepInK "column" in the WHERE clause? Do I perhaps need to create a virtual table/view with this column, and then do a SELECT/WHERE query on it? Can I name an expression, e.g. Reputation/1000, so I only have to repeat the names in a few places instead of the formula? What do you call this? A substitution macro? A function? A stored procedure? Is there an SQL quicksheet, glossary of terms, language specification, anything I can use to quickly pick up the syntax and semantics of the language? I understand that there are different "flavors"?

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  • IE10 - Progress bar animation issue

    - by user3723885
    I'm trying to incorporate some animated progress bars but I'm having trouble getting them to animate in IE10. I believe the problem is due to the keyframes being inside the media query but have not been able to get it working. Thanks for your help. HTML: <td><div style="width:150px;height:15px;border:1px solid black"> <div class="meter"> <span style="width:85%;"><span class="progress"></span></span> </div> </div></td></tr> CSS: .progress { background-color: #325C74; -webkit-animation: progressBar 3s ease-in-out; -webkit-animation-fill-mode:both; -moz-animation: progressBar 3s ease-in-out; -moz-animation-fill-mode:both; } @-webkit-keyframes progressBar { 0% { width: 0; } 100% { width: 100%; } } @-moz-keyframes progressBar { 0% { width: 0; } 100% { width: 100%; } }

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  • How does DATEDIFF calculate week differences in SQL Server 2005?

    - by eksortso
    I would like to calculate the difference in weeks between two dates, where two dates are considered part of the same week if their preceding Sunday is the same. Ideally, I'd like to do this using DATEDIFF, instead of learning an elaborate idiom to calculate the value. But I can't tell how it works when weeks are involved. The following query returns 1 and 2. This might make sense if your calendar week begins with a Sunday, i.e. if you run SET DATEFIRST 7 beforehand or if @@DATEFIRST is 7 by default. SET DATEFIRST 7; -- SET DATEFIRST 1; DECLARE @d1 DATETIME, @d2a DATETIME, @d2b DATETIME ; SELECT @d1 = '2010-04-05', -- Monday @d2a = '2010-04-16', -- Following Friday @d2b = '2010-04-18' -- the Sunday following ; SELECT DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2a) AS weekdiff_a -- returns 1 ,DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2b) AS weekdiff_b -- returns 2 ; So I expected different results if SET DATEFIRST 1 is executed instead of SET DATEFIRST 7. But the return values are the same, regardless! What is going on here? What should I do to get the correct week differences?

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  • Apache Lucene: Is Relevance Score Always Between 0 and 1?

    - by Eamorr
    Greetings, I have the following Apache Lucene snippet that's giving me some nice results: int numHits=100; int resultsPerPage=100; IndexSearcher searcher=new IndexSearcher(reader); TopScoreDocCollector collector=TopScoreDocCollector.create(numHits,true); Query q=parser.parse(queryString); searcher.search(q,collector); ScoreDoc[] hits=collector.topDocs(0*resultsPerPage,resultsPerPage).scoreDocs; Results r=new Results(); r.length=hits.length; for(int i=0;i<hits.length;i++){ Document doc=searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); double distanceKm=getGreatCircleDistance(lucene2double(doc.get("lat")), lucene2double(doc.get("lng")), Double.parseDouble(userLat), Double.parseDouble(userLng)); double newRelevance=((1/distanceKm)*Math.log(hits[i].score)/Math.log(2))*(0-1); System.out.println(hits[i].doc+"\t"+hits[i].score+"\t"+doc.get("content")+"\t"+"Km="+distanceKm+"\trlvnc="+String.valueOf(newRelevance)); } What I want to know, is hits[i].score always between 0 and 1? It seems that way, but I can't be sure. I've even checked the Lucene documentation (class ScoreDocs) to no avail. You'll see I'm calculating the log of the "newRelevance" value, which is based on hits[i].score. I need hits[i].score to be between 0 and 1, because if it is below zero, I'll get an error; above 1 and the sign will change from negative to positive. I hope some Lucene expert out there can offer me some insight. Many thanks,

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  • Usage of autorelease pools for fetch method

    - by Matthias
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused regarding the autorelease pools when programming for the iPhone. I've read a lot and the oppionions seem to me from "Do-NOT-use" to "No problem to use". My specific problem is, I would like to have a class which encapsulates the SQLite3 Access, so I have for example the following method: -(User*)fetchUserWithId:(NSInteger)userId Now, within this method a SQL query is done and a new user object is created with the data from the database and then returned. Within this DB Access class I don't need this object anymore, so I can do a release, but since the calling method needs it, I would do an autorelease, wouldn't I? So, is it okay to use autorelease here oder would it gain too much memory, if this method is called quite frequently? Some websites say, that the autorelease pool is released first at the end of the application, some say, at every event (e.g. user touches something). If I should not use autorelease, how can I make sure, that the object is released correctly? Can I do a release in the fetch method and hope, that the object is still there until the calling method can do a retain? Thanks for your help! Regards Matthias

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  • Open-sourcing a web site with active users?

