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• Making Firefox render canvas text the same as CSS text

  - by Dan Forys

  I've been experimenting with the canvas tag and Javascript. I've made a page that takes Tweets from the Twitter public timeline and animates them into view. It works by using a canvas element in the background for the animation. When the animation is complete, it creates a div element with the same text over the top. I do this so that the tweet text is selectable and links are clickable. Now, in Safari, Chrome and even Opera, the canvas text and div text look almost exactly the same. Yet in Firefox, the size of the text is different enough to make it 'jump' at the point it changes into the div. Does anyone know how to make Firefox render the text the same on the canvas element and the div using CSS? Or is this a rendering inconsistency with the engine. I have put the page on my website if you want to see what I mean. Now for the code: The CSS I'm using for rendering the div contains: line-height: 21px; font-weight: 100; font-family: Georgia, "New Century Schoolbook", "Nimbus Roman No9 L", serif; font-size: 20px; For rendering on the canvas I'm using: this.context.font = this.scale + 'px Georgia'; this.context.fillStyle = "white"; this.context.strokeStyle = 'white'; this.context.fillText(this.text, 0, 0); this.context.strokeText(this.text, 0, 0); where this.scale is an animated scale factor that finishes at 20px exactly. So, to recap, I'm using the same font and ending up at the same px size, yet Firefox renders the text differently between Canvas and CSS. (edit) Here's a screenshot example: First line is the text animating in using canvas, second line is the resulting div.

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• iPhone UI addSubview causing concurrency exception

  - by Eli

  This is really odd... I run my app, and while it is opening and the views are constructing I get: Collection <CALayerArray: 0x124650> was mutated while being enumerated. The code trace goes through the following: main UIApplicationMain -[UIApplication _run] CFRunLoopRunInMode CFRunLoopRunSpecific _UIApplicationHandleEvent -[UIApplication sendEvent:] -[UIApplication handleEvent:withNewEvent:] -[UIApplication _runWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[UIApplication _performInitilizationWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[AppDelegate applicationDidFinishLaunching:] +[Controller initializeController] //This is my own function [window addSubview: pauseMenuController.view] //This is the last point of my code it goes through -[UIView(Hierarchy) addSubview:] -[UIView(Internal) _addSubview:positioned:relativeTo:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] _NSFastEnumerationMutationHandler objc_exception_throw I've run the game lots and lots and lots of times and I've never seen this, then suddenly it popped up. The weird thing is that I'm not creating any other threads (that I know of) until after this code all gets called. It'll be easier for me to debug this if someone can give me some explanation of what might be getting modified while it's being accessed in a UIView. Does it have something to do with adding something to the view while it's already adding something, maybe? Any ideas?

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• How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

  - by Soul_Master

  I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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• Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

  - by Dave

  A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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• UCMA 3.0 How to build a list of recipients and then broadcast an IM call to those recipients

  - by ficuscr

  I am developing an application using UCMA 3.0 that will run as a service and send out periodic 'broadcasts' in the form of Instant Message calls. I have been using the book "Professional Unified Communications Development with Microsoft Lync Server 2010" and have everything provisioned fine and am able to establish an application endpoint. I am stuck on two aspects though. 1) How to get a list of all users of Lync? Everything the UCMA can do is centered on a single user. For example it allows me to retrieve all contacts/groups present on a given users 'contact list' but does not provide any means to query for a list of available contacts that could be added to one of those contact lists. On the MSDN forum I found this post which leads me to think my best bet is simply to query AD directly. 2) What is the best way to actually send a broadcast style IM? My working premise is to attempt something like what I've found in this code example (specifically the public void SendIM() method). So, get a list of recipients from AD, (looping on each on to check current presence?), and then use Automation to make the IM call for each recipient in the collection. Does that make sense? Do I need to check presence of the recipient or do I just optimistically make the IM calls irregardless of their current presence status? Can anyone point me to some working code demonstrating sending an IM broadcast? You would think this is probably one of the most common use cases however the SDK samples do not cover it. Thanks in advance.

