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  • TFS2010 API - Which server event fires when checkin notes are changed?

    - by user3708981
    I've written a TFS plugin that impliments the ISubscribe interface, and creates an external ticket base off of the contents of a check-in note. What I would like to do, if when I go back through older TFS check-ins in VS and edit a check-in note, the plugin would process that event and create an external ticket retroactively. What event / SubscribedType do I need to subscribe to in order for ProcessEvents to fire? My stubbed out code - using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Client; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Common; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client; // From C:\Program Files\Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2010\Tools\ using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Framework.Server; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server; using Changeset = Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server.Changeset; public class EmbeddedWorkItemEventHandler : ISubscriber { const string EVENT_NAME = "TicketEvent"; const string APP_LOG = "Application"; public Type[] SubscribedTypes() { return new Type[1] { typeof(CheckinNotification) }; // What else do I need here? } public string Name { get { return EVENT_NAME; } } public SubscriberPriority Priority { get { return SubscriberPriority.Normal; } } public EventNotificationStatus ProcessEvent(TeamFoundationRequestContext requestContext, NotificationType notificationType, object notificationEventArgs, out int statusCode, out string statusMessage, out ExceptionPropertyCollection properties) { // Create the event source, if it doesn't exist if (!System.Diagnostics.EventLog.SourceExists(EVENT_NAME)) { System.Diagnostics.EventLog.CreateEventSource(EVENT_NAME, APP_LOG); } statusCode = 0; properties = null; statusMessage = String.Empty; string ErrorLine = ""; try { // Here we'll validate the Ticket name if (notificationType == NotificationType.DecisionPoint && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { //Check-in blocking logic here. } else if (notificationType == NotificationType.Notification && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { // Tickets on check-in here. } } Catch { // Error checking } return EventNotificationStatus.ActionPermitted; }

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  • What *is* an IPM.DistList?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm trying to get the recipient addresses within an IPM.DistList that is stored in a public folder (of type contacts) in Exchange 2003. The typeName of the object (once I get hold of it) is a Message (with a parent object being a Messages collection) and the messageType is "IPM.DistList". I can find all sorts of things about IPM.DistListItems, which you would think an IPM.DistList would contain, but there apparently isn't any documentation on the DistList (that I can find) and DistListItems documentation lists no parent possibilities in MSDN. I'll state it another way in case I've left you confused: We have an Exchange 2003 info store with Public Folders. Within those Public Folders is a [sub]folder (that holds items of type "Contact") that has a bunch of distribution lists (IPM.DistList's) that have contact entries, members of the list essentially. I need to get the addresses of the members of the lists in the Public Folder sub-folder using any VB language, because the company I work for hired me as a VB guy and expects me to write VB solutions, even though I could do it in C++... alas, I digress. VB is the language I'm supposed to figure this out in. (.net, script, vba, vb6, it doesn't matter which one. Yes, I know vb.net is not really related to those that came before, but they don't know that.) Anyone ran into anything like this? Am I just not finding the IPM.DistList documentation but it does actually exist somewhere? This isn't a Message.MAPIOBJECT (iUnknown) problem is it? Thanks.... Jeremy

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  • How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

    - by sako73
    I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

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  • Setting up isolated COM for multiple projects.

    - by Praneeth
    My solution consists of multiple projects all of which out type class library except one whose output type is windows application. The application references all the other projects. I also have a COM component which is referenced by some of the projects and the application also. I can setup the regfree COM by changing the Isolated property of the referenced COM component in visual studio to TRUE. The solution builds successfully and I can see the manifest file generated for that particular assembly or application. Now, my question is that do I need to do this for all the projects which reference the COM component? If yes, then I know that i cannot set the Isolated property to TRUE on more than one project(gives a build error) so how do I workaround this? I am relatively new to .net and don't know much regfree COM(i assume what i am doing IS regfree COM?). Any help I can get on this issue is greatly appreciated. Thanks. I am currently using VS 2008.

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  • SPSS - sum of squares change radically with slight model changes in ANOVA??

