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  • how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

    - by user287745
    i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

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  • Error accessing uncompiled pages using ISA Server 2006 SP1

    - by Bravax
    We are in the processing of configuring a portal to use ISA Server as our front end security provider. So we are using ISA Server 2006 SP1. Unfortunately when we access .net applications through ISA Server, the first time they are accessed. i.e. They are not compiled yet, the following error appears: Error Code: 500 Internal Server Error. The parameter is incorrect. (87) In the ISA Monitoring logs, this shows: Failed Connection Attempt Log type: Web Proxy (Reverse) Status: 87 The parameter is incorrect. Once the application is compiled, the error never appears. Does anyone know how to resolve this, so the site works correctly the first time? Some additional information: The websites accessed are running on windows server 2008 64 bit - standard edition, and occurs for Sharepoint as well as standard .net websites. ISA Server is running on Windows server 2003 R2 SP2 Standard eidtion The firewall on the windows server 2008 box allows all access. (To rule this out.) Nothing odd appears in the IIS logs or firewall logs.

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • Best practice accessing an array set within a class

    - by user350599
    I have created a basic class for a customer. I haven't done this before and want to know the best way to access the data. Should I have a get() method for every field in the customer array or should I simply pass the customer array back and access with the page. i.e. Just return the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer() { return $this->customer; } } versus create a method for each item in the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer_name() { return $this->customer->customer_name; } ... ... } versus option 3 based on Tobias' feedback: (not sure if syntax is correct) class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); return mysql_fetch_row($query); } }

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  • jQuery: Targeting elements added via *non-jQuery* AJAX before any Javascript events fire? Beyond th

    - by peteorpeter
    Working on a Wicket application that adds markup to the DOM after onLoad via Wicket's built-in AJAX for an auto-complete widget. We have an IE6 glitch that means I need to reposition the markup coming in, and I am trying to avoid tampering with the Wicket javascript... blah blah blah... here's what I'm trying to do: New markup arrives in the DOM (I don't have access to a callback) Somehow I know this, so I fire my code. I tried this, hoping the new tags would trigger onLoad events: $("selectorForNewMarkup").live("onLoad", function(){ //using jQuery 1.4.1 //my code }); ...but have become educated that onLoad only fires on the initial page load. Is there another event fired when elements are added to the DOM? Or another way to sense changes to the DOM? Everything I've bumped into on similar issues with new markup additions, they have access to the callback function on .load() or similar, or they have a real javascript event to work with and live() works perfectly. Is this a pipe dream?

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  • Connect Rails model to non-rails database

    - by the_snitch
    I'm creating a new web application (Rails 3 beta), of which pieces of it will access data from a legacy mysql database that a current php application is using. I do not wish to modify the legacy db schema, I just want to be able to read/write to it, as well as the rails application having it's own database using activerecord for the newer stuff. I'm using mysql for the rails app, so I have the adapter installed. How is the best way to do this? For example, I want contacts to come from the old database. Should I create a contacts controller, and manually call sql to get the variables for the views? Or should I create a Contact model, and define attributes that match the fields in the database, and am I able to use it like Contact.mail_address to have it call "SELECT mailaddr FROM contacts WHERE id=Contact.id". Sorry, I've never done much in Rails outside of the standard stuff that is documented well. I'm not sure of what the best approach would be. Ideally, I want the contacts to be presented to my rails application as native as possible, so that I can expose them RESTfully for API access. Any suggestions and code examples would be much appreciated

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  • Double hashing passwords - client & server

    - by J. Stoever
    Hey, first, let me say, I'm not asking about things like md5(md5(..., there are already topics about it. My question is this: We allow our clients to store their passwords locally. Naturally, we don't want them stored in plan text, so we hmac them locally, before storing and/or sending. Now, this is fine, but if this is all we did, then the server would have the stored hmac, and since the client only needs to send the hmac, not the plain text password, an attacker could use the stored hashes from the server to access anyone's account (in the catastrophic scenario where someone would get such an access to the database, of course). So, our idea was to encode the password on the client once via hmac, send it to the server, and there encode it a second time via hmac and match it against the stored, two times hmac'ed password. This would ensure that: The client can store the password locally without having to store it as plain text The client can send the password without having to worry (too much) about other network parties The server can store the password without having to worry about someone stealing it from the server and using it to log in. Naturally, all the other things (strong passwords, double salt, etc) apply as well, but aren't really relevant to the question. The actual question is: does this sound like a solid security design ? Did we overlook any flaws with doing things this way ? Is there maybe a security pattern for something like this ?