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• function's return address is different from its supposed value, buffer overflow,

  - by ultrajohn

  Good day everyone! I’m trying to understand how buffer overflow works. I’m doing this for my project in a computer security course I’m taking. Right now, I’m in the process of determining the address of the function’s return address which I’m supposed to change to perform a buffer overflow attack. I’ve written a simple program based from an example I’ve read in the internet. What this program does is it creates an integer pointer that will be made to point to the address of the function return address in the stack. To do this, (granted I understand how a function/program variables get organized in the stack), I add 8 to the buffer variable’ address and set it as the value of ret. I’m not doing anything here that would change the address contained in the location of func’s return address. here's the program: Output of the program when gets excecuted: As you can see, I’m printing the address of the variables buffer and ret. I’ve added an additional statement printing the value of the ret variable (supposed location of func return address, so this should print the address of the next instruction which will get executed after func returns from execution). Here is the dump which shows the supposed address of the instruction to be executed after func returns. (Underlined in green) As you can see, that value is way different from the value printed contained in the variable ret. My question is, why are they different? (of course in the assumption that what I’ve done are all right). Else, what have I done wrong? Is my understanding of the program’s runtime stack wrong? Please, help me understand this. My project is due nextweek and I’ve barely touched it yet. I’m sorry if I’m being demanding, I badly need your help.

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• Positioning SVG Elements

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  In the course of toying with SVG for the first time (using the Raphael library), I've run into a problem positioning dynamic elements on the canvas in such a way that they're completely contained within the canvas. What I'm trying to do is randomly position n words/short phrases. Since the text is variable, its position needs to be variable as well so what I'm doing is: Initially creating the text at point 0,0 with no opacity. Checking the width of the drawn text element using text.getBBox().width. Setting a new x coordinate as Math.random() * (canvas_width - ( text_width/2 ) - pad). Altering the x coordinate of the text to the newly set value (text.attr( 'x', x ) ). Setting the opacity attribute of the text to 1. I'll be the first to admit that my math acumen is limited, but this seems pretty straightforward. Somehow, I still end up with text running off beyond the right edge of my canvas. For simplicity above, I removed the bit that also sets a minimum x value by adding it to the Math.random() result. It is there, though, and I see the same problem on the leading edge of the canvas. My understanding (such as it is), is that the Math.random() bits would generate a number between 0 and 1 which could then be multiplied by some number (in my case, the canvas width - half of the text width - some arbitrary padding) to get the outer bound. I'm dividing the width of the text in half because its position on the grid is set at its center. I hope I've just been staring at this for too long, but is my math that rusty or am I misunderstanding something about the behavior of Math.random(), SVG, text or anything else that's under the hood of this solution?

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• pattern matching in .Net consistent with IsolatedStorageFile.GetFileNames() pattern matching

  - by Mick N

  Is the pattern matching logic used by this API exposed for reuse somewhere in the .Net Framework? Something of the form FilePatternMatch( string searchPattern, stringfileNameToTest ) is what I'm looking for. I'm implementing a temporary workaround for WP7 not filtering the results for this overload and I'd like the solution to both provide a consistent experience and avoid reinventing this functionality if it is exposed. If the behaviour is not exposed for reuse, a regular expression solution (like glob pattern matching in .NET) will suffice and would save me spending the time to test the fine details of what the behaviour should be. Perhaps one of the answers posted in the thread linked above is correct. Since I haven't confirmed the exact behaviour as yet, I wasn't able to determine this at a glance. Feel free to point me to one of those answers if you know it is behaviouraly an exact match to the API referenced in the question title. I could assume the pattern matching is consistent with how DOS handled * and ? in 8.3 file names (I'm familiar with behavioural nuances of that implementation), but it's reasonable to assume Microsoft has evolved pattern matching behaviour for file names in the decade+ since so I thought I would check before proceeding on that assumption.

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• object_getInstanceVariable works for float, int, bool, but not for double?

  - by Russel West

  I've got object_getInstanceVariable to work as here however it seems to only work for floats, bools and ints not doubles. I do suspect I'm doing something wrong but I've been going in circles with this. float myFloatValue; float someFloat = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someFloat", (void*)&myFloatValue); works, and myFloatValue = 2.123 but when I try double myDoubleValue; double someDouble = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); i get myDoubleValue = 0. If I try to set myDoubleValue before the function eg. double myDoubleValue = 1.2f, the value is unchanged when I read it after the object_getInstanceVariable call. setting myIntValue to some other value before the getinstancevar function above returns 2 as it should, ie. it has been changed. then I tried Ivar tmpIvar = object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); if i do ivar_getName(tmpIvar) i get "someDouble", but myDoubuleValue = 0 still! then i try ivar_getTypeEncoding(tmpIvar) and i get "d" as it should be. So to summarize, if typeEncoding = float, it works, if it is a double, the result is not set but it correctly reads the variable and the return value (Ivar) is also correct. I must be doing something basic wrong that I cant see so I'd appreciate if someone could point it out.