    - by Pat
    I have noticed that the sum of squares in my models can change fairly radically with even the slightest adjustment to my models???? Is this normal???? I'm using SPSS 16, and both models presented below used the same data and variables with only one small change - categorizing one of the variables as either a 2 level or 3 level variable. Details - using a 2 x 2 x 6 mixed model ANOVA with the 6 being the repeated measure i get the following in the between group analysis ------------------------------------------------------------ Source | Type III SS | df | MS | F | Sig ------------------------------------------------------------ intercept | 4086.46 | 1 | 4086.46 | 104.93 | .000 X | 224.61 | 1 | 224.61 | 5.77 | .019 Y | 2.60 | 1 | 2.60 | .07 | .80 X by Y | 19.25 | 1 | 19.25 | .49 | .49 Error | 2570.40 | 66 | 38.95 | Then, when I use the exact same data but a slightly different model in which variable Y has 3 levels instead of 2 levels I get the following ------------------------------------------------------------ Source | Type III SS | df | MS | F | Sig ------------------------------------------------------------ intercept | 3603.88 | 1 | 3603.88 | 90.89 | .000 X | 171.89 | 1 | 171.89 | 4.34 | .041 Y | 19.23 | 2 | 9.62 | .24 | .79 X by Y | 17.90 | 2 | 17.90 | .80 | .80 Error | 2537.76 | 64 | 39.65 | I don't understand why variable X would have a different sum of squares simply because variable Y gets devided up into 3 levels instead of 2. This is also the case in the within groups analysis too. Please help me understand :D Thank you in advance Pat

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  • Capturing wildcards in java generics

    - by Rollerball
    From this orcale java tutorial: The WildcardError example produces a capture error when compiled: import java.util.List; public class WildcardError { void foo(List<?> i) { i.set(0, i.get(0)); } } After this error demonstration, they fix the problem by using a helper method: public class WildcardFixed { void foo(List<?> i) { fooHelper(i); } // Helper method created so that the wildcard can be captured // through type inference. private <T> void fooHelper(List<T> l) { l.set(0, l.get(0)); } } First, they say that the list input parameter (i) is seen as an Object: In this example, the compiler processes the i input parameter as being of type Object. Why then i.get(0) does not return an Object? if it was already passed in as such? Furthermore what is the point of using a <?> when then you have to use an helper method using <T>. Would not be better using directly which can be inferred?

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  • Rails: include index with fields_for form helper

    - by Patrick Oscity
    i'm trying to build two models from one form by using the fields_for method. my code looks like this: <% for scale in @event.scales %> <% f.fields_for "scale[]", scale do |scale_form| %> <p> Scale<br /> <%= scale_form.label :name %> <%= scale_form.text_field :name %> <%= scale_form.label :price %> <%= scale_form.text_field :price %> </p> <% end %> <% end %> but unfortunately the output html is missing the id's of the scales: <p> Scale<br /> <label for="event_scale__name">Name</label> <input id="event_scale__name" name="event[scale][][name]" size="30" type="text" /> <label for="event_scale__price">Price</label> <input id="event_scale__price" name="event[scale][][price]" size="30" type="text" /> </p> ... here's the corresponding controller and model: class EventsController < ApplicationController ... def new @event = Event.new @providers = Provider.find(:all, :order => :name) 3.times { @event.scales.build } respond_to do |format| format.html end end ... end class Event < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :scales ... end what am i doing wrong?

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  • Why would the same web form control render different "onclick" logic based on the page structure?

    - by zk812
    It was hard to title this question. :) I have a user control that is used to display a list of lookup items in my database and a delete button for each item (Editor User Control below). The delete button has an onClientClick event used to display a confirmation dialog in JavaScript. On page one, the confirmation pops up and functions correctly. The overall structure is: Master Page Page Editor User Control List of items with delete button On page two, the confirmation pops up but regardless of the answer, the page posts back anyway. The structure of this page is: Master Page Page User Control Editor User Control List of items with delete button For some reason, this makes a difference in how the delete button is rendered. Page one: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl01$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(1);" /> Page two: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(2);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$RequestCreator1$RequestTypeEditor1$RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" /> Does anyone know why page two renders WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions after my JS check? It's causing the postback regardless of the confirmation choice.

