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• What web platform is right for me?

  - by egervari

  I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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• Truth tables in code? How to structure state machine?

  - by HanClinto

  I have a (somewhat) large truth table / state machine that I need to implement in my code (embedded C). I anticipate the behavior specification of this state machine to change in the future, and so I'd like to keep this easily modifiable in the future. My truth table has 4 inputs and 4 outputs. I have it all in an Excel spreadsheet, and if I could just paste that into my code with a little formatting, that would be ideal. I was thinking I would like to access my truth table like so: u8 newState[] = decisionTable[input1][input2][input3][input4]; And then I could access the output values with: setOutputPin( LINE_0, newState[0] ); setOutputPin( LINE_1, newState[1] ); setOutputPin( LINE_2, newState[2] ); setOutputPin( LINE_3, newState[3] ); But in order to get that, it looks like I would have to do a fairly confusing table like so: static u8 decisionTable[][][][][] = {{{{ 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }}, {{ 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }}}, {{{ 0, 0, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}}, {{{{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}, {{{ 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}}; Those nested brackets can be somewhat confusing -- does anyone have a better idea for how I can keep a pretty looking table in my code? Thanks! Edit based on HUAGHAGUAH's answer: Using an amalgamation of everyone's input (thanks -- I wish I could "accept" 3 or 4 of these answers), I think I'm going to try it as a two dimensional array. I'll index into my array using a small bit-shifting macro: #define SM_INPUTS( in0, in1, in2, in3 ) ((in0 << 0) | (in1 << 1) | (in2 << 2) | (in3 << 3)) And that will let my truth table array look like this: static u8 decisionTable[][] = { { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}; And I can then access my truth table like so: decisionTable[ SM_INPUTS( line1, line2, line3, line4 ) ] I'll give that a shot and see how it works out. I'll also be replacing the 0's and 1's with more helpful #defines that express what each state means, along with /**/ comments that explain the inputs for each line of outputs. Thanks for the help, everyone!

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• In R, how do you get the best fitting equation to a set of data?

  - by Matherion

  I'm not sure wether R can do this (I assume it can, but maybe that's just because I tend to assume that R can do anything :-)). What I need is to find the best fitting equation to describe a dataset. For example, if you have these points: df = data.frame(x = c(1, 5, 10, 25, 50, 100), y = c(100, 75, 50, 40, 30, 25)) How do you get the best fitting equation? I know that you can get the best fitting curve with: plot(loess(df$y ~ df$x)) But as I understood you can't extract the equation, see Loess Fit and Resulting Equation. When I try to build it myself (note, I'm not a mathematician, so this is probably not the ideal approach :-)), I end up with smth like: y.predicted = 12.71 + ( 95 / (( (1 + df$x) ^ .5 ) / 1.3)) Which kind of seems to approximate it - but I can't help to think that smth more elegant probably exists :-) I have the feeling that fitting a linear or polynomial model also wouldn't work, because the formula seems different from what those models generally use (i.e. this one seems to need divisions, powers, etc). For example, the approach in Fitting polynomial model to data in R gives pretty bad approximations. I remember from a long time ago that there exist languages (Matlab may be one of them?) that do this kind of stuff. Can R do this as well, or am I just at the wrong place? (Background info: basically, what we need to do is find an equation for determining numbers in the second column based on the numbers in the first column; but we decide the numbers ourselves. We have an idea of how we want the curve to look like, but we can adjust these numbers to an equation if we get a better fit. It's about the pricing for a product (a cheaper alternative to current expensive software for qualitative data analysis); the more 'project credits' you buy, the cheaper it should become. Rather than forcing people to buy a given number (i.e. 5 or 10 or 25), it would be nicer to have a formula so people can buy exactly what they need - but of course this requires a formula. We have an idea for some prices we think are ok, but now we need to translate this into an equation.