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  • What can a company possibly gain by making Android phones hard to root?

    - by Chinmay Kanchi
    As someone who recently got a HTC Hero, I had to jump through several hoops to get root access on the phone to install custom firmware. Now, Android is open-source and fairly easy to build and hack on an emulator. It seems to be against the spirit of open-source to lock down a phone so you can't hack the phone itself. Now, often, there are understandable (though not always justifiable) reasons for locking a device down. For example, it might have proprietary software on it or you might want to retain control of the platform. However, Android by its open-source nature makes such concerns moot. Everyone and their dog has access to the userland code, and HTC is forced by the GPL to release kernel sources for each of their devices. So, I fail to see any motivation for alienating the hackers, when there is no possible benefit (in my mind) to be had from doing this. Any idea why a company would want to do this? Is it just short-sightedness or am I missing possible commercial implications of this?

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  • how to share a variable between two threads

    - by prmatta
    I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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  • ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

    - by Tedd Hansen
    I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • C++ Builder 2010 Exception Dead Lock ???

    - by James
    Hello Is this some kind of exception dead lock i am facing? How to avoid it ? Have a look at below line where i have TIdContext objects of connected clients stored in an objlist and at times i need to process it. But if one user is disconnected while another thread is processing the list, then for that freed TIdContext-Data object I am getting Access voilation, Ok its fine i am using try/catch but problem is that at below line there is some kind of dead lock and process hangs , if i attach a debuger it show Access voilation Again and Again and Again, and cpu coonsumption goes up because of that exception dead lock. AnsiString UserID = ((Tmyobject*) ((TIdContext*) ObjList->Objects[i])->Data)->UserID; i know i can check before accessing the object, if object is not Null, It works.. But my question is what if once in a blue moon the Data object is freed at the point when NULL check is performed and on next line when again i am accessing the object i get same dead lock ??? So how to avoid/handle this dead lock exception ? Here is the call stack... :005F07C0 System::AnsiStringBase::AnsiStringBase(this=:0285FCE0, src=????) :0040223F System::AnsiStringT<0>::AnsiStringT<0>(this=:0285FCE0, src=:00000008) :00457996 TSomeClass::SomeFunction(this=:009D8230, UserID={ }, DataSize={ }, ) :0047BFF1 __linkproc__ ThreadProc(Thread=:009561C0) :004AD00E __linkproc__ ThreadWrapper(Parameter=:009EAA30) :7c80b729 ; C:\WINDOWS\system32\kernel32.dll Please helppppppppppppppppppppp Thanks

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  • Tracking down slow managed DLL loading

    - by Alex K
    I am faced with the following issue and at this point I feel like I'm severely lacking some sort of tool, I just don't know what that tool is, or what exactly it should be doing. Here is the setup: I have a 3rd party DLL that has to be registered in GAC. This all works fine and good on pretty much every machine our software was deployed on before. But now we got 2 machines, seemingly identical to the ones we know work (they are cloned from the same image and stuffed with the same hardware, so pretty much the only difference is software settings, over which I went over and over, and they seem fine). Now the problem, the DLL in GAC takes a very long time to load. At least I believe this is the issue, what I can say definitively is that instantiating a single class from that DLL is the slow part. Once it is loaded, thing fly as they always have. But while on known-good machines the DLL loads so fast that a timestamp in the log doesn't even change, on these 2 machines it take over 1min to load. Knowns: I have no access to the source, so I can't debug through the DLL. Our app is the only one that uses it (so shouldn't be simultaneous access issues). There is only one version of this DLL in existance, so it shouldn't be a matter of version conflict. The GAC reference is being used (if I uninstall the DLL from GAC, an exception will be thrown about the missing GAC reference). Could someone with a greater skill in debug-fu suggest what I can do to track down the root cause of this issue?