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  • Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

    - by Saurabh Bhandari
    I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

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  • Show a PDF file to the user with perl or php, not creating it nor download it. Just show it.

    - by dimassony
    Hello guys. I want to show my users PDF files. The reason why I use cgi to show the pdf is I want to track the clicks for the pdf, and cloak the real location of the saved pdf. I've been searching on the Internet and only found how to show save dialog to the users and creating a pdf, not show the files to the users. What I wanted for is show the users my pdf files, not creating or download the pdf. Here is what I got form the official php documentation: <?php header('Content-type: application/pdf'); readfile('the.pdf'); ?> Also my google-search-result perl code: open(PDF, "the.pdf") or die "could not open PDF [$!]"; binmode PDF; my $output = do { local $/; <PDF> }; close (PDF); print "Content-Type: application/pdf\n"; print "Content-Length: " .length($output) . "\n\n"; print $output if you do it on ruby, please say it to me. But I'm not sure if my server support rails. Sorry if my code is too far away from the method to show the pdf, since I don't know anything about pdf processing and how to implement this problem. Lets assume that the users have the Adobe Reader plug-in. So, how to fix my problem?

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  • Surely a foolish error, but I can't see it

    - by dnagirl
    I have a form (greatly simplified): <form action='http://example.com/' method='post' name='event_form'> <input type='text' name='foo' value='3'/> <input type='submit' name='event_submit' value='Edit'/> </form> And I have a class "EventForm" to process the form. The main method, process() looks like this: public function process($submitname=false){ $success=false; if ($submitname && isset($_POST[$submitname])){ //PROBLEM: isset($_POST[$submitname] is always FALSE for some reason if($success=$this->ruler->validate()){//check that dependancies are honoured and data types are correct if($success=$this->map_fields()){//divide input data into Event, Schedule_Element and Temporal_Expression(s) $success=$this->eventholder->save(); } } } else {//get the record from the db based on event_id or schedule_element_id foreach($this->gets as $var){//list of acceptable $_GET keys if(isset($_GET[$var])){ if($success= $this->__set($var,$_GET[$var])) break; } } } $this->action=(empty($this->eventholder->event_id))? ADD : EDIT; return $success; } When the form is submitted, this happens: $form->process('event_submit'); For some reason though, isset($_POST['event_submit']) always evaluates to FALSE. Can anyone see why?

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  • Display one div if nothing is selected

    - by Levani
    I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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  • [java] Returning the element number of the longest string in an array

    - by JohnRoberts
    Hoookay, so. I'm trying to get the longestS method to take the user-inputted array of strings, then return the element number of the longest string in that array. I got it to the point where I was able to return the number of chars in the longest string, but I don't believe that will work for what I need. My problem is that I keep getting incompatible type errors when trying to figure this out. I don't understand the whole data type thing with strings yet. It's confusing me how I go about return a number of the array yet the array is of strings. The main method is fine, I got stuck on the ???? part. { public static void main(String [] args) { Scanner inp = new Scanner( System.in ); String [] responseArr= new String[4]; for (int i=0; i<4; i++) { System.out.println("Enter string "+(i+1)); responseArr[i] = inp.nextLine(); } int highest=longestS(responseArr); } public static int longestS(String[] values) { int largest=0 for( int i = 1; i < values.length; i++ ) { if ( ????? ) } return largest; } }

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  • Ajax return string links not working