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• How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

  - by kevinegham

  Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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• Model Binding with Parent/Child Relationship

  - by user296297

  I'm sure this has been answered before, but I've spent the last three hours looking for an acceptable solution and have been unable to find anything, so I apologize for what I'm sure is a repeat. I have two domain objects, Player and Position. Player's have a Position. My domain objects are POCOs tied to my database with NHibernate. I have an Add action that takes a Player, so I'm using the built in model binding. On my view I have a drop down list that lets a user select the Position for the Player. The value of the drop down list is the Id of the position. Everything gets populated correctly except that my Position object fails validation (ModelState.IsValid) because at the point of model binding it only has an Id and none of it's other required attributes. What is the preferred solution for solving this with ASP.NET MVC 2? Solutions I've tried... Fetch the Position from the database based on the Id before ModelState.IsValid is called in the Add action of my controller. I can't get the model to run the validation again, so ModelState.IsValid always returns false. Create a custom ModelBinder that inherits from the default binder and fetch the Position from the database after the base binder is called. The ModelBinder seems to be doing the validation so if I use anything from the default binder I'm hosed. Which means I have to completely roll my own binder and grab every value from the form...this seems really wrong and inefficient for such a common use-case. Solutions I think might work, I just can't figure out how to do... Turn off the validation for the Position class when used in Player. Write a custom ModelBinder leverages the default binder for most of the property binding, but lets me get the Position from the database BEFORE the default binder runs validation. So, how do the rest of you solve this? Thanks, Dan P.S. In my opinion having a PositionId on Player just for this case is not a good solution. There has to be solvable in a more elegant fashion.

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• how to increment a javascript variable title that is within a php while loop

  - by steve

  I'm building multiple countdown clocks on one page. The number of countdown clocks varies from day to day so I need to call javascript several times from within "while" code in php to produce different clocks. The following code works but it's based on knowing how many clocks are needed before I start: <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd1 = new countdown('cd1'); cd1.Div = "clock1"; cd1.TargetDate = "<?php echo "$clocktime"; ?>"; cd1.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event AAA happens"; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock1">[clock]</div></div> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd2 = new countdown('cd2'); cd2.Div = "clock2"; cd2.TargetDate = "02/01/2011 5:30:30 PM"; cd2.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event BBB happens..."; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock2">[clock]</div></div> So if I keep on calling the javascript above (the code with cd1 in it) all previous "cd1" clocks change to the latest clock because it is being overwritten. Somehow I need to call javascript from within my "while" loop in php and have cd1 become cd2, then cd3 so that the clocks work as they're supposed to. How do I go about doing this? I don't know how to call the javascript several times and increment the variable cd1 within the javascript. I tried something like this but couldn't get it to work. $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); while($id){ $cd = ("$cd"."$id"); ?> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var <?php echo "$cd"; ?> = new countdown('<?php echo "$cd"; ?>'); .... </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="<?php echo "$cd"; ?>">[clock]</div></div> <?php $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); } ?> Surely there is some easy way of getting around this that I don't know about. Thanks

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• JavaScript - Inheritance in Constructors

  - by j0ker

  For a JavaScript project we want to introduce object inheritance to decrease code duplication. However, I cannot quite get it working the way I want and need some help. We use the module pattern. Suppose there is a super element: a.namespace('a.elements.Element'); a.elements.Element = (function() { // public API -- constructor Element = function(properties) { this.id = properties.id; }; // public API -- prototype Element.prototype = { getID: function() { return this.id; } }; return Element; }()); And an element inheriting from this super element: a.namespace('a.elements.SubElement'); a.elements.SubElement = (function() { // public API -- constructor SubElement = function(properties) { // inheritance happens here // ??? this.color = properties.color; this.bogus = this.id + 1; }; // public API -- prototype SubElement.prototype = { getColor: function() { return this.color; } }; return SubElement; }()); You will notice that I'm not quite sure how to implement the inheritance itself. In the constructor I have to be able to pass the parameter to the super object constructor and create a super element that is then used to create the inherited one. I need a (comfortable) possibility to access the properties of the super object within the constructor of the new object. Ideally I could operate on the super object as if it was part of the new object. I also want to be able to create a new SubElement and call getID() on it. What I want to accomplish seems like the traditional class based inheritance. However, I'd like to do it using prototypal inheritance since that's the JavaScript way. Is that even doable? Thanks in advance! EDIT: Fixed usage of private variables as suggested in the comments. EDIT2: Another change of the code: It's important that id is accessible from the constructor of SubElement.

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• Why does this work in Firefox but not IE and how can I fix it?