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  • How do you get an object associated with a Future Actor?

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I would like to be able to get access to the object that is being returned from spawning a future import scala.actors.Future import scala.actors.Futures._ class Object1(i:Int) { def getAValue(): Int = {i} } object Test { def main( args: Array[String] ) = { var tests = List[Future[Object1]]() for(i <- 0 until 10) { val test = future { val obj1 = new Object1(i) println("Processing " + i + "...") Thread.sleep(1000) println("Processed " + i) obj1 } tests = tests ::: List(test) } val timeout = 1000 * 60 * 5 // wait up to 5 minutes val futureTests = awaitAll(timeout,tests: _*) futureTests.foreach(test => println("result: " + future())) } } The output from one run of this code is: Processing 0... Processing 1... Processing 2... Processing 3... Processed 0 Processing 4... Processed 1 Processing 5... Processed 2 Processing 6... Processed 3 Processing 7... Processed 4 Processing 8... Processed 6 Processing 9... Processed 5 Processed 7 Processed 8 Processed 9 result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> I've tried future().getClass(), and the output is result: class scala.actors.FutureActor What I'm looking to be able to access is the obj1 objects. Thanks Bruce

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  • Service reference not generating client types

    - by Cranialsurge
    I am trying to consume a WCF service in a class library by adding a service reference to it. In one of the class libraries it gets consumed properly and I can access the client types in order to generate a proxy off of them. However in my second class library (or even in a console test app), when i add the same service reference, it only exposes the types that are involved in the contract operations and not the client type for me to generate a proxy against. e.g. Endpoint has 2 services exposed - ISvc1 and ISvc2. When I add a service reference to this endpoint in the first class library I get ISvc1Client andf ISvc2Client to generate proxies off of in order to use the operations exposed via those 2 contracts. In addition to these clients the service reference also exposes the types involved in the operations like (type 1, type 2 etc.) this is what I need. However when i try to add a service reference to the same endpoing in another console application or class library only Type 1, Type 2 etc. are exposed and not ISvc1Client and ISvc2Client because of which I cannot generate a proxy to access the operations I need. I am unable to determine why the service reference gets properly generated in one class library but not in the other or the test console app.

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  • Travelling Visual Studio developers

    - by Graphain
    Hi, I am about to travel to Europe (I'm Australian but imagine this is a similar circumstance for US users and simply flipped for European users). However, there is the slim possibility I will need to do some Visual Studio work while I'm travelling. As I see it I have three options: Leave a desktop PC on at home, access remotely via net cafes. Carry a laptop with me on the trip, upload files as required using public wifi. Option 2 but instead buy cheap light netbook that is miraculously capable of running VS. Does anyone have any experience or advice to shed on any of these options? For reference, this existing post suggests that VS remotely for short distances is okay, but over longer distances could be more problematic. I've used VS via RDP to a US server before and it was pretty laggy but for small changes I could get by. Concerns I have that you may have some experience with: Weight of luggage (ideally like to travel light) Security of laptop (imagine it'll be too heavy to carry around all the time so have to leave it at hotel/hostel etc. and hope for the best) Security of data (don't want someone stealing RDP access to my home PC) Security of FTP (don't want someone stealing FTP passwords over wireless)

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  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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  • Get settings through a button action

    - by Russ Knudsen
    I am looking for a way to access user settings (I assume, NSUserDefaults?) through a button action. Let me back up and explain. What I have right now are 2 TextFields a label and a button. The user will type in measurements in the 2 TextFields. When they hit the button the label displays the volume of the measured object in Gallons. That part of it works great. Then I wanted to give the user options to output the volume in Liters instead of gallons. I would also like to give the user options to type in the measurements in Centimeters. So I setup a 'Settings.Bundle' and configured it with 2 'Multi Value' cells (Measurement units and Volumetric Units). Each Multi Value cell has its own list of different units the user can pick from. My main issue is I don't know how to access these settings through the button action. I may be thinking of this wrong, but what I'm looking for is something like; Button Action If settings key = 0 Then do the math in Inches, Display in Gallons If settings key = 1 Then do the math in Centimeters, Display in Gallons If settings key = 2 Then do the math in Inches, Display in Liters If settings key = 3 Then do the math in Centimeters, Display in Liters Etc... Is this possible? Am I thinking of this in the wrong way? What's the best way to do this?