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• CSS compilers and converting IE hacks to conditional css

  - by xckpd7

  Skip to bottom for question, but first, a little context. So I have been looking into CSS compilers (like Sass & Less) for a while, and have been really interested in them, not because they help me understand anything easier (I've been doing css for a couple of years now) but rather they cut down on cruft and help me see things easier. I recently have been looking into reliably implementing inline-block (and clearfix), which require lots of extraneous code & hacks. Now according to all the authorities in the field, I shouldn't put IE hacks in the same page I do my CSS in, I should make them conditional. But for me that is a really big hassle to go through and manage all this additional code, which is why I really like things like Less. Instead of applying unsemantic classes, you specify a mixin and apply it once, and you're all set. So I guess I got a little of the track (I wanted to explain my points) but bascially, I'm at the point where these CSS compilers are very useful for me, and allow me to abstract a lot of the cruft away, and reliably apply them once and then just compile it. I would like to have a way to be able to compile IE specific styles into their own conditional files (ala Less / Sass) so I don't have to deal with managing 2 files for no reason. Does anything like a script/applcation that runs and can make underscore / star hacks apart of their own file exist?

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• WCF Double Hop questions about Security and Binding.

  - by Ken Maglio

  Background information: .Net Website which calls a service (aka external service) facade on an app server in the DMZ. This external service then calls the internal service which is on our internal app server. From there that internal service calls a stored procedure (Linq to SQL Classes), and passes the serialized data back though to the external service, and from there back to the website. We've done this so any communication goes through an external layer (our external app server) and allows interoperability; we access our data just like our clients consuming our services. We've gotten to the point in our development where we have completed the system and it all works, the double hop acts as it should. However now we are working on securing the entire process. We are looking at using TransportWithMessageCredentials. We want to have WS2007HttpBinding for the external for interoperability, but then netTCPBinding for the bridge through the firewall for security and speed. Questions: If we choose WS2007HttpBinding as the external services binding, and netTCPBinding for the internal service is this possible? I know WS-* supports this as does netTCP, however do they play nice when passing credential information like user/pass? If we go to Kerberos, will this impact anything? We may want to do impersonation in the future. If you can when you answer post any reference links about why you're answering the way you are, that would be very helpful to us. Thanks!

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• treeview loses data when page is being refreshed in asp.net

  - by Greg

  Hi, I have a treeview and I written a code for his "treeNodePopulate" event: protected void ycActiveTree_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (Application["idList"] != null && e.Node.Depth == 0) { string[] words = ((String)Application["idList"]).Split(' '); // Yellow Card details TreeNode child = new TreeNode(""); // Go over all the yellow card details and populate the treeview for (int i = 1; i < words.Length; i++) { child.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.None; // Same yellow card if (words[i] != "*") { // End of details and start of point ip's if (words[i] == "$") { // Add the yellow card node TreeNode yellowCardNode = new TreeNode(child.Text); yellowCardNode.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.Expand; e.Node.ChildNodes.Add(yellowCardNode); child.Text = ""; } // yellow card details else { child.Text = child.Text + words[i] + " "; } } // End of yellow card else { child.PopulateOnDemand = false; child.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.None; // Populate the yellow card node e.Node.ChildNodes[e.Node.ChildNodes.Count - 1].ChildNodes.Add(child); TreeNode moveChild = new TreeNode("Move To Reviewed"); moveChild.PopulateOnDemand = false; moveChild.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.Select; e.Node.ChildNodes[e.Node.ChildNodes.Count - 1].ChildNodes.Add(moveChild); child = new TreeNode(""); } } Application["idList"] = null; } } I want the treenode to get the data from the Application variable and then nullify the Application variable so that the tree will take data from Applcation only if there is something in it (I put data into the application from another page and then redirect to this page) But when I refresh this page the data in the treenode isnt being saved. I mean after the refresh the Application is null so he isnt doing anything. The question is why is the data that I put in the treenode earlier isnt being saved? The "enableViewState" property is set to "true".. Thanks in advance, Greg