    - by Andreas Lympouras
    I have this ajax function: function getSearchResults(e) { var searchString = e.value; /*var x = e.keyCode; var searchString = String.fromCharCode(x);*/ if (searchString == "") { document.getElementById("results").innerHTML = ""; return; } var xmlhttp; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function () { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { document.getElementById("results").innerHTML = xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("GET", "<%=Page.ResolveUrl("~/template/searchHelper.aspx?searchString=")%>"+searchString, true); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("If-Modified-Since", "Sat, 1 Jan 2000 00:00:00 GMT"); //solve any AJAX caching problem(not refreshing) xmlhttp.send(); } and here is when I call it: <input class="text-input" value="SEARCH" id="searchbox" onkeyup="javascript:getSearchResults(this);" maxlength="50" runat="server" /> and all my links in the searchHelper.aspx file(which retruns them as a string) are like this: <a class="item" href='../src/actors.aspx?id=77&name=dasdassss&type=a' > <span class="item">dasdassss</span></a> When I click this link I want my website to go to ../src/actors.aspx?id=77&name=dasdassss&type=a but nothing happens. When I hover over the link, it also shows me where the link is about to redirect! any help?

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • What to call factory-like (java) methods used with immutable objects

    - by StaxMan
    When creating classes for "immutable objects" immutable meaning that state of instances can not be changed; all fields assigned in constructor) in Java (and similar languages), it is sometimes useful to still allow creation of modified instances. That is, using an instance as base, and creating a new instance that differs by just one property value; other values coming from the base instance. To give a simple example, one could have class like: public class Circle { final double x, y; // location final double radius; public Circle(double x, double y, double r) { this.x = x; this.y = y; this.r = r; } // method for creating a new instance, moved in x-axis by specified amount public Circle withOffset(double deltaX) { return new Circle(x+deltaX, y, radius); } } So: what should method "withOffset" be called? (note: NOT what its name ought to be -- but what is this class of methods called). Technically it is kind of a factory method, but somehow that does not seem quite right to me, since often factories are just given basic properties (and are either static methods, or are not members of the result type but factory type). So I am guessing there should be a better term for such methods. Since these methods can be used to implement "fluent interface", maybe they could be "fluent factory methods"? Better suggestions? EDIT: as suggested by one of answers, java.math.BigDecimal is a good example with its 'add', 'subtract' (etc) methods. Also: I noticed that there's this question (by Jon Skeet no less) that is sort of related (although it asks about specific name for method)

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  • Automatically creating DynaActionForms in Mockrunner via struts-config.xml

    - by T Reddy
    I'm switching from MockStrutsTestCase to Mockrunner and I'm finding that having to manually re-create all of my DynaActionForms in Mockrunner is a pain...there has to be an easier way?! Can somebody offer a tip to simplify this process? For instance, this form bean definition in struts-config.xml: <form-bean name="myForm" type="org.apache.struts.action.DynaActionForm"> <form-property name="property" type="java.lang.String"/> </form-bean> results in this code in Mockrunner: //define form config FormBeanConfig config = new FormBeanConfig(); config.setName("myForm"); config.setType(DynaActionForm.class.getName()); FormPropertyConfig property = new FormPropertyConfig(); property.setName("property"); property.setType("java.lang.String"); config.addFormPropertyConfig(property); //create mockrunner objects ActionMockObjectFactory factory = new ActionMockObjectFactory(); ActionTestModule module = new ActionTestModule(factory); DynaActionForm form = module.createDynaActionForm(config); Now imagine that I have dozens of DynaActionForms with dozens of attributes...that stinks!

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  • OOP design issue: Polymorphism

    - by Graham Phillips
    I'm trying to solve a design issue using inheritance based polymorphism and dynamic binding. I have an abstract superclass and two subclasses. The superclass contains common behaviour. SubClassA and SubClassB define some different methods: SubClassA defines a method performTransform(), but SubClassB does not. So the following example 1 var v:SuperClass; 2 var b:SubClassB = new SubClassB(); 3 v = b; 4 v.performTransform(); would cause a compile error on line 4 as performTransform() is not defined in the superclass. We can get it to compile by casting... (v as SubClassA).performTransform(); however, this will cause a runtime exception to be thrown as v is actually an instance of SubClassB, which also does not define performTransform() So we can get around that by testing the type of an object before casting it: if( typeof v == SubClassA) { (cast v to SubClassA).performTransform(); } That will ensure that we only call performTransform() on v's that are instances of SubClassA. That's a pretty inelegant solution to my eyes, but at least its safe. I have used interface based polymorphism (interface meaning a type that can't be instantiated and defines the API of classes that implement it) in the past, but that also feels clunky. For the above case, if SubClassA and SubClassB implemented ISuperClass that defined performTransform, then they would both have to implement performTransform(). If SubClassB had no real need for a performTransform() you would have to implement an empty function. There must be a design pattern out there that addresses the issue.