    - by Lars Yencken
    I currently run several research-related web-sites with active users, and these sites use some personally identifying information about these users (their email address, IP address, and query history). Ideally I'd release the code to these sites as open source, so that other people could easily run similar sites, and more importantly scrutinise and replicate my work, but I haven't been comfortable doing so, since I'm unsure of the security implications. For example, I wouldn't want my users' details to be accessed or distributed by a third party who found some flaw in my site, something which might be easy to do with full source access. I've tried going half-way by refactoring the (Django) site into more independent modules, and releasing those, but this is very time consuming, and in practice I've never gotten around to releasing enough that a third party can replicate the site(s) easily. I also feel that maybe I'm kidding myself, and that this process is really no different to releasing the full source. What would you recommend in cases like this? Would you open-source the site and take the risk? As an alternative, would you advertise the source as "available upon request" to other researchers, so that you at least know who has the code? Or would you just apologise to them and keep it closed in order to protect users?

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  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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  • PHP output results on to one page

    - by linda
    i have a system where a user searches for a film and reviews appear on a page with a button next to each review. The button can be selected to look at the individual review but i basically want a button that when selected it will look at all reviews on one page, the code i am using for the individual review is this <?php ini_set ('display_errors', 1); error_reporting (E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE); $searchfilm=$_POST['searchfilm']; //Connect to database //Filter search $searchfilm = strtoupper($searchfilm); $searchfilm = strip_tags($searchfilm); $searchfilm = trim ($searchfilm); $query = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query("SELECT filmreview FROM review WHERE id = '$id'")); $data = mysql_query("SELECT film.filmname, review.filmreview, review.reviewtitle, review.id FROM film, review WHERE film.filmid = review.filmid AND filmname = '$searchfilm'"); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($data)) { // echo $row['filmname']; // echo "<b>Film Name:</b> " .$searchfilm; echo "<table border=\"2\" align=\"left\">"; echo "<tr><td>"; echo "<b>Review Title:</b> " .$row['reviewtitle']; echo "<tr><td>"; echo $row['filmreview']; echo "<p>"; echo "<form method='post' action='analyse1.php'>"; echo "<input type='hidden' name='reviewid' value='".$row['id']."'>"; echo "<input type='submit' name='submit' value='Analyse'>"; echo "</form>"; echo "</table>"; } ?>

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  • Very Strange behavior in custom dataGrid

    - by Markus
    Hi everybody, I asked this question already in a former post, but nobody could answer this question correctly. So I try to post the problem again, to make sure it's not a bug. I have a dataGrid with a custom itemRenderer. Everytime I tab at least two times on the dataGrid, the cell below the one I taped gets selected. This doesn't happen if I uncomment the code in the method saveBackDataGridContent()! The second problem is that if the Line is shorter than the entered text, a horizontalScrollBar will get active, although I set setStyle("horizontalScrollPolicy", "off");... Who can solve that one? CustomRenderer.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" initialize="dataService.send()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import components.ChoiceRenderer; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.events.DataGridEvent; private function resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { var doc:XML = event.result as XML; testGrid.dataProvider = doc.Records.BackSide; } private function saveBackDataGridContent(event:DataGridEvent):void{ testGrid.dataProvider[event.rowIndex].TextElement = event.currentTarget.itemEditorInstance.text; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="dataService" result="resultHandler(event)" url = "data/example.xml" resultFormat="e4x"/> <mx:DataGrid id="testGrid" editable="true" itemEditEnd="saveBackDataGridContent(event)"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn itemRenderer="components.ChoiceRenderer" width="230"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> </mx:Application> ChoiceRenderer.as package components { import mx.containers.HBox; import mx.controls.CheckBox; import mx.controls.Label; public class ChoiceRenderer extends HBox { private var correctAnswer:CheckBox; private var choiceLabel:Label; public function ChoiceRenderer() { super(); setStyle("horizontalScrollPolicy", "off"); correctAnswer = new CheckBox; addChild(correctAnswer); choiceLabel = new Label; addChild(choiceLabel); } override public function set data(xmldata:Object):void{ if(xmldata.name() == "BackSide"){ super.data = xmldata.TextElement[0]; choiceLabel.text = xmldata.TextElement[0].toString(); } } } } example.xml <TopContainer> <Records> <BackSide> <TextElement>first</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>second</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>third</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>fourth</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>fifth</TextElement> </BackSide> <BackSide> <TextElement>sixth</TextElement> </BackSide> </Records> Thanks Markus

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • Android Service setForeground While Display Sleeps

    - by c12
    I have a background Android Service that's purpose is to communicate with another device (non-phone) using a Bluetooth socket. Everything works fine except that the service gets stopped and restarted by the OS when the phone display is sleeping. This restart sometimes leaves a 15-20 minute gaps where there is no communication between the Service and the Bluetooth device and I need to be able to query the device every minute. Is startForeground the proper approach? Attempted to use: startForeground(int, Notification) //still see gaps when phone sleeps Service: public class ForegroundBluetoothService extends Service{ private boolean isStarted = false; @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); stop(); } /** * @see android.app.Service#onBind(android.content.Intent) */ @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { return null; } /** * @see android.app.Service#onStartCommand(android.content.Intent, int, int) */ @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { loadServiceInForeground(); return(START_STICKY); } private void loadServiceInForeground() { if (!isStarted) { isStarted=true; Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, "Service is Running...", System.currentTimeMillis()); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, MainScreen.class); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, notificationIntent, 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(this, "Notification Title", "Service is Running...", pendingIntent); startForeground(12345, notification); try{ queryTheBluetoothDevice(); } catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } } } private void stop() { if (isStarted) { isStarted=false; stopForeground(true); } } }

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  • How would you organize this in asp.net mvc?