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• What does the \- mean in the mvn dependency tree output

  - by Calm Storm

  Hi, I tried doing a mvn dependency:tree and I get a tree of dependencies. The output looks like below. I want to know what is the "-" symbol that is shown at times and the "+-" symbol for other dependencies (it doesnt seem to be the scope) My actual question is, My project depends on many modules which internally depends on many spring artifacts. There are a few version clashes. I want to upgrade all spring related libraries to say the latest one (2.6.x or above). What is the preferred way to do this? Should I declare all the deps spring-context, spring-support (and 10 other artifacts) in my pom.xml and point them to 2.6.x ? Is there any other better method ? [INFO] +- com.xxxx:yyy-jar:jar:1.0-SNAPSHOT:compile [INFO] | +- com.xxxx:zzz-commons:jar:1.0-SNAPSHOT:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-dao:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-jdbc:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-web:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- org.springframework:spring-support:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | | +- net.sf.ehcache:ehcache:jar:1.2:compile [INFO] | | +- commons-collections:commons-collections:jar:3.2:compile [INFO] | | +- aspectj:aspectjweaver:jar:1.5.3:compile [INFO] | | +- betex-commons:betex-commons:jar:5.5.1-2:compile [INFO] | | \- javax.servlet:servlet-api:jar:2.4:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-beans:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-jmx:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.springframework:spring-remoting:jar:2.0.7:compile [INFO] | +- org.apache.cxf:cxf-rt-core:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile [INFO] | | +- org.apache.cxf:cxf-api:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.apache.geronimo.specs:geronimo-activation_1.1_spec:jar:1.0-M1:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.codehaus.woodstox:wstx-asl:jar:3.2.1:compile [INFO] | | | +- org.apache.neethi:neethi:jar:2.0.2:compile [INFO] | | | \- org.apache.cxf:cxf-common-schemas:jar:2.0.2-incubator:compile

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• x86 CMP Instruction Difference

  - by Pindatjuh

  Question What is the (non-trivial) difference between the following two x86 instructions? 39 /r CMP r/m32,r32 Compare r32 with r/m32 3B /r CMP r32,r/m32 Compare r/m32 with r32 Background I'm building a Java assembler, which will be used by my compiler's intermediate language to produce Windows-32 executables. Currently I have following code: final ModelBase mb = new ModelBase(); // create new memory model mb.addCode(new Compare(Register.ECX, Register.EAX)); // add code mb.addCode(new Compare(Register.EAX, Register.ECX)); // add code final FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(new File("test.exe")); mb.writeToFile(fos); fos.close(); To output a valid executable file, which contains two CMP instruction in a TEXT-section. The executable outputted to "text.exe" will do nothing interesting, but that's not the point. The class Compare is a wrapper around the CMP instruction. The above code produces (inspecting with OllyDbg): Address Hex dump Command 0040101F |. 3BC8 CMP ECX,EAX 00401021 |. 3BC1 CMP EAX,ECX The difference is subtle: if I use the 39 byte-opcode: Address Hex dump Command 0040101F |. 39C1 CMP ECX,EAX 00401021 |. 39C8 CMP EAX,ECX Which makes me wonder about their synonymity and why this even exists.

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• Are there any applications written in the Io programming language? (Or, distributing Io applications

  - by Rayne

  I've recently become interested in prototype-based OOP, and I've been playing with Io and Ioke. Distributing an application with Ioke is simple. It's on the JVM. Need I say more? However, I'm absolutely stumped as to how one would distribute an Io application, especially on Windows. It's not like you can have end-users compile Io to run your application. I was actually shocked the Io has gone for 8 years without forming some sort of standards for things like distribution. Ruby has gems, Java has jars, and so on. The worse thing about it is, I can't find a single application written in Io to maybe steal ideas on distribution from. Maybe I suck at google searching (Io is a horrible search name, by the way ;P). Is there any sort of canonical way to distribute Io applications? Are there even any Io applications in existence, or am I just missing the point? I'm not sure if this should be community wiki or not. If you think it should, comment and let me know.

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• C# Entity FrameWork MySQL Slow Queries Count()

  - by Matthew M.