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  • Template trick to optimize out allocations

    - by anon
    I have: struct DoubleVec { std::vector<double> data; }; DoubleVec operator+(const DoubleVec& lhs, const DoubleVec& rhs) { DoubleVec ans(lhs.size()); for(int i = 0; i < lhs.size(); ++i) { ans[i] = lhs[i]] + rhs[i]; // assume lhs.size() == rhs.size() } return ans; } DoubleVec someFunc(DoubleVec a, DoubleVec b, DoubleVec c, DoubleVec d) { DoubleVec ans = a + b + c + d; } Now, in the above, the "a + b + c + d" will cause the creation of 3 temporary DoubleVec's -- is there a way to optimize this away with some type of template magic ... i.e. to optimize it down to something equivalent to: DoubleVec ans(a.size()); for(int i = 0; i < ans.size(); i++) ans[i] = a[i] + b[i] + c[i] + d[i]; You can assume all DoubleVec's have the same # of elements. The high level idea is to have do some type of templateied magic on "+", which "delays the computation" until the =, at which point it looks into itself, goes hmm ... I'm just adding thes numbers, and syntheizes a[i] + b[i] + c[i] + d[i] ... instead of all the temporaries. Thanks!

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  • Complex sorting on MySQL database

    - by ChrisR
    I'm facing the following situation. We've got an CMS with an entity with translations. These translations are stored in a different table with a one-to-many relationship. For example newsarticles and newsarticle_translations. The amount of available languages is dynamically determined by the same CMS. When entering a new newsarticle the editor is required to enter at least one translation, which one of the available languages he chooses is up to him. In the newsarticle overview in our CMS we would like to show a column with the (translated) article title, but since none of the languages are mandatory (one of them is mandatory but i don't know which one) i don't really know how to construct my mysql query to select a title for each newsarticle, regardless of the entered language. And to make it all a little harder, our manager asked for the possibilty to also be able to sort on title, so fetching the translations in a separate query is ruled out as far as i know. Anyone has an idea on how to solve this in the most efficient way? Here are my table schema's it it might help > desc news; +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ | id | int(10) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | category_id | int(1) | YES | | NULL | | | created | timestamp | NO | | CURRENT_TIMESTAMP | | | user_id | int(10) | YES | | NULL | | +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ > desc news_translations; +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | enabled | tinyint(1) | NO | | 0 | | | news_id | int(1) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | title | varchar(255) | NO | | | | | summary | text | YES | | NULL | | | body | text | NO | | NULL | | | language | varchar(2) | NO | | NULL | | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ PS: i've though about subqueries and coalesce() solutions but those seem rather dirty tricks, wondering if something better is know that i'm not thinking of?

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  • How to send data after form has been validated using jQuery?

    - by Keith Donegan
    I have a simple email address sign up form as follows: <form action="" id="newsletterform" method="get"> <input type="text" name="email" class="required email" id="textnewsletter" /> <input type="submit" id="signup" /> </form> Here's what I want to be able to do: Validate the form to look for an empty string or a incorrectly filled out email address one the user clicks submit or hits enter. If one of the above happens (empty string etc), I would like to generate an error to let the user know. Then once the user fills out a correctly formed email address and hits submit (or enter) I want the form to send the email address to wherever I specify in the jQuery code and then generate a little "Thank you for signing up notice", all without reloading the browser. I have looked at too many tutorials and my eyes are pretty much aching at this stage, so please don't point me to any urls (I most likely have been there). If someone could provide a barebone outline of what to do It would be so much appreciated.