    - by chobo
    I have an asp.net mvc 2.0 application that contains Areas/Modules like calendar, admin, etc... There may be cases where more than one area needs to access the same Repo, so I am not sure where to put the Data Access Layers and Repositories. First Option: Should I create Data Access Layer files (Linq to SQL in my case) with their accompanying Repositories for each area, so each area only contains the Tables, and Repositories needed by those areas. The benefit is that everything needed to run that module is one place, so it is more encapsulated (in my mind anyway). The downside is that I may have duplicate queries, because other modules may use the same query. Second Option Or, would it be better to place the DAL and Repositories outside the Area's and treat them as Global? The advantage is I won't have any duplicate queries, but I may be loading a lot of unnecessary queries and DAL tables up for certain modules. It is also more work to reuse or modify these modules for future projects (though the chance of reusing them is slim to none :)) Which option makes more sense? If someone has a better way I'd love to hear it. Thanks!

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  • PHP question about global variables and form requests

    - by user220201
    Hi, This is probably a stupid question but will ask anyway sine I have no idea. I have written basic php code which serve forms. Say I have a login page and I serve it using the login.php page and it will be called in the login.html page like this - <form action="login.php" method="post"> By this it is also implied that every POST needs its own php file, doesn't it? This kind of feels weird. Is there a way to have a single file, say code.php, and just have each of the forms as functions instead? EDIT: Specifically, say I have 5 forms that are used one after the other in my application. Say after login the user does A, B, C and D tasks each of which are sent to the server as a POST request. So instead of having A.php, B.php, C.php and D.php I would like to have a single code.php and have A(), B(), C() and D() as functions. Is there a way to do this? Also on the same note, how do I deal with say a global array (e.g. an array of currently logged in users) across multiple forms? I want to do this without writing to a DB. I know its probably better to write to a DB and query but is it even possible to do it with a global array? The reason I was thinking about having all the form functions in one file is to use a global array. Thanks, - Pav

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  • Null Pointer Exception in my BroadcastReceiver class

    - by user1760007
    I want to search a db and toast a specific column on the startup of the phone. The app keeps crashing and getting an exception even though I feel as the code is correct. @Override public void onReceive(Context ctx, Intent intent) { Log.d("omg", "1"); DBAdapter do = new DBAdapter(ctx); Log.d("omg", "2"); Cursor cursor = do.fetchAllItems(); Log.d("omg", "3"); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { Log.d("omg", "4"); do { Log.d("omg", "5"); String title = cursor.getString(cursor.getColumnIndex("item")); Log.d("omg", "6"); // i = cursor.getInt(cursor.getColumnIndex("id")); Toast.makeText(ctx, title, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } while (cursor.moveToNext()); } cursor.close(); } The frustrating part is that I don't see any of my "omg" logs show up in logcat. I only see when my application crashes. I get three lines of errors in logcat. 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start receiver com.test.toaster.MyReciever: java.lang.NullPointerException 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.DBAdapter.fetchAllItems(DBAdapter.java:96) 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.MyReciever.onReceive(MyReciever.java:26) For anyone interested, here is my DBAdapter fetchAllItems code: public Cursor fetchAllItems() { return mDb.query(DATABASE_TABLE, new String[] { KEY_ITEM, KEY_PRIORITY, KEY_ROWID }, null, null, null, null, null); }

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  • Are ternary operators not valid for linq-to-sql queries?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am trying to display a nullable date time in my JSON response. In my MVC Controller I am running the following query: var requests = (from r in _context.TestRequests where r.scheduled_time == null && r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0 select new { id = r.id, name = r.name, start = DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue ? DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value) : string.Empty }); When I run requests.ToArray() I get the following exception: Could not translate expression ' Table(TestRequest) .Where(r => ((r.scheduled_time == null) AndAlso (r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0))) .Select(r => new <>f__AnonymousType18`4(id = r.id, name = r.name, start = value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = IIF(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue, value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value), Invoke(value(System.Func`1[System.String])))))' into SQL and could not treat it as a local expression. If I comment out the end = line, everything seems to run correctly, so it doesn't seem to be the use of my local DateAndTimeDisplayString method, so the only thing I can think of is Linq to Sql doesn't like Ternary operators? I think I've used ternary operators before, but I can't remember if I did it in this code base or another code base (that uses EF4 instead of L2S). Is this true, or am I missing some other issue?

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