  - by bstullkid

  I want to show and hide rows of a table based on the value of a select box and this works in Firefox but not IE: <select onChange="javascript: toggle(this.value);"> <option value="cat0">category 0</option> <option value="cat1">category 1</option> </select> <table> <tr name="cat0"> <td>some stuff v</td> <td>some stuff v</td> </tr> <tr name="cat0"> <td>some stuff d</td> <td>some stuff d</td> </tr> <tr name="cat1"> <td>some stuff a</td> <td>some stuff a</td> </tr> <tr name="cat1"> <td>some stuff b</td> <td>some stuff b</td> </tr> </table> <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle(category) { // turn everything off for (var i = 0; i < 2; i++) { var cat = document.getElementsByName('cat' + i); for (var j = 0; j < cat.length; j++) cat[j].style.display = 'none'; } // turn on category chosen var cat = document.getElementsByName(category); for (var i = 0; i < cat.length; i++) cat[i].style.display = ''; } // start by showing cat0 toggle('cat0'); </script>

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• Multiple layouts in rails [Newbie Q]

  - by BriteLite

  Hi. As a newb, I decided to build a "home inventory" application. I am now stuck on how to programmatically select a layout based on what type of item it is when viewing it in a browser. According to my planning, so far I should have created a few models to represent types of items I can find in my home: Furniture, Electronics and Books. class Book < ActiveRecord::Base end class Furniture < ActiveRecord::Base end class Electronic < ActiveRecord::Base end Now the Books model has things like isbn, pages, address, and category. Furniture model has things like color, price, address, and category. Electronics has things like name, voltage, address, and category. Here is where I got confused. I know the property address is going to be the same for all of them. I also know that, I will need to create multiple "layouts" for 3 different types of items to show the different properties of said items with appropriate graphics and stylesheets. But how will I go about deciding which category the item is so I can determine which layout to render. According to me, this is how I will do it: class DisplayController < ApplicationController def display @item = Params[:item] if @item.category = "electronics" render :layout => 'electronics' end end In my routes.rb map.display ':item', :controller => 'display', :action => 'display' I only seem to have one concern with this, I probably will add a lot of categories later on and think there should be a more DRY-esque way of dealing, rather than hardcoding them. I understand that I need to add into my layout html tags to display relevant information for that particular category. ----Questions---- Is this the right way to approach this type of problem. Will this approach be compatible when I decide to add a gem like *thinking_sphinx* to run search. What issues do you see with my approach and how can I make it better. I was reading something about "Polymorphic Assoc", does that apply in this case, since category exist for all items? Also, I was trying to get a routes to render a URL like "http://localhost/living-room-tv"

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• How do I create/use a Fluent NHibernate convention to map UInt32 properties to an SQL Server 2008 da

  - by dommer

  I'm trying to use a convention to map UInt32 properties to a SQL Server 2008 database. I don't seem to be able to create a solution based on existing web sources, due to updates in the way Fluent NHibernate works - i.e. examples are out of date. Here's my code as it currently stands (which, when I try to expose the schema, fails due to SQL Server not supporting UInt32). Apologies for the code being a little long, but I'm not 100% sure what is relevant to the problem, so I'm erring on the side of caution. I think I'll need a relatively comprehensive example, as I don't seem to be able to pull the pieces together into a working solution, at present. FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(connectionString)) .Mappings(mapping => mapping.AutoMappings.Add( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Product>() .Conventions.Add<UInt32UserTypeConvention>())); configuration.ExposeConfiguration(x => new SchemaExport(x).Create(false, true)); namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserTypeConvention : UserTypeConvention<UInt32UserType> { // Empty. } } namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserType : IUserType { // Public properties. public bool IsMutable { get { return false; } } public Type ReturnedType { get { return typeof(UInt32); } } public SqlType[] SqlTypes { get { return new SqlType[] { SqlTypeFactory.Int32 }; } } // Public methods. public object Assemble(object cached, object owner) { return cached; } public object DeepCopy(object value) { return value; } public object Disassemble(object value) { return value; } public new bool Equals(object x, object y) { return (x != null && x.Equals(y)); } public int GetHashCode(object x) { return x.GetHashCode(); } public object NullSafeGet(IDataReader rs, string[] names, object owner) { int? i = (int?)NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeGet(rs, names[0]); return (UInt32?)i; } public void NullSafeSet(IDbCommand cmd, object value, int index) { UInt32? u = (UInt32?)value; int? i = (Int32?)u; NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeSet(cmd, i, index); } public object Replace(object original, object target, object owner) { return original; } } }

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• .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

  - by 1001001

  I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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• go programming POST FormValue can't be printed

