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  • How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

    - by Decker
    I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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  • Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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  • How to write a file that called from a database on a page?

    - by Mehmet Kaleli
    Hi. I have a "news" page that belongs to a company. All news have a header, detail and html page and they come from database. So i have to print those html pages in a repeater on my "news.aspx". But i couldnt write dynamically. How can i do it or is there anyway else? <asp:Repeater ID="news" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="news_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="newsid" runat="server" Value='<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsid") %>' /> <tr> <td class="haberler-sayfasi-habermetni" style="width:580px;padding-bottom:30px;"> <h1 class="haberler-sayfasi-haberbasligi" style="background-image:url(images/haber-ikon.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat;padding-left:25px;"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsheader") %>/h1> <br /> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsspot") %> <br /><br /> <% **Response.WriteFile('dynamical filename with path');** %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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  • Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

    - by Magnar
    Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Facebook not recoginising open graph tags

    - by Pratik Poddar
    My object page looks like: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" dir="ltr" lang="en-US" xmlns:fb="https://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <head prefix="og: http://ogp.me/ns# cliprin: http://ogp.me/ns/apps/cliprin#"> <meta property="fb:app_id" content="143944345745133" /> <meta property="og:type" content="cliprin:product" /> <meta property="og:url" content="https://itsourstudio.com/" /> <meta property="og:title" content="LED Ice Cubes (Set Of 4)" /> <meta property="og:sitename" content="Its Our Studio" /> <meta property="og:image" content="https://s-static.ak.fbcdn.net/images/devsite/attachment_blank.png" /> <meta property="og:description" content="Blah Blah Blah" /> </head> </html> The JSLink Debugger of the page as shown by the link shows that of:type is website and gives following warnings: Open Graph Warnings That Should Be Fixed Inferred Property: The 'og:url' property should be explicitly provided, even if a value can be inferred from other tags. Inferred Property: The 'og:title' property should be explicitly provided, even if a value can be inferred from other tags. Inferred Property: The 'og:description' property should be explicitly provided, even if a value can be inferred from other tags. Inferred Property: The 'og:image' property should be explicitly provided, even if a value can be inferred from other tags. Tiny og:image: All the images referenced by og:image must be at least 200px in both dimensions. Please check all the images with tag og:image in the given url and ensure that it meets the minimum specification.

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  • Submit form with POST data in Android app

    - by datguywhowanders
    I've been searching the web for a way to do this for about a week now, and I just can't seem to figure it out. I'm trying to implement an app that my college can use to allow users to log in to various services on the campus with ease. The way it works currently is they go to an online portal, select which service they want, fill in their user name and pwd, and click login. The form data is sent via post (it includes several hidden values as well as just the user name and pwd) to the corresponding login script which then signs them in and loads the service. I've been trying to come at the problem in two ways. I first tried a WebView, but it doesn't seem to want to support all of the html that normally makes this form work. I get all of the elements I need, fields for user and pwd as well as a login button, but clicking the button doesn't do anything. I wondered if I needed to add an onclick handler for it, but I can't see how as the button is implemented in the html of the webview not using a separate android element. The other possibility was using the xml widgets to create the form in a nice relative layout, which seems to load faster and looks better on the android screen. I used EditText fields for the input, a spinner widget for the service select, and the button widget for the login. I know how to make the onclick and item select handlers for the button and spinner, respectively, but I can't figure out how to send that data via POST in an intent that would then launch a browser. I can do an intent with the action url, but can't get the POST data to feed into it. Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Hide a single content block from search engines?

    - by jonas
    A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

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  • Where do I put javaassist code?

    - by DutrowLLC
    I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

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  • Binding KeyUp event to Input Field

