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  • Authlogic and password and password confirmation attributes - inaccessible?

    - by adam
    Im trying to test my successfully creates a new user after login (using authlogic). Ive added a couple of new fields to the user so just want to make sure that the user is saved properly. The problem is despite creating a valid user factory, whenever i try to grab its attributes to post to the create method, password and password confirmation are being ommitted. I presuem this is a security method that authlogic performs in the background. This results in validations failing and the test failing. Im wondering how do i get round this problem? I could just type the attributes out by hand but that doesnt seem very dry. context "on POST to :create" do context "on posting a valid user" do setup do @user = Factory.build(:user) post :create, :user => @user.attributes end should "be valid" do assert @user.valid? end should_redirect_to("users sentences index page") { sentences_path() } should "add user to the db" do assert User.find_by_username(@user.username) end end ##User factory Factory.define :user do |f| f.username {Factory.next(:username) } f.email { Factory.next(:email)} f.password_confirmation "password" f.password "password" f.native_language {|nl| nl.association(:language)} f.second_language {|nl| nl.association(:language)} end

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  • Rails - difference between config.cache_store and config.action_controller.cache_store?

    - by gsmendoza
    If I set this in my environment config.action_controller.cache_store = :mem_cache_store ActionController::Base.cache_store will use a memcached store but Rails.cache will use a memory store instead: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb6eb4bbc @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemoryStore:0xb78b5e54 @data={}> In my app, I use Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } to cache objects inside my helpers. All this time, I assumed that Rails.cache uses the memcached store so I'm surprised that it uses memory store. If I change the cache_store setting in my environment to config.cache_store = :mem_cache_store both ActionController::Base.cache_store and Rails.cache will now use the same memory store, which is what I expect: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> However, when I run the app, I get a "marshal dump" error in the line where I call Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } no marshal_dump is defined for class Proc Extracted source (around line #1): 1: Rails.cache.fetch(fragment_cache_key(...), :expires_in => 15.minutes) { ... } vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'dump' vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'set_without_newrelic_trace' What gives? Is Rails.cache meant to be a memory store? Should I call controller.cache_store.fetch in the places where I call Rails.cache.fetch?

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  • Why is Reporting Services report vastly slower than its query?

    - by Telos
    I have a query that takes roughly 2 minutes to run. It's not terribly complex in terms of parameters or anything, and the report itself doesn't do any truly extensive processing. Basically just spits the data straight out in a nice format. (Actually one of the reports doesn't format the data at all, just returns a flat table meant to be manipulated in excel.) It's not returning a massive set of data either. Yet the report takes upwards of 30 minutes to run. What could cause this? This is SSRS 2005 against a SQL 2005 database btw. EDIT: OK, I found that with the addition of WITH (NOLOCK) in the report it takes the same time as the query does through SSMS. Why would the query be handled differently if it's coming from reporting services (or visual studio on my local machine) than if coming from SSMS on my local machine? I saw the query running in Activity Monitor a couple times in SLEEP_WAIT mode, but not blocked by anything... EDIT2: The connection string is: Data Source=SERVERNAME;Initial Catalog=DBName

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  • Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

    - by Skeolan
    We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 router matches correct area route but generates URL to the first registered area inste

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm working on a S#arpArchitecture 1.5 project, which uses ASP.NET MVC 2. I've been trying to get areas to work properly but I ran into a problem: The ASP.NET MVC 2 routing engine matches the correct route to my area but then it generates an URL that belongs to the first registered area instead. Here's my request URL: /Framework/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fDefault.aspx I'm using the Route Tester from Phil Haack and it shows: Matched Route: Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id} Generated URL: /Data/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2FDefault.aspx using the route "Data/{controller}/{action}/{id}" That's clearly wrong, the URL should point to the Framework area, not the Data area. This is how I register my routes, nothing special there IMO. private static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } The area registration classes all look like this. Again, nothing special. public class FrameworkAreaRegistration : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Framework"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute( "Framework_default", "Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } }

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  • ASP.Net application timeout

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have an application I have just deployed which, for complicated reasons, stores all the data from the database in a module the first time any data from the specific table is required (i.e. when a customer requests to view a product for the first time, all the product data is stored in the ProductManager class (of which an instance is stored in a shared property of the SiteContent class, making the ProductManager easily accessible from any page). Now forget that you are probably now glaring at me for using this approach.. I am sure it has its inefficiencies but I have only been studying .Net for a year or so now so I am still learning. One thing I have noticed is that I can go on the site once, then revisit it 5 minutes later and it will load all the data into the ProductManager class again. It seems this is a .Net application timeout thing - since the session timeout is set to 30 minutes and, when I am logged in on the administration frontend, it logs me out after 5 minutes (ish). Does anyone have any idea how to change this? Is there any way I can change this in the code without having to contact the hosting company? If not in the code is there any way to change this in the web.config? Thanks in advance. Regards, Richard