  - by poor_programmer

  Before I being a bit of background, I am very new to go programming language. I am running go on Win 7, latest go package installer for windows. I'm not good at coding but I do like some challenge of learning a new language. I wanted to start learn Erlang but found go very interesting based on the GO I/O videos in youtube. I'm having problem with capturing POST form values in GO. I spend three hours yesterday to get go to print a POST form value in the browser and failed miserably. I don't know what I'm doing wrong, can anyone point me to the right direction? I can easily do this in another language like C#, PHP, VB, ASP, Rails etc. I have search the entire interweb and haven't found a working sample. Below is my sample code. Here is Index.html page {{ define "title" }}Homepage{{ end }} {{ define "content" }} <h1>My Homepage</h1> <p>Hello, and welcome to my homepage!</p> <form method="POST" action="/"> <p> Enter your name : <input type="text" name="username"> </P> <p> <button>Go</button> </form> <br /><br /> {{ end }} Here is the base page <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>{{ template "title" . }}</title> </head> <body> <section id="contents"> {{ template "content" . }} </section> <footer id="footer"> My homepage 2012 copy </footer> </body> </html> now some go code package main import ( "fmt" "http" "strings" "html/template" ) var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func GeneralHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { index.Execute(w, nil) if r.Method == "POST" { a := r.FormValue("username") fmt.Fprintf(w, "hi %s!",a); //<-- this variable does not rendered in the browser!!! } } func helloHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { remPartOfURL := r.URL.Path[len("/hello/"):] fmt.Fprintf(w, "Hello %s!", remPartOfURL) } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", GeneralHandler) http.HandleFunc("/hello/", helloHandler) http.ListenAndServe("localhost:81", nil) } Thanks! PS: Very tedious to add four space before every line of code in stackoverflow especially when you are copy pasting. Didn't find it very user friendly or is there an easier way?

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• jquery in ajax loaded content

  - by Kim Gysen

  My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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• Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

  - by MJB

  I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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• How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

  - by Chris

  I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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• Wordpress post query php custom field conditional

  - by Andy

  Here's the situation: In wordpress I'm trying to reset a post WP_Query so that I can rewrite the post link based on whether or not a custom field exists in the post. I'm trying to give the post a NEW link in the custom field. All I've managed to do here is kill the link entirely. Any and all help is greatly appreciated, I'm pretty green to php. Here's my WP_Query: <?php $recentPosts = new WP_Query(); $recentPosts->query('showposts=3'); ?> <?php while ($recentPosts->have_posts()) : $recentPosts->the_post(); ?> <div <?php post_class() ?> id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <?php $attribute = the_title_attribute(); $title = the_title(); $key = 'NewPostLink'; $newLink = get_post_meta( $post->ID, $key, TRUE ); if ($newLink != '') { $theLink = get_permalink ($post->ID ); if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } else { $theLink = $newLink; if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } ?> <small><?php the_time('F jS, Y') ?></small> <div class="entry"> <?php the_excerpt(); ?> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; ?>

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• SQL-How to retrieve the correct data using php

  - by Programatt

  I am new to SQL so please excuse my question if it is simple. I have a database with a few tables. 1 is a users table, the others are application tables that contain the users preferences for receiving notifications about that application based on the country they are interested in. What I want to do, is retrieve the e-mail address of all users that have an interest in that country. I am struggling to think about how to do this. I currently have the following query constructed, and the code to populate the values function check($string) { if (isset($_POST[$string])) { $print = implode(', ', $_POST[$string]); //Converts an array into a single string $imanageSQLArr = Array(); if (substr_count($print,'Benelux') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[0] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[0] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'France') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[1] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[1] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Germany') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[2] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[2] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Italy') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[3] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[3] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Netherlands') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[4] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[4] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Portugal') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[5] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[5] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Spain') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[6] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[6] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Sweden') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[7] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[7] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'Switzerland') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[8] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[8] = "off"; } if (substr_count($print, 'UK') > 0) { $imanageSQLArr[9] = "checked"; } else { $imanageSQLArr[9] = "off"; } and the query $tocheck = $db->prepare( "SELECT users.email FROM users,app WHERE users.id=app.userid AND BENELUX=:BENELUX AND FRANCE=:FRANCE AND GERMANY=:GERMANY AND ITALY=:ITALY AND NETHERLANDS=:NETHERLANDS AND PORTUGAL=:PORTUGAL AND SPAIN=:SPAIN AND SWEDEN=:SWEDEN AND SWITZERLAND=:SWITZERLAND AND UK=:UK"); $tocheck->execute($country); $row = $tocheck->fetchAll(); This does retrieve data, but only people who's preferences match EXACTLY what is put (so what they haven't selected is taken into account as much as what they have). Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Linking to a section of a site that is hidden by a hide/show JavaScript function