    - by user306686
    I am dynamically generating textboxes in ruby using <%0.upto(4) do |i| % <%= text_field_tag('relative_factor[]', @prefill_values[:relative_factor][i],:size = 6,:maxlength = 5) % <%end% it generates following HTML markup Another set of textboxes: <%0.upto(4) do |i| % <%= text_field_tag('rating_factor[]', @prefill_values[:relative_factor][i],:size = 6,:maxlength = 5) % <%end% it generates following HTML markup I have one more textbox: ..... I want to update id="rating_factor_" textboxes as the value in either id="multiple" textbox changes or id="relative_factor_" textboxes changes. E.g. id="multiple" textbox = 5 id="relative_factor_" value= 0.0 textbox = 1 id="relative_factor_" value= 1.0 textbox = 2 id="relative_factor_" value= 2.0 textbox = 3 id="relative_factor_" value= 3.0 textbox = 4 id="relative_factor_" value= 4.0 textbox = 5 I want to show (multiple multiple and relative_factor_ and show) id="rating_factor_" value= 0.0 textbox = 5 id="rating_factor_" value= 1.0 textbox = 10 id="rating_factor_" value= 2.0 textbox = 15 id="rating_factor_" value= 3.0 textbox = 20 id="rating_factor_" value= 4.0 textbox = 25 Now if user changes, id="relative_factor_" value= 1.0 textbox as 1.5 then id="rating_factor_" value= 1.0 textbox should be updated as 7.5 To achieve above goal, I tried binding #relative_factor_ to keyup event but as id is same for all i.e.#relative_factor_, it returns value for first textbox i.e. id="relative_factor_" value= 0.0. Please guide me to crack this problem. Thanks in Advance.

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  • Can I flow divs down the page instead of across it?

    - by Brabster
    If I have a collection of div elements, I can use CSS to have them flow across the page and overflow onto the next line. Here's a simple example: <html> <head> <title>Flowing Divs</title> <style type="text/css"> .flow { float: left; margin: 4em 8em; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="container"> <div class="flow">Div 1</div> <div class="flow">Div 2</div> <div class="flow">Div 3</div> <div class="flow">Div 4</div> <div class="flow">Div 5</div> <div class="flow">Div 6</div> <div class="flow">Div 7</div> <div class="flow">Div 8</div> </div> </body> </html> Is it possible to have the divs flow down the page instead of across it, so that they would flow down columns not along lines, but still occupy the same space as they would if they flowed across? So for the example above, if they flowed into two lines of four divs, could I get the first column to contain Div1 and Div2 instead of Div1 and Div5?

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  • User defined literal arguments are not constexpr?

    - by Pubby
    I'm testing out user defined literals. I want to make _fac return the factorial of the number. Having it call a constexpr function works, however it doesn't let me do it with templates as the compiler complains that the arguments are not and cannot be constexpr. I'm confused by this - aren't literals constant expressions? The 5 in 5_fac is always a literal that can be evaluated during compile time, so why can't I use it as such? First method: constexpr int factorial_function(int x) { return (x > 0) ? x * factorial_function(x - 1) : 1; } constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_function(x); // this works } Second method: template <int N> struct factorial { static const unsigned int value = N * factorial<N - 1>::value; }; template <> struct factorial<0> { static const unsigned int value = 1; }; constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_template<x>::value; // doesn't work - x is not a constexpr }

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  • xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

    - by Kaiserludi
    Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

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  • Binding mousemove within mousedown function with jQuery

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am trying to bind a mousemove event to a div when the left mousebutton is down, and unbind when it is released. This code should be fairly self-explainatory. function handleMouseDown(e, sbar){ if (e.button == 0){ console.log(sbar); //firebug sbar.bind('mousemove', function(event){ handleMouseMove(event, sbar); }); } } function handleMouseUp(e, sbar){ sbar.unbind('mousemove'); } function handleMouseMove(e, sbar){ // not sure it this will work yet, but unimportant $(".position").html(e.pageX); } $(document).ready(function (){ var statusbar = $(".statusbar"); statusbar.mousedown(function(event){ handleMouseDown(event, this); }); statusbar.mouseup(function(event){ handleMouseUp(event, this); }); }); The important part of the HTML looks like this <div id="main"> <div class="statusbar"> <p class="position"></p> </div> </div> Firebug says that the bind methods are undefined on the variable sbar within handleMouseDown and handleMouseUp. The firebug console prints out <div class="statusbar"> for the line commented //firebug. I'm doing something wrong, probably when binding the mousedown and mouseup... but what?! I'm using jQuery v1.4.2, if that helps?

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  • how to release object from thid party dll?