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  • Passing an array of structs in C

    - by lelouch
    I'm having trouble passing an array of structs to a function in C. I've created the struct like this in main: int main() { struct Items { char code[10]; char description[30]; int stock; }; struct Items MyItems[10]; } I then access it like: MyItems[0].stock = 10; etc. I want to pass it to a function like so: ReadFile(MyItems); The function should read the array, and be able to edit it. Then I should be able to access the same array from other functions. I've tried heaps of declarations but none of them work. e.g. void ReadFile(struct Items[10]) I've had a look around for other questions, but the thing is they're all done different, with typedefs and asterisks. My teacher hasn't taught us pointers yet, so I'd like to do it with what I know. Any ideas? :S EDIT: Salvatore's answer is working after I fixed my prototype to: void ReadFile(struct Items[9]);

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  • Deployment of SQL Server: installing a second instance?

    - by Workshop Alex
    Simple problem. I'm working on a Delphi 2007/WIN32 application which now uses MS Access as simple data store. I have to modify it to support SQL Server Express, which is easy. These modifications are working so the application can be deployed using either SQL Server or MS Access. (Whatever the user prefers.) I did consider deploying the whole application together with the SQL Compact but this is not practicak. Using SQL Server Express 2008 instead of 2005 is an option, but also has a few nasty side-effects which we don't want to resolve for now. The problem is deploying the whole project. The installation with SQL Server would need a quiet installation so the user won't notice it. SQL Server is mentioned in the documentation so they know it's there. We just don't want to bother them with technical issues. In most cases, such an installation will go just fine. But what if the user already has an SQL Server (2005) installation which is used for something else? Personally, I would prefer to just install a second instance of SQL Server on their system so it won't conflict with the other installation. (Thus, if they uninstall the other app, the SQL instance will just stay installed.) While SQL Server 2005 and 2008 can be installed on the same system simply by using two different names for the instance, I wonder if it's also possible to install SQL Server 2005 twice on a single system to get two instances. And if possible, how?

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  • Dynamic WCF base addresses in SharePoint

    - by Paul Bevis
    I'm attempting to host a WCF service in SharePoint. I have configured the service to be compatible with ASP.NET to allow me access to HttpContext and session information [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class MISDataService : IMISDataService { ... } And my configuration looks like this <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="MISDataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MISDataViews.IMISDataService" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Whilst this gives me access to the current HTTP context, the serivce is always hosted under the root domain, i.e. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc. In SharePoint the URL being accessed gives you specific context information about the current site via the SPContext class. So with the service hosted in a virtual directory, I would like it to be available on mulitple addresses e.g. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site1/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site2/_layouts/MISDataService.svc so that the service can figure out what data to return based upon the current context. Is it possible to configure the endpoint address dynamically? Or is the only alternative to host the service in one location and then pass the "context" to it some how?

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  • ASP.NET - Accessing copied content

    - by James Kolpack
    I have a class library project which contains some content files configured with the "Copy if newer" copy build action. This results in the files being copied to a folder under ...\bin\ for every project in the solution. In this same solution, I've got a ASP.NET web project (which is MVC, by the way). In the library I have a static constructor load the files into data structures accessible by the web project. Previously I've been including the content as an embedded resource. I now need to be able to replace them without recompiling. I want to access the data in three different contexts: Unit testing the library assembly Debugging the web application Hosting the site in IIS For unit testing, Environment.CurrentDirectory points to a path containing the copied content. When debugging however, it points to C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE. I've also looked at Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location which points to C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c44f9da4\9238ccc\assembly\dl3\eb4c23b4\9bd39460_f7d4ca01\. What I need is to the physical location of the webroot \bin folder, but since I'm in a static constructor in the library project, I don't have access to a Request.PhysicalApplicationPath. Is there some other environment variable or structure where I can always find my "Copy if newer" files?

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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