  - by hollyb

  I am using a bit of JavaScript to show/hide sections of a site when a tab is clicked. I'm trying to figure out if there is a way I can link back to the page and have a certain tab open based on that link. Here is the JS: var ids=new Array('section1','section2','section3','section4'); function switchid(id, el){ hideallids(); showdiv(id); var li = el.parentNode.parentNode.childNodes[0]; while (li) { if (!li.tagName || li.tagName.toLowerCase() != "li") li = li.nextSibling; // skip the text node if (li) { li.className = ""; li = li.nextSibling; } } el.parentNode.className = "active"; } function hideallids(){ //loop through the array and hide each element by id for (var i=0;i<ids.length;i++){ hidediv(ids[i]); } } function hidediv(id) { //safe function to hide an element with a specified id document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'none'; } function showdiv(id) { //safe function to show an element with a specified id document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'block'; } And the HTML <ul> <li class="active"><a onclick="switchid('section1', this);return false;">One</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section2', this);return false;">Two</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section3', this);return false;">Three</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section4', this);return false;">Four</a></li> </ul> <div id="section1" style="display:block;"> <div id="section2" style="display:none;"> <div id="section3" style="display:none;"> <div id="section4" style="display:none;"> I haven't been able to come up with a way to link back to a specific section. Is it even possible with this method? Thanks!

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• Replace text in XSL using wildcards

  - by JosephThomas

  This is similar to an earlier problem I was having which you guys solved in less than a day. I am working with XML files that are generated by a digital video camera. The camera allows the user to save all of the camera's settngs to an SD card so that the settings can be recalled or loaded into another camera. The XSL stylesheet I am writing will allow users to view the camera's settings, as saved to the SD card in a web browser. While most of the values in the XML file -- as formatted by my stylesheet -- make sense to humans, some do not. What I would like to do is have the stylesheet display text that is based on the value in the XML file but more easily understood by humans. A typical value that can be written to the XML file is "_23_970" which represents the camera's frame rate. This would be better displayed as 23.970 (or 023.970). The first underscore is a sort of place holder to make a space for values over 099.999. The second underscore, obviously represents the decimal. My previous (similar) question involved replacing predictable text, and the solution was matching templates. In this case, however, the camera can be set at any one of 119,999 frame rates (I think I did that math correctly). The approach, I would guess, is to pass a value to the displayed webpage that keeps the numeric values (each digit), replaces the second underscore with a decimal, and replaces the first underscore with either an nbsp or a zero (whichever is easier). If the first character in the string is a "1" (the camera can run at frame rates up to 120.000) then the one should be passed on to the page displayed by the stylesheet. I have read other posts here regarding wildcards, but couldn't find one that answered this question. EDIT: Sorry for leaving out important info. I fared better on my first try at asking a question! I guess I got complacent. Anyhow . . . I should have shown you the code that displays the text in the XSL file as is: <tr> <xsl:for-each select="Settings/Groups/Recording"> <tr><td class="title_column">Frame Rate</td><td><xsl:value-of select="RecOutLinkSpeed"/></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </tr> I should also have given you the URL for the sample file I have been working with: http://josephthomas.info/Alexa/Setup_120511_140322.xml

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• Jscrollpane causese text to disappear on internet explorer