    - by Mohamed
    hi all, i'm developing a program to convert RTF to html i'm using the DLLs found here http://www.codeproject.com/KB/recipes/RtfConverter.aspx?fid=1458864&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3427424&fr=1#xx0xx this dll saves a jpg file from html to a specific folder, when i run the program, it cinverts the rtf for the first time and saves the images to the folder perfectly but when i try to convert it again i hace this error "error a generic error occured in GDI+" i think this dll use SaveImage method and to avoid this you must release the Image object you created but i can't modify the DLL, is there is any way to release the object i've created from this dll? this is my code RtfVisualImageAdapter imageAdapter = new RtfVisualImageAdapter( @Application.StartupPath + "\\Program Data\\temp\\{0}{1}", System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); RtfImageConvertSettings imageConvertSettings = new RtfImageConvertSettings(imageAdapter); RtfImageConverter imageConverter = new RtfImageConverter(imageConvertSettings); try { IRtfDocument rtfDocument = RtfInterpreterTool.BuildDoc( ConversionText, imageConverter); RtfHtmlConverter htmlConverter = new RtfHtmlConverter(rtfDocument); htmlConverter.Settings.ConvertVisualHyperlinks = true; htmlConverter.Settings.UseNonBreakingSpaces = true; this.richTextBoxPrintCtrl2.Text = htmlConverter.Convert(); } catch (Exception exception) { MessageBox.Show(this, "Error " + exception.Message, this.Text, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); }

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  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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  • jQuery AJAX with two domains

    - by Andrew Burns
    OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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  • Rails 3 : Can't get form_for to work as a 'delete' following the RESTful achitecture => always giving a ROUTING ERROR

    - by Alex
    I have a very simple render that goes as follow: <%= form_for(:relationships, :url => relationships_path, :html => {:method => 'delete'}) do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :user_id_to_unfollow, :value => @user.id %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Unfollow" %></div> <% end %> When I submit this form it will always give me a Routing Error No route matches "/relationships" on my page. In my relationships controller, I have created all the propers methods: def create ... end def destroy ... end def update ... end def show ... end And in my routes config I have made sure to allow all routes for the relationships controller resources :relationships But I can't seem to get into the destroy method of the controller :( However if I remove the :html => {:method => 'delete'} method parameter in the form_for then I get to the create method of the controller no pb. I don't get it.... Alex

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  • SWIG interface to receive an opaque struct reference in Java through function argument

    - by Beeo
    I am trying to use SWIG in order to use the Spotify API (libspotify) for Android: https://developer.spotify.com/technologies/libspotify/ I am having trouble defining the SWIG interface file to be able to successfully call the following native C function: sp_error sp_session_create(const sp_session_config * config, sp_session ** sess); Which in C would be called like this: //config struct defined previously sp_session *sess; sp_session_create(&config, &sess); But in Java I would need to call it like this: //config object defined previously sp_session javaSess = new sp_session(); sp_session_create(config, javaSess); sp_session is an opaque struct and is only defined in libspotify's API.h file as: typedef struct sp_session sp_session; I'm expecting the libspotify library to create it and give me a reference to it. The only thing I need that reference for then is to pass to other functions in the API. I believe the answer lies within the SWIG interface and typemaps, but I have been unsuccessful in trying to apply the examples I found in the documentation: http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_struct_pointer_pointer `http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_using_typemaps_return_arguments Help!

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  • Multiple remote_form_for on the same page causes duplicate ids

    - by Ben Scheirman
    I've got a rails app that displays a list of items called modules. I'm iterating over these, rendering a partial for each one that includes a remote_form_for call. This all works, but fails HTML validation because my form text fields all have the same id. Is there a :prefix option on the form (or something else) I can use to get around this? Update: (some code) //_module_form.html.erb <% remote_form_for app_module do |f| %> <%= f.label :name %> <%= f.text_field :name %> <%= submit_tag 'Save' %> <%end %> //parent page <% @thing.modules.each do |app_module| %> <%= render :partial => "module_form", :locals => { :app_module => app_module } %> <% end %> So if I have more than 1 item in the collection, I render the identical form on the same page, and the form id and textbox id are duplicated. I can customize the form id pretty easily, but what about the text_box, since the controller is looking for specific named controls?

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  • Wrong answer on c# application, finding the n prime of a list of prime numbers.