  Hello, I'm having a serious issue with MySQL and Entity Framework 4.0. I have dropped a Table onto the EF Designer surface, and everything seems OK. However, when I perform a query in the following fashion: using(entityContext dc = new entityContext()) { int numRows = dc.myTable.Count(); } The query that is generated looks something like this: SELECT `GroupBy1`.`A1` AS `C1` FROM (SELECT Count(1) AS `A1` FROM (SELECT `pricing table`.`a`, `pricing table`.`b`, `pricing table`.`c`, `pricing table`.`d`, `pricing table`.`e`, `pricing table`.`f`, `pricing table`.`g`, `pricing table`.`h`, `pricing table`.`i` FROM `pricing table` AS `pricing table`) AS `Extent1`) AS `GroupBy1` As should be evident, this is an excruciatingly unoptimized query. It is selecting every single row! This is not optimal, nor is it even possible for me to use MySQL + EF at this point. I have tried both the MySQL 6.3.1 [that was fun to install] and DevArt's dotConnect for MySQL and both produce the same results. This table has 1.5 million records.. and takes 6-11s to execute! What am I doing wrong ? Is there any way to optimize this [and other queries] to produce sane code like: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table ? Generating the same query using SQLServer takes virtually no time and produces sane code. Help! Thanks! Matthew

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• PerformancePoint dashboard permissions problem in MOSS

  - by Nathan DeWitt

  I have a PerformancePoint dashboard running in MOSS 2007 portal. The dashboard consists of one SSRS 2005 report, running in SharePoint Integrated mode. NT Authority\Authenticated Users have read permissions to the report library containing the SSRS report, the dashboard, and the report library containing the dashboard. Users that attempt to access the dashboard receive the following error message: The permissions granted to user 'DOMAIN\firstname.lastname' are insufficient for performing this operation. (rsAccessDenied) Users that then click on the direct link to the report in MOSS will see the report with no problem. Subsequent visits to the dashboard show the report with no problem. The report is using a data source that is located one folder up from the report location. The report has been updated to point to the correct shared data source after deployment. Both the report and the data source have been published. The data source is using stored credentials, with a domain service account that has been set to Use as Windows credentials. This service account is serving other reports in other areas with no problem. Edit: Ok, I've gotten a lot more information on this problem. The request is never actually being made to the data source. The user comes in to the dashboard and requests a report for the first time using their kerberos token identifying themselves. The report looks in the Report Server database and finds that they are not listed in the users table and generates this rsAccessDenied error. Once they view the report directly their name is in this table and they never have the problem again. Unfortunately, removing the user from the Users table in the RS database doesn't actually cause this error to happen again. Everything I've read says that when you run a Report Server in MOSS integrated mode all your permissions are handled at the MOSS report library level, and all Auth users have permissions to the report library, as stated earlier. Any ideas?

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• iPhone offline reading

  - by Andy

  Hi, first of all - I am quite new to iPhone App development (3 months). I am working for a software company that offers a content management system. Our customers are for the main part publishing houses for magazines. They use our software to write articles to their homepages. Now we want to offer iPhone Applications to go with our cms. What I have accomplished so far is an RSS reader that shows newly published articles in a list view. The user selects one article and is redirected to a specially formatted detail view of this article. The next step is to add offline reading capabilities. I have searched the internet up and down but couldn't find anything like a best practice for that. I get it that there are two possibilities in general: Store the contents of the uiwebview locally on the iPhone/iPad (including css, images, js and so on). There would be the need to rework the basic html to use the downloaded css, images and js. Also I would have to somehow edit hyperlinks to following pages in multipage articles - Sounds like a lot of work ;) Create a PDF on the server side and download that to the mobile device. Rework the RSS Source to point to the locally saved pdf instead of the website on the server. My question is - what is the better way to go? Are there any downsides for either of the possibilities? Are there other (simple ;)) ways to implement offline reading features? Are there possibly any howto's that I could've missed? Thanks y'all!