  - by Crippletoe

  Hello all, in my current site, i am using the new Jscrollpane in order to generate a scrollbar for a menu (not my descision but the designer's descision so i dont wanna get into how 90's that all looks like..). my menu is based on a <UL> the <li> elements inside it have the attribute "text-align: right;". my problem that on IE alone the menu text doesnt show when i apply the ScrollPane to the menu. when i delete the ScrollPane function from my code- the menu re-appears. i checked the page with "microsoft Expression" DOM inspector in order to examine how IE sees my code and i can see the <li> elements there, only the text inside them is missing. when i disable the "text-align: right;" for the <li> in my CSS, the text shows again. i suspect this has something to do with the jScrollPane's containing which is relatively aligned but i cannot be sure.. can anyone suggest some fix for this problem? a link to a page where you can see the problem is here: http://kaplanoland.com/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=2&Itemid=12 the problematic menu is on the right side of the page. on every browser but IE you can see the text. only on IE not. my CSS code for that menu (not including the jScrollPane CSS) is here: div#menu2{ position: absolute; top: 123px; right: 36px; width: 330px; height: 150px; } div#menu2_scroll{ /*the actual scroller*/ height: 150px; } div#menu2 div#menu2_contain{ } div#menu2 li{ text-align: right; } div#menu2 li span{ line-height: 18px; } div#menu2 a:link, div#menu2 a:visited{ color: #808285 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 a:hover, div#menu2 li#current a{ color: #000000 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 span.separator{ display: block; padding-top: 12px; padding-bottom: 40px; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } div#menu2 span.separator span { padding-top: 12px; border-top-width: 1px; border-top-style: solid; border-top-color: #808285; } thank you all so much.

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• jQuery nextUntill id < num or alternative

  - by Volmar

  Hi, i'm using jQuery to show/hide different LI-elements based on their classes. Look at this example. <li id="1" class="fp de1"></li> <li id="2" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(2,2);"></li> <li id="3" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(3,3);"></li> <li id="4" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(4,4);"></li> <li id="5" class="fp de4"></li> <li id="6" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="7" class="fp de3"></li> <li id="8" class="fp de1"><button onclick="hide(8,2);"></li> <li id="9" class="fp de2"><button onclick="hide(9,3);"></li> <li id="10" class="fp de3"><button onclick="hide(10,4);"></li> <li id="11" class="fp de4"></li> You se that some of these have a button with a hide funcion. what i want is that when you press the hide button The following elements the have a highernumber in the .de# class should be hidden untill it reaches a LI with the same .de#-class. so if you press the hide(), i want LIs with ids 3,4,5,6,7 to be hiden. if i press the next on i want 4,5,6,7, and the thirs i want id 5 to be hidden. so this is the Javascript i made for it: function hide(id,de){ var de2 = de-1; $('#'+id).nextUntil('li.de'+de2).hide(); } The problem is that this function is not working exactly as i want. it would work correctly in the first hide()-function and the thirs but not in hide()function number two. here it will hide IDs: 4-8. so i want to do something. so i want the nextuntill() to hide elements untill it reaches a LI-element with the same .de# or a lower .de#. i hope i didn't complicate it to much in my description of the problem. if you have better idea than using nextUntill i'm all ears.

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• JQuery Cascade dropdown problem?

  - by omoto

  Hi All! I'm using JQuery based Cascade plugin probably it's working, but I found a lot of problems with it Maybe somebody already faced with this plugin and maybe could help. So, I using this plugin for location filtration Here comes my CS code: public JsonResult getChildren(string val) { if (val.IsNotNull()) { int lId = val.ToInt(); Cookie.Location = val.ToInt(); var forJSON = from h in Location.SubLocationsLoaded(val.ToInt()) select new { When = val, Id = h.Id, Name = h.Name, LocationName = h.LocationType.Name }; return this.Json(forJSON.ToArray()); } else return null; } Here comes my JS code: <script type="text/javascript"> function commonMatch(selectedValue) { $("#selectedLocation").val(selectedValue); return this.When == selectedValue; }; function commonTemplate(item) { return "<option value='" + item.Id + "'>" + item.Name + "</option>"; }; $(document).ready(function() { $("#chained_child").cascade("#Countries", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Län------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_child").cascade("#chained_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Kommun------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_sub_child").cascade("#chained_sub_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Stad------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); }); I added one condition to jquery.cascade.ext.js if (opt.getParentValue(parent) != "empty") $.ajax(_ajax); To prevent Ajax request without selected value, but I faced with problem, when I reset selection in first box 3d box and bellow does not refresh: And second issue: I would like to know where is best place to inject my own function that will do something, with one requirement - I need to know that all boxes finished work. If somebody worked within let me know maybe we could together find solution. Thanks in advice...