    - by user300484
    Hello, I am new to C# and I am practicing by trying to solve this easy C# problem. This application will receive an "n" number. After receiving this number, the program has to show the n prime of the list of primes. For example, if the user enters "3", the program is supposed to display "5", because 5 is the third prime starting at 2. I koow that something is wrong with my code but I dont know where is the problem and how I can fix it. Can you please tell me? Thank you :P using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Determinar el n-esimo primo."); long n = Convert.ToInt64(Console.ReadLine()); // N lugar de primos long[] array = new long[n]; long c=0; while (c >= 2) { if(siprimo(c++) == true) for (long i = 0; i < n; i++) { array[i] = c; } } Console.WriteLine(array[n - 1]); Console.ReadLine(); } static private bool siprimo(long x) { bool sp = true; for (long k = 2; k <= x / 2; k++) if (x % k == 0) sp = false; return sp; } } }

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  • Jboss 6 Cluster Singleton Clustered

    - by DanC
    I am trying to set up a Jboss 6 in a clustered environment, and use it to host clustered stateful singleton EJBs. So far we succesfully installed a Singleton EJB within the cluster, where different entrypoints to our application (through a website deployed on each node) point to a single environment on which the EJB is hosted (thus mantaining the state of static variables). We achieved this using the following configuration: Bean interface: @Remote public interface IUniverse { ... } Bean implementation: @Clustered @Stateful public class Universe implements IUniverse { private static Vector<String> messages = new Vector<String>(); ... } jboss-beans.xml configuration: <deployment xmlns="urn:jboss:bean-deployer:2.0"> <!-- This bean is an example of a clustered singleton --> <bean name="Universe" class="Universe"> </bean> <bean name="UniverseController" class="org.jboss.ha.singleton.HASingletonController"> <property name="HAPartition"><inject bean="HAPartition"/></property> <property name="target"><inject bean="Universe"/></property> <property name="targetStartMethod">startSingleton</property> <property name="targetStopMethod">stopSingleton</property> </bean> </deployment> The main problem for this implementation is that, after the master node (the one that contains the state of the singleton EJB) shuts down gracefuly, the Singleton's state is lost and reset to default. Please note that everything was constructed following the JBoss 5 Clustering documents, as no JBoss 6 documents were found on this subject. Any information on how to solve this problem or where to find JBoss 6 documention on clustering is appreciated.

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  • Design: How to declare a specialized memory handler class

    - by Michael Dorgan
    On an embedded type system, I have created a Small Object Allocator that piggy backs on top of a standard memory allocation system. This allocator is a Boost::simple_segregated_storage< class and it does exactly what I need - O(1) alloc/dealloc time on small objects at the cost of a touch of internal fragmentation. My question is how best to declare it. Right now, it's scope static declared in our mem code module, which is probably fine, but it feels a bit exposed there and is also now linked to that module forever. Normally, I declare it as a monostate or a singleton, but this uses the dynamic memory allocator (where this is located.) Furthermore, our dynamic memory allocator is being initialized and used before static object initialization occurs on our system (as again, the memory manager is pretty much the most fundamental component of an engine.) To get around this catch 22, I added an extra 'if the small memory allocator exists' to see if the small object allocator exists yet. That if that now must be run on every small object allocation. In the scheme of things, this is nearly negligable, but it still bothers me. So the question is, is there a better way to declare this portion of the memory manager that helps decouple it from the memory module and perhaps not costing that extra isinitialized() if statement? If this method uses dynamic memory, please explain how to get around lack of initialization of the small object portion of the manager.

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • jquery ajax post not working with .load in codeigniter

    - by bravo
    i wish to .load multiple views result with jquery ajax the original code (js) $(document).ready(function(){ $("#uid").change( function(){ var uid=$("#uid").val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail') ?>", dataType: "json", data: "uid="+uid, cache:false, success: function(data){ $("#content").html(data); } }); return false; }); }); this return only one result in what if i want to load 3 results like in <div id="content"></div> <div id="content1"></div> <div id="content2"></div> content could be userid content2 could be user first name content3 could be user last name my js should using .load instead of html right? let me know if i'm wrong. success: function(data){ $("#content").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content2").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content3").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); } i stuck with this thing for whole day.. please anyone show me the right way to do the controller and js code.

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