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  • Deploy multiple instances of an EAR (representing versions) to Glassfish

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I basically want to be able to deploy multiple versions of the same EAR file to the same server (Glassfish instance?) , and have a unique path to each version separating them. From my reading on this it appears that multiple EARs deploy to the root of the web server namespace so that they can coexist if they do not have colliding context-root's of WAR's. In my case I'd rather have that instead of everything going under "/", I'd like to be able to brand a given EAR-file build to ALWAYS deploy under a given path like "/foo-20100319" or "/foo-CUSTOMER-20010101". This can easily be done with a single WAR file just by renaming it. I do not need or want them to disturb each other. It is my understanding that this remapping is outside the scope of the application.xml file, so I found that http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-7693/beayr?a=view says that I can specify web-uri and context-root, but I am not certain that what I wish to do, can be specified with these in Glassfish. How should I approach this? I have full control over the build process. (I have found http://stackoverflow.com/questions/877390/deploying-multiple-java-web-apps-to-glassfish-in-one-go but I am not certain how to apply this to what I need).

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  • VB.net (aspx) mysql connection

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am new to ASP.NET and VB.net code behind. I have a classic ASP page that connects to the mySQL server with the following code: Set oConnection = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set oRecordset = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oConnection.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver}; SERVER=xxx.com; PORT=3306; DATABASE=xxx; USER=xxx; PASSWORD=xxx; OPTION=3;" sqltemp = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'" oRecordset.Open sqltemp, oConnection,3,3 if oRecordset.EOF then ... However, i am unable to find anything to connect to mySQL in ASP.NET (VB.NET). I have only found this peice of code that does not seem to work once it gets to the "Dim conn As New OdbcConnection(MyConString)" code: Dim MyConString As String = "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=xxx.com;" & _ "DATABASE=xxx;" & _ "UID=xxx;" & _ "PASSWORD=xxx;" & _ "OPTION=3;" Dim conn As New OdbcConnection(MyConString) MyConnection.Open() Dim MyCommand As New OdbcCommand MyCommand.Connection = MyConnection MyCommand.CommandText = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'"" MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() MyConnection.Close() I have these import statements also: <%@ Import Namespace=System %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.IO %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.Web %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.ServiceProcess %> <%@ Import Namespace=Microsoft.Data.Odbc %> <%@ Import Namespace=MySql.Data.MySqlClient %> <%@ Import Namespace=MySql.Data %> <%@ Import Namespace=System.Data %> So any help would be great! :o) David

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  • Having problem with jQuery Countdown? Function serverSync: serverTime

    - by ricky roy
    serverSync: serverTime Function return value from server but I have checked both server and client time both are same.When i called server to sync with server it will not display countdown. help me ? $(function() { var shortly = new Date(); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); shortly = time; return time; }

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  • document.getElementById() returns null when using mozrepl (but not in firebug)

    - by teamonkey
    I'm trying to use the mozrepl Firefox extension to give me a Javascript REPL from within emacs. I think I've got it set up correctly. I can interact with the REPL from emacs and can explore the document pretty much as described in the tutorial pages. The problem comes when I try to do something really simple, like get a context to a canvas element: repl> document.getElementById("mycanvas").getContext("2d") !!! TypeError: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null Details: message: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null fileName: chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js lineNumber: 1 stack: @chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js:1 name: TypeError It's not just that particular instance: any call to getElementById will just return null. If I start up firebug I can enter the same thing and it will return a valid context, but I'd really like to get the REPL working in emacs. I don't think this is a bug but I've probably not configured mozrepl correctly. Can anyone help? Mozrepl 1.0, Firefox 3.6

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  • Can this be considered Clean Code / Best Practice?