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• PostgreSQL: Auto-partition a table

  - by Adam Matan

  Hi, I have a huge database which holds pairs of numbers (A,B), each ranging from 0 to 10,000 and stored as floats. e.g., (1, 9984.4), (2143.44, 124.243), (0.55, 0), ... Since the PostgreSQL table which stores these pairs grew quite large, I have decided to partition it into inheriting sub-tables. I intend to create 100 such tables, each storing a range of 1000x1000. The problem is that these numbers tend to come in large chunks of nearby numbers. It means that in the future, some tables will be nearly empty and some will hold a very large portion of the database. Unfortunately, the distribution of future pairs is yet unknown. I am looking for a way to automatically repartition my table. That means that if a certain subtable holds more than a specific number of pairs, it will be automatically partitioned into four sub-sub tables, and so on. My questions are: Is recursive partitioning and inheritance possible in PostgreSQL 8.3? Will indexes and query plans understand it? What's the best way to split a subtable once it grew too large? I should point out that this isn't a live database, so a downtime of few hours every week is totally acceptable. Thanks in advance, Adam

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• Thumbnail Provider not working

  - by Dan

  I'm trying to write a Windows Explorer thumbnail handler for our custom file type. I've got this working fine for the preview pane, but am having trouble getting it to work for the thumbnails. Windows doesn't even seem to be trying to call the DllGetClassObject entry point. Before I continue, note that I'm using Windows 7 and unmanaged C++. I've registered the following values in the registry: HKCR\CLSID\<my guid> HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32 (default value being path to my DLL) HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32\ThreadingModel (value = "Apartment") HKCR\.<my ext>\shellex\{E357FCCD-A995-4576-B01F-234630154E96} (value = my guid) I've also tried using the Win SDK sample, and that doesn't work. And also the sample project in this article (http://www.codemonkeycodes.com/2010/01/11/ithumbnailprovider-re-visited/), and that doesn't work. I'm new to shell programming, so not really sure the best way of debugging this. I've tried attaching the debugger to explorer.exe, but that doesn't seem to work (breakpoints get disabled, and none of my OutputDebugStrings get displayed in the output window). Note that I tried setting the "DesktopProcess" in the registry as described in the WinSDK docs for debugging the shell, but I'm still only seeing one explorer.exe in the task manager - so that "may" be why I can't debug it?? Any help with this would be greatly appreciated! Regards, Dan.

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• How do I make Linux recognize a new SATA /dev/sda drive I hot swapped in without rebooting?