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• MooTools request fails

  - by acoder

  Hi everyone, I am trying to achieve this task using MooTools. Description: I have three buttons. Two buttons outside myDiv and one button inside myDiv. A click on any of these buttons initiates an AJAX request (passing button variable to "button.php") and updates myDiv content based on the response text. So, after update, myDiv shows Button3 link + a message showing which button has been clicked. The problem: Everything seems to work fine but after several clicks, it happens that myDiv shows loader.gif image and stops. After this, if I wait a few moments, the browser sometimes stops working (gets blocked). I noticed this problem with IE6. Does anyone know what does this problem mean and how it can be avoided? index.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="mootools/mootools-1.2.4-core-nc.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="mootools/mootools-1.2.4.4-more.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { $("myPage").addEvent("click:relay(a)", function(e) { e.stop(); var myRequest = new Request({ method: 'post', url: 'button.php', data: { button : this.get('id'), test : 'test' }, onRequest: function() { $('myDiv').innerHTML = '<img src="images/loader.gif" />'; }, onComplete: function(response) { $('myDiv').innerHTML = response; } }); myRequest.send(); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="myPage"> <a href="#" id="button1">Button1</a> <a href="#" id="button2">Button2</a> <div id="myDiv"> <a href="#" id="button3">Button3</a> </div> </div> </body> </html> button.php <a href="#" id="button3"Button3</a> <br><br> <?php echo 'You clicked ['.$_REQUEST['button'].']'; ?>

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• What is the problems for my xml file format ?

  - by python

  <? $xml="<?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='no'?> <Document> <pain.001.001.02> <books> <book> <qty>12</qty> <title>C++</title> </book> <book> <qty>21</qty> <title>PHP</title> </book> </books> <books> <book> <qty>25</qty> <title>Java</title> </book> <book> <qty>32</qty> <title>Python</title> </book> <book> <qty>22</qty> <title>History</title> </book> </books> </pain.001.001.02> </Document> "; $doc = new DOMDOcument; $doc->loadxml($xml); $xpath = new DOMXpath($doc); $arr = array( array( '12;C++', '21;PHP'), array( '25;Java', '32;Python' ) ); # Remove elements based on qty and title foreach($arr as $items) { foreach($items as $item) { list($qty, $title) = explode(';', $item); foreach($xpath->query('//pain.001.001.02/books/book[title="'.$title.'"][qty="'.$qty.'"]') as $book) { $book->parentNode->removeChild($book); } } } # Remove empty <books> foreach($xpath->query('pain.001.001.02/books[count(book)=0]') as $empty) { $empty->parentNode->removeChild($empty); } header('Content-type: text/xml'); echo $doc->savexml(); ?> If I put <Document> in the xml document , get the expected result BUT If change <Document> to <Document xmlns="urn:iso:std:iso:20022:tech:xsd:pain.001.001.02"> get UNEXPECTED RESULT? Do you have any idea? thanks

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• How do I go about link web content in a database with a nested set model?

  - by wb

  My nested set table is as follows. create table depts ( id int identity(0, 1) primary key , lft int , rgt int , name nvarchar(60) , abbrv nvarchar(20) ); Test departments. insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (1, 14, 'root', 'r'); insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (2, 3, 'department 1', 'd1'); insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (4, 5, 'department 2', 'd2'); insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (6, 13, 'department 3', 'd3'); insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (7, 8, 'sub department 3.1', 'd3.1'); insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (9, 12, 'sub department 3.2', 'd3.2'); insert into depts (lft, rgt, name, abbrv) values (10, 11, 'sub sub department 3.2.1', 'd3.2.1'); My web content table is as follows. create table content ( id int identity(0, 1) , dept_id int , page_name nvarchar(60) , content ntext ); Test content. insert into content (dept_id, page_name, content) values (3, 'index', '<h2>welcome to department 3!</h2>'); insert into content (dept_id, page_name, content) values (4, 'index', '<h2>welcome to department 3.1!</h2>'); insert into content (dept_id, page_name, content) values (6, 'index', '<h2>welcome to department 3.2.1!</h2>'); insert into content (dept_id, page_name, content) values (2, 'what-doing', '<h2>what is department 2 doing?/h2>'); I'm trying to query the correct page content (from the content table) based on the url given. I can easily accomplish this task with a root department. However, querying a department with multiple depths is proving to be a little harder. For example: http://localhost/departments.asp?d3/ (Should return <h2>welcome to department 3!</h2>) http://localhost/departments.asp?d2/what-doing (Should return <h2>what is department 2 doing?</h2>) I'm not sure if this can be create in one query or if there will need to be a recursive function of some sort. Also, if there is nothing after the last / then assume we want the index page. How can this be accomplished? Thank you.

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