    - by MRFerocius
    Guys, How are you doing today? I have the following question because I will follow this strategy for all my helpers (to deal with the DB entities) Is this considered a good practice or is it going to be unmaintainable later? public class HelperArea : AbstractHelper { event OperationPerformed<Area> OnAreaInserting; event OperationPerformed<Area> OnAreaInserted; event OperationPerformed<Area> OnExceptionOccured; public void Insert(Area element) { try { if (OnAreaInserting != null) OnAreaInserting(element); DBase.Context.Areas.InsertOnSubmit(new AtlasWFM_Mapping.Mapping.Area { areaDescripcion = element.Description, areaNegocioID = element.BusinessID, areaGUID = Guid.NewGuid(), areaEstado = element.Status, }); DBase.Context.SubmitChanges(); if (OnAreaInserted != null) OnAreaInserted(element); } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.ChangeStrategy(LogginStrategies.EVENT_VIEWER); LogManager.LogError(new LogInformation { logErrorType = ErrorType.CRITICAL, logException = ex, logMensaje = "Error inserting Area" }); if (OnExceptionOccured != null) OnExceptionOccured(elemento); } } I want to know if it is a good way to handle the event on the Exception to let subscribers know that there has been an exception inserting that Area. And the way to log the Exception, is is OK to do it this way? Any suggestion to make it better?

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  • Parsing XML with jQuery... problem retrieving elements

    - by Don
    An XML snippet: <results> <review> <api_detail_url>http://api.giantbomb.com/review/1/</api_detail_url> <game> <api_detail_url>http://api.giantbomb.com/game/20462/</api_detail_url> <id>20462</id> <name>SingStar</name> </game> <score>4</score> </review> </results> And here's my testing code, just to show whether data is being collected or not ('data' holds the XML): var element; $(data).find('review').each(function() { element = $(this).find('name').text(); }); alert(element); Now here's the problem, only this query actually returns data: $(this).find('score').text(); The alert box in this case would pop up with '4'. These two other queries don't return anything (the alert box is blank): $(this).find('api_detail_url').text(); $(this).find('name').text(); I've tried using jQuery selectors, like... $(this).find('game > name').text(); ...but that doesn't work, either, still get a blank alert box. Am I missing something? Testing is being done in Chrome.

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  • Postback event not firing on FIRST button click..

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have a form which accepts two arguments. The first one is mode - this is either view, new or edit. If it is new then the second argument is type - this is either range, collection or design. When set to new, and the type is valid, a new instance of that type is created and the data from the form is added to it. The item (range, collection or design) then validates the data. If any of the data is invalid then it throws an error, and this error is displayed at the top of the form telling the user why it is invalid. A variable, _Databind, is set to false so that it does not change the data input by the user (in the form fields). The button used to submit the button is called btnSave, and is created in the html source. The click event is wired up in the form Protected Sub Blah(sender, e) Handles btnSave.Click. Strangely, whenever I edit an item that already exists the form submits fine the first time - the click event is fired. However when in "new" mode I have to click the button twice to fire the event. It also blanks all the form fields out on first click. I have even put a Response.Write("Hello World") line at the start of the click event - this is not being output on first click when adding a new item either. It is on first load when the mode is set to edit however. Does anyone have any ideas as to what is causing it to behave this way? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards, Richard

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  • How do I play back a WAV in ActionScript?

    - by Jeremy White
    Please see the class I have created at http://textsnip.com/51013f for parsing a WAVE file in ActionScript 3.0. This class is correctly pulling apart info from the file header & fmt chunks, isolating the data chunk, and creating a new ByteArray to store the data chunk. It takes in an uncompressed WAVE file with a format tag of 1. The WAVE file is embedded into my SWF with the following Flex embed tag: [Embed(source="some_sound.wav", mimeType="application/octet-stream")] public var sound_class:Class; public var wave:WaveFile = new WaveFile(new sound_class()); After the data chunk is separated, the class attempts to make a Sound object that can stream the samples from the data chunk. I'm having issues with the streaming process, probably because I'm not good at math and don't really know what's happening with the bits/bytes, etc. Here are the two documents I'm using as a reference for the WAVE file format: http://www.lightlink.com/tjweber/StripWav/Canon.html https://ccrma.stanford.edu/courses/422/projects/WaveFormat/ Right now, the file IS playing back! In real time, even! But...the sound is really distorted. What's going on?

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  • XMLhttpRequest > PHP > XMLhttpRequest

    - by usurper
    Hi guys, I have another question. XMLhttpRequests haunt me. Everything is now in the database but I need this data to update my page on firt page load or reload. The XHR is triggered in JavaScript file which triggers PHP-Script. PHP-Script access MySQL database. But how do I get the fetched records back into my JavaScript for page update. I can not figure it out. First my synchronous XMLhttpRequest: function retrieveRowsDB() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","retrieveRowData.php", false); xmlhttp.send(null); return xmlhttp.responseText; } Then my PHP-Script: <?php $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root","*************"); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("sadb", $con); $data="SELECT * FROM users ORDER BY rowdata ASC"; if (!mysql_query($data,$con)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } else { $dbrecords = mysql_query($data,$con); } $rowdata = mysql_fetch_array($dbrecords); return $rowdata; mysql_close($con); ?> What am I missing here? Anyone got a clue?