  - by Philip Durbin

  Hot swapping out a failed SATA /dev/sda drive worked fine, but when I went to swap in a new drive, it wasn't recognized: [root@fs-2 ~]# tail -18 /var/log/messages May 5 16:54:35 fs-2 kernel: ata1: exception Emask 0x10 SAct 0x0 SErr 0x50000 action 0xe frozen May 5 16:54:35 fs-2 kernel: ata1: SError: { PHYRdyChg CommWake } May 5 16:54:40 fs-2 kernel: ata1: link is slow to respond, please be patient (ready=0) May 5 16:54:45 fs-2 kernel: ata1: device not ready (errno=-16), forcing hardreset May 5 16:54:45 fs-2 kernel: ata1: soft resetting link May 5 16:54:50 fs-2 kernel: ata1: link is slow to respond, please be patient (ready=0) May 5 16:54:55 fs-2 kernel: ata1: SRST failed (errno=-16) May 5 16:54:55 fs-2 kernel: ata1: soft resetting link May 5 16:55:00 fs-2 kernel: ata1: link is slow to respond, please be patient (ready=0) May 5 16:55:05 fs-2 kernel: ata1: SRST failed (errno=-16) May 5 16:55:05 fs-2 kernel: ata1: soft resetting link May 5 16:55:10 fs-2 kernel: ata1: link is slow to respond, please be patient (ready=0) May 5 16:55:40 fs-2 kernel: ata1: SRST failed (errno=-16) May 5 16:55:40 fs-2 kernel: ata1: limiting SATA link speed to 1.5 Gbps May 5 16:55:40 fs-2 kernel: ata1: soft resetting link May 5 16:55:45 fs-2 kernel: ata1: SRST failed (errno=-16) May 5 16:55:45 fs-2 kernel: ata1: reset failed, giving up May 5 16:55:45 fs-2 kernel: ata1: EH complete I tried a couple things to make the server find the new /dev/sda, such as rescan-scsi-bus.sh but they didn't work: [root@fs-2 ~]# echo "---" > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan -bash: echo: write error: Invalid argument [root@fs-2 ~]# [root@fs-2 ~]# /root/rescan-scsi-bus.sh -l [snip] 0 new device(s) found. 0 device(s) removed. [root@fs-2 ~]# [root@fs-2 ~]# ls /dev/sda ls: /dev/sda: No such file or directory I ended up rebooting the server. /dev/sda was recognized, I fixed the software RAID, and everything is fine now. But for next time, how can I make Linux recognize a new SATA drive I have hot swapped in without rebooting? The operating system in question is RHEL5.3: [root@fs-2 ~]# cat /etc/redhat-release Red Hat Enterprise Linux Server release 5.3 (Tikanga) The hard drive is a Seagate Barracuda ES.2 SATA 3.0-Gb/s 500-GB, model ST3500320NS. Here is the lscpi output: [root@fs-2 ~]# lspci 00:00.0 RAM memory: nVidia Corporation MCP55 Memory Controller (rev a2) 00:01.0 ISA bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 LPC Bridge (rev a3) 00:01.1 SMBus: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SMBus (rev a3) 00:02.0 USB Controller: nVidia Corporation MCP55 USB Controller (rev a1) 00:02.1 USB Controller: nVidia Corporation MCP55 USB Controller (rev a2) 00:04.0 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 IDE (rev a1) 00:05.0 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SATA Controller (rev a3) 00:05.1 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SATA Controller (rev a3) 00:05.2 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SATA Controller (rev a3) 00:06.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI bridge (rev a2) 00:08.0 Bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 Ethernet (rev a3) 00:09.0 Bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 Ethernet (rev a3) 00:0a.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0b.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0c.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0d.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0e.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0f.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:18.0 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] HyperTransport Technology Configuration 00:18.1 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] Address Map 00:18.2 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] DRAM Controller 00:18.3 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] Miscellaneous Control 00:19.0 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] HyperTransport Technology Configuration 00:19.1 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] Address Map 00:19.2 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] DRAM Controller 00:19.3 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K8 [Athlon64/Opteron] Miscellaneous Control 03:00.0 VGA compatible controller: Matrox Graphics, Inc. MGA G200e [Pilot] ServerEngines (SEP1) (rev 02) 04:00.0 PCI bridge: NEC Corporation uPD720400 PCI Express - PCI/PCI-X Bridge (rev 06) 04:00.1 PCI bridge: NEC Corporation uPD720400 PCI Express - PCI/PCI-X Bridge (rev 06) Update: In perhaps a dozen cases, we've been forced to reboot servers because hot swap hasn't "just worked." Thanks for the answers to look more into the SATA controller. I've included the lspci output for the problematic system above (hostname: fs-2). I could still use some help understanding what exactly isn't supported hardware-wise in terms of hot swap for that system. Please let me know what other output besides lspci might be useful. The good news is that hot swap "just worked" today on one of our servers (hostname: www-1), which is very rare for us. Here is the lspci output: [root@www-1 ~]# lspci 00:00.0 RAM memory: nVidia Corporation MCP55 Memory Controller (rev a2) 00:01.0 ISA bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 LPC Bridge (rev a3) 00:01.1 SMBus: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SMBus (rev a3) 00:02.0 USB Controller: nVidia Corporation MCP55 USB Controller (rev a1) 00:02.1 USB Controller: nVidia Corporation MCP55 USB Controller (rev a2) 00:04.0 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 IDE (rev a1) 00:05.0 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SATA Controller (rev a3) 00:05.1 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SATA Controller (rev a3) 00:05.2 IDE interface: nVidia Corporation MCP55 SATA Controller (rev a3) 00:06.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI bridge (rev a2) 00:08.0 Bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 Ethernet (rev a3) 00:09.0 Bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 Ethernet (rev a3) 00:0b.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0c.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:0f.0 PCI bridge: nVidia Corporation MCP55 PCI Express bridge (rev a3) 00:18.0 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] HyperTransport Configuration 00:18.1 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] Address Map 00:18.2 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] DRAM Controller 00:18.3 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] Miscellaneous Control 00:18.4 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] Link Control 00:19.0 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] HyperTransport Configuration 00:19.1 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] Address Map 00:19.2 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] DRAM Controller 00:19.3 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] Miscellaneous Control 00:19.4 Host bridge: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] K10 [Opteron, Athlon64, Sempron] Link Control 03:00.0 VGA compatible controller: Matrox Graphics, Inc. MGA G200e [Pilot] ServerEngines (SEP1) (rev 02) 04:00.0 PCI bridge: NEC Corporation uPD720400 PCI Express - PCI/PCI-X Bridge (rev 06) 04:00.1 PCI bridge: NEC Corporation uPD720400 PCI Express - PCI/PCI-X Bridge (rev 06) 09:00.0 SCSI storage controller: LSI Logic / Symbios Logic SAS1064ET PCI-Express Fusion-MPT SAS (rev 04)