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  • query sql database for specific value in vb.net

    - by user2952298
    I am trying to convert VBA code to vb.net, im having trouble trying to search the database for a specific value around an if statement. any suggestions would be greatly appriciated. thedatabase is called confirmation, type is the column and email is the value im looking for. could datasets work? Function SendEmails() As Boolean Dim objOutlook As Outlook.Application Dim objOutlookMsg As Outlook.MailItem Dim objOutlookRecip As Outlook.Recipient Dim objOutlookAttach As Outlook.Attachment Dim intResponse As Integer Dim confirmation As New ADODB.Recordset Dim details As New ADODB.Recordset On Error GoTo Err_Execute Dim MyConnObj As New ADODB.Connection Dim cn As New ADODB.Connection() MyConnObj.Open( _ "Provider = sqloledb;" & _ "Server=myserver;" & _ "Database=Email_Text;" & _ "User Id=bla;" & _ "Password=bla;") confirmation.Open("Confirmation_list", MyConnObj) details.Open("MessagesToSend", MyConnObj) If details.EOF = False Then confirmation.MoveFirst() Do While Not confirmation.EOF If confirmation![Type] = "Email" Then ' Create the Outlook session. objOutlook = CreateObject("Outlook.Application") ' Create the message. End IF

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  • friend declaration in C++

    - by Happy Mittal
    In Thinking in C++ by Bruce eckel, there is an example given regarding friend functions as // Declaration (incomplete type specification): struct X; struct Y { void f(X*); }; struct X { // Definition private: int i; public: friend void Y::f(X*); // Struct member friend }; void Y::f(X* x) { x->i = 47; } Now he explained this: Notice that Y::f(X*) takes the address of an X object. This is critical because the compiler always knows how to pass an address, which is of a fixed size regardless of the object being passed, even if it doesn’t have full information about the size of the type. If you try to pass the whole object, however, the compiler must see the entire structure definition of X, to know the size and how to pass it, before it allows you to declare a function such as Y::g(X). But when I tried void f(X); as declaration in struct Y, it shows no error. Please explain why?

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  • Is there a way to find out whether a class is a direct base of another class?

    - by user176168
    Hi I'm wondering whether there is a way to find out whether a class is a direct base of another class i.e. in boost type trait terms a is_direct_base_of function. As far as I can see boost doesn't see to support this kind of functionality which leads me to think that its impossible with the current C++ standard. The reason I want it is to do some validation checking on two macro's that are used for a reflection system to specify that one class is derived from another e.g. header.h: #define BASE A #define DERIVED B class A {}; class B : public A { #include <rtti.h> }; rtti.h: // I want to check that the two macro's are correct with a compile time assert Rtti<BASE, DERIVED> m_rtti; Although the macro's seem unnecessary in this simple example in my real world scenario rtti.h is a lot more complex. One possible avenue would be to compare the size of the this pointer with the size of a this pointer cast to the base type and some how trying to figure out whether its the size of the base class itself away or something (yeah your right I don't know how that would work either! lol)

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  • C++ Suppress Automatic Initialization and Destruction

    - by Travis G
    How does one suppress the automatic initialization and destruction of a type? While it is wonderful that T buffer[100] automatically initializes all the elements of buffer, and destroys them when they fall out of scope, this is not the behavior I want. #include <iostream> static int created = 0, destroyed = 0; struct S { S() { ++created; } ~S() { ++destroyed; } }; template <typename T, size_t KCount> class Array { private: T m_buffer[KCount]; public: Array() { // some way to suppress the automatic initialization of m_buffer } ~Array() { // some way to suppress the automatic destruction of m_buffer } }; int main() { { Array<S, 100> arr; } std::cout << "Created:\t" << created << std::endl; std::cout << "Destroyed:\t" << destroyed << std::endl; return 0; } The output of this program is: Created: 100 Destroyed: 100 I would like it to be: Created: 0 Destroyed: 0 My only idea is to make m_buffer some trivially constructed and destructed type like char and then rely on operator[] to wrap the pointer math for me, although this seems like a horribly hacked solution. Another solution would be to use malloc and free, but that gives a level of indirection that I do not want.

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