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  • Invoking ADO.NET from MATLAB

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    It's possible to call .NET from MATLAB, so I thought I would try to use ADO.NET to connect to a database. I seem to have hit a blocking problem - anytime you try and create a Command object, it throws an error. You can try this yourself: >> NET.addAssembly('System.Data'); >> sqlconn = System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(); >> sqlconn.State ans = Closed >> % So far, so good >> sqlcmd = System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(); ??? Error using ==> System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand 'Connection' is already defined as a property. >> Does anyone have some insight into this? It seems like a pure and simple bug on MATLAB's part - maybe it happens with every .NET class that happens to have a property called "Connection". Should I just throw in the towel and give up on using MATLAB to talk to a database using .NET?

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  • UX question: is better to have "serious delete" or have "trash"

    - by ftrotter
    I am developing an application that allows for a user to manage some individual data points. One of the things that my users will want to do is "delete" but what should that mean? For a web application is it better to present a user with the option to have serious delete or to use a "trash" system? Under "serious delete" (would love to know if there is a better name for this...) you click "delete" and then the user is warned "this is final and tragic action. Once you do this you will not be able to get -insert data point name here- back, even if you are crying..." Then if they click delete... well it truly is gone forever. Under the "trash" model, you never trust that the user really wants to delete... instead you remove the data point from the "main display" and put into a bucket called "the trash". This gets it out of the users way, which is what they usually want, but they can get it back if they make a mistake. Obviously this is the way most operating systems have gone. The advantages of "serious delete" are: Easy to implement Easy to explain to users The disadvantages of "serious delete" are: it can be tragically final sometimes, cats walk on keyboards The advantages of the "trash" system are: user is safe from themselves bulk methods like "delete a bunch at once" make more sense saves support headaches The disadvantages of the "trash" system are": For sensitive data, you create an illusion of destruction users think something is gone, but it is not. Lots of subtle distinctions make implementation more difficult Do you "eventually" delete the contents of the trash? My question is which one is the right design pattern for modern web applications? With enough discussion to justify your answer... Would love to be pointed towards some relevant research. -FT

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  • How to provide stl like container with public const iterator and private non-const iterator?

    - by WilliamKF
    Hello, I am deriving a class privately from std::list and wish to provide public begin() and end() for const_iterator and private begin() and end() for just plain iterator. However, the compiler is seeing the private version and complaining that it is private instead of using the public const version. I understand that C++ will not overload on return type (in this case const_iterator and iterator) and thus it is choosing the non-const version since my object is not const. Short of casting my object to const before calling begin() or not overloading the name begin is there a way to accomplish this? I would think this is a known pattern that folks have solved before and would like to follow suit as to how this is typically solved. class myObject; class myContainer : private std::list<myObject> { public: typedef std::list<myObject>::const_iterator myContainer::const_iterator; private: typedef std::list<myObject>::iterator myContainer::iterator; public: myContainer::const_iterator begin() const { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::const_iterator end() const { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } private: myContainer::iterator begin() { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::iterator end() { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } }; void myFunction(myContainer &container) { myContainer::const_iterator aItr = container.begin(); myContainer::const_iterator aEndItr = container.end(); for (; aItr != aEndItr; ++aItr) { const myObject &item = *aItr; // Do something const on container's contents. } } The error from the compiler is something like this: ../../src/example.h:447: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::begin()' is private caller.cpp:2393: error: within this context ../../src/example.h:450: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::end()' is private caller.cpp:2394: error: within this context Thanks. -William

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  • Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

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  • How to use OSGi getServiceReference() right

    - by Jens
    Hello, I am new to OSGi and came across several examples about OSGi services. For example: import org.osgi.framework.*; import org.osgi.service.log.*; public class MyActivator implements BundleActivator { public void start(BundleContext context) throws Exception { ServiceReference logRef = context.getServiceReference(LogService.class.getName()); } } My question is, why do you use getServiceReference(LogService.class.getName()) instead of getServiceReference("LogService") If you use LogService.class.getName() you have to import the Interface. This also means that you have to import the package org.osgi.services.log in your MANIFEST.MF. Isn't that completely counterproductive if you want to reduce dependencies to push loose coupling? As far as I know one advantage of services is that the service consumer doesn't have to know the service publisher. But if you have to import one specific Interface you clearly have to know who's providing it. By only using a string like "LogService" you would not have to know that the Interface is provided by org.osgi.services.log.LogService. What am I missing here?