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• Decrypting a string in C# which was encrypted with openssl in php 5.3.2

  - by panny

  maybe someone can clear me up. I have been surfing on this a while now. I used openssl from console to create a root certificate for me (privatekey.pem, publickey.pem, mycert.pem, mycertprivatekey.pfx). See the end of this text on how. The problem is still to get a string encrypted on the PHP side to be decrypted on the C# side with RSACryptoServiceProvider. Any ideas? PHP side I used the publickey.pem to read it into php: $server_public_key = openssl_pkey_get_public(file_get_contents("C:\publickey.pem")); // rsa encrypt openssl_public_encrypt("123", $encrypted, $server_public_key); and the privatekey.pem to check if it works: openssl_private_decrypt($encrypted, $decrypted, openssl_get_privatekey(file_get_contents("C:\privatekey.pem"))); Coming to the conclusion, that encryption/decryption works fine on the php side with these openssl root certificate files. C# side In same manner I read the keys into a .net C# console program: X509Certificate2 myCert2 = new X509Certificate2(); RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); try { myCert2 = new X509Certificate2(@"C:\mycertprivatekey.pfx"); rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)myCert2.PrivateKey; } catch (Exception e) { } string t = Convert.ToString(rsa.Decrypt(rsa.Encrypt(test, false), false)); coming to the point, that encryption/decryption works fine on the c# side with these openssl root certificate files. key generation on unix 1) openssl req -x509 -nodes -days 3650 -newkey rsa:1024 -keyout privatekey.pem -out mycert.pem 2) openssl rsa -in privatekey.pem -pubout -out publickey.pem 3) openssl pkcs12 -export -out mycertprivatekey.pfx -in mycert.pem -inkey privatekey.pem -name "my certificate"

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• How do I use an SWT Control to render the content of an SWT/JFace table?

  - by jastram

  I have a JFace TableViewer with an SWT Table, and I would like to custom render the content of some cells. I would like to use an SWT Control to render the cell content. I would prefer to have only one instance of the Control doing the rendering, but if I have to instantiate one for each row, that would be acceptable. Next, the solution MUST be compatible with the ContentProvider/LabelProvider approach (I am using EMF). This means that I cannot use the solution described in Sniplet 126 (http://dev.eclipse.org/viewcvs/index.cgi/org.eclipse.swt.snippets). Next, I though about using custom drawing. But here the catch is, that I have to send individual drawing operations to the graphics context. I was trying to have the Control render the content for me by calling redraw() or print(GC) upon SWT.PaintItem, but that just lead to uncontrollable flickering. At this point, my best guess is to use SWT.PaintItem to do the drawing. This will result in duplicate code, as I already have a Control that can render the content the way I'd like it. I'd like to prevent this redundancy. Any help is appreciated!

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• Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

  - by Davis

  Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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• Debugging a release only flash problem

  - by Fire Lancer

  I've got an Adobe Flash 10 program that freezes in certain cases, however only when running under a release version of the flash player. With the debug version, the application works fine. What are the best approaches to debugging such issues? I considered installing the release player on my computer and trying to set some kind of non-graphical method of output up (I guess there's some way to write a log file or similar?), however I see no way to have both the release and debug versions installed anyway :( . EDIT: Ok I managed to replace my version of flash player with the release version, and no freeze...so what I know so far is: Flash: Debug Release Vista 32: works works XP PRO 32: works* freeze I gave them the debug players I had to test this Hmm, seeming less and less like an error in my code and more like a bug in the player (10.0.45.2 in all cases)... At the very least id like to see the callstack at the point it freezes. Is there some way to do that without requiring them to install various bits and pieces, e.g. by letting flash write out a log.txt or something with a "trace" like function I can insert in the code in question? EDIT2: I just gave the swf to another person with XP 32bit, same results :(

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