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  • Is jQuery.parseJSON able to process all valid json?

    - by murze
    This piece of valid json (it has been generated using php's json_encode): {"html":"form is NOT valid<form id=\"articleform\" enctype=\"application\/x-www-form-urlencoded\" method=\"post\" action=\"\"><dl class=\"zend_form\">\n<dt id=\"title-label\">&nbsp;<\/dt>\n<dd id=\"title-element\">\n<input type=\"text\" name=\"title\" id=\"title\" value=\"Artikel K\"><\/dd>\n<dt id=\"articleFormSubmitted-label\">&nbsp;<\/dt>\n<dd id=\"articleFormSubmitted-element\">\n<input type=\"hidden\" name=\"articleFormSubmitted\" value=\"1\" id=\"articleFormSubmitted\"><\/dd>\n<dt id=\"submit-label\">&nbsp;<\/dt><dd id=\"submit-element\">\n<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submit\" id=\"submit\" value=\"Bewaar artikel\" onclick=\"this.value='Bezig...';\"><\/dd><\/dl><\/form><script type=\"text\/javascript\">\n\t $(\"#articleform\").submit(function(){\n $.post(\"\/admin\/ajax\/contenttree\/node\/9\/ajaxtarget\/ajaxContainer\", $(\"#articleform\").serialize(), function(html){$(\"#ajaxContainer\").html(html);} );\n\t\t return false;\n\t });\n\n <\/script>","newNodeName":""} is giving jQuery.parseJSON(data) and me a hard time. With this piece of code: alert('start'); alert(data); jQuery.parseJSON(data) alert('stop'); I get a message start and then the data (jsonstring above) is shown. The message "stop" never appears. When I use this json: {"html":"test","newNodeName":""} I've verified that my first big chick of json is valid. Why isn't it processed by jQuery.parseJSON Are there any special characters that don't go well with json?

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  • How to set up a user Quartz2D coordinate system with scaling that avoids fuzzy drawing?

    - by jdmuys
    This topic has been scratched once or twice, but I am still puzzled. And Google was not friendly either. Since Quartz allows for arbitrary coordinate systems using affine transform, I want to be able to draw things such as floorplans using real-life coordinate, e.g. feet. So basically, for the sake of an example, I want to scale the view so that when I draw a 10x10 rectangle (think a 1-inch box for example), I get a 60x60 pixels rectangle. It works, except the rectangle I get is quite fuzzy. Another question here got an answer that explains why. However, I'm not sure I understood that reason why, and moreover, I don't know how to fix it. Here is my code: I set my coordinate system in my awakeFromNib custom view method: - (void) awakeFromNib { CGAffineTransform scale = CGAffineTransformMakeScale(6.0, 6.0); self.transform = scale; } And here is my draw routine: - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGRect r = CGRectMake(10., 10., 11., 11.); CGFloat lineWidth = 1.0; CGContextStrokeRectWithWidth(context, r, lineWidth); } The square I get is scaled just fine, but totally fuzzy. Playing with lineWidth doesn't help: when lineWidth is set smaller, it gets lighter, but not crisper. So is there a way to set up a view to have a scaled coordinate system, so that I can use my domain coordinates? Or should I go back and implementing scaling in my drawing routines? Note that this issue doesn't occur for translation or rotation. Thanks

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  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

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  • Bind to a method in WPF?

    - by Cameron MacFarland
    How do you bind to an objects method in this scenario in WPF? public class RootObject { public string Name { get; } public ObservableCollection<ChildObject> GetChildren() {...} } public class ChildObject { public string Name { get; } } XAML: <TreeView ItemsSource="some list of RootObjects"> <TreeView.Resources> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type data:RootObject}" ItemsSource="???"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type data:ChildObject}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.Resources> </TreeView> Here I want to bind to the GetChildren method on each RootObject of the tree. EDIT Binding to an ObjectDataProvider doesn't seem to work because I'm binding to a list of items, and the ObjectDataProvider needs either a static method, or it creates it's own instance and uses that. For example, using Matt's answer I get: System.Windows.Data Error: 33 : ObjectDataProvider cannot create object; Type='RootObject'; Error='Wrong parameters for constructor.' System.Windows.Data Error: 34 : ObjectDataProvider: Failure trying to invoke method on type; Method='GetChildren'; Type='RootObject'; Error='The specified member cannot be invoked on target.' TargetException:'System.Reflection.TargetException: Non-static method requires a target.

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  • How reliable is DateTime.Utc in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. The applications load their data from the server at one time, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all applications download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

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