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  • Codeigniter Inserting Multidimensional Array as rows in MySQL

    - by RisingSun
    Please Refer to this question I asked Codeigniter Insert Multiple Rows in SQL To restate <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][email]" value=""></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][email]" value=""></td> </tr> .......... Can Be Inserted into MySQL as this foreach($_POST['user'] as $user) { $this->db->insert('mytable', $user); } This results in multiple MySQL queries. Is it possible to optimise it further, so that the insert occurs in one query Something like this insert multiple rows via a php array into mysql but taking advantage of codeigniters simpler syntax. Thanks

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  • WordPress: Using a Where Clause With A Custom Field

    - by Steve Wilkison
    I have a bunch of events that are listed on a particular page. Each event is a post. I need them to display in the order in which they occur, NOT the order of the posting date. So, I've created a custom field called TheDate and enter in the date in this format for each one: 20110306. Then, I wrote my query like this: query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); Works perfectly and displays the events in the correct order. However, I also want it to ONLY display dates from today onward. I don't want it to display dates which have passed. It seems the way to do this is with a "filter." I tried this, but it doesn't work. $todaysdate = date('Ymd'); query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); function filter_where( $where = '' ) { $where .= "meta_value_num >= $todaysdate"; return $where; } add_filter( 'posts_where', 'filter_where' ); I figure it's just a matter of where I'm using this filter, I probably have it in the wrong place. Or maybe the filter itself is bad. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • PostgreSQL: return select count(*) from old_ids;

    - by Alexander Farber
    Hello, please help me with 1 more PL/pgSQL question. I have a PHP-script run as daily cronjob and deleting old records from 1 main table and few further tables referencing its "id" column: create or replace function quincytrack_clean() returns integer as $BODY$ begin create temp table old_ids (id varchar(20)) on commit drop; insert into old_ids select id from quincytrack where age(QDATETIME) > interval '30 days'; delete from hide_id where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_mks where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_cl where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_comment where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from quincytrack where id in (select id from old_ids); return select count(*) from old_ids; end; $BODY$ language plpgsql; And here is how I call it from the PHP script: $sth = $pg->prepare('select quincytrack_clean()'); $sth->execute(); if ($row = $sth->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) printf("removed %u old rows\n", $row['count']); Why do I get the following error? SQLSTATE[42601]: Syntax error: 7 ERROR: syntax error at or near "select" at character 9 QUERY: SELECT select count(*) from old_ids CONTEXT: SQL statement in PL/PgSQL function "quincytrack_clean" near line 23 Thank you! Alex

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  • Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

    - by Ev
    Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

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  • Will my LinqToSql execution be deffered if i filter with IEnumerable<T> instead of IQueryable<T>?

    - by cottsak
    I have been using these common EntityObjectFilters as a "pipes and filters" way to query from a collection a particular item with an ID: public static class EntityObjectFilters { public static T WithID<T>(this IQueryable<T> qry, int ID) where T : IEntityObject { return qry.SingleOrDefault<T>(item => item.ID == ID); } public static T WithID<T>(this IList<T> list, int ID) where T : IEntityObject { return list.SingleOrDefault<T>(item => item.ID == ID); } } ..but i wondered to myself: "can i make this simpler by just creating an extension for all IEnumerable<T> types"? So i came up with this: public static class EntityObjectFilters { public static T WithID<T>(this IEnumerable<T> qry, int ID) where T : IEntityObject { return qry.SingleOrDefault<T>(item => item.ID == ID); } } Now while this appears to yield the same result, i want to know that when applied to IQueryable<T>s will the expression tree be passed to LinqToSql for evaluating as SQL code or will my qry be evaluated in it's entirety first, then iterated with Funcs? I'm suspecting that (as per Richard's answer) the latter will be true which is obviously what i don't want. I want the same result, but the added benefit of the delayed SQL execution for IQueryable<T>s. Can someone confirm for me what will actually happen and provide simple explanation as to how it would work?

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  • Get part of array string

    - by user1560295
    Hello my output PHP code is : Array ( [country] => BG - Bulgaria ) ... and he comes from here : <?php $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; print_r(geoCheckIP($ip)); //Array ( [domain] => dslb-094-219-040-096.pools.arcor-ip.net [country] => DE - Germany [state] => Hessen [town] => Erzhausen ) //Get an array with geoip-infodata function geoCheckIP($ip) { //check, if the provided ip is valid if(!filter_var($ip, FILTER_VALIDATE_IP)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("IP is not valid"); } //contact ip-server $response=@file_get_contents('http://www.netip.de/search?query='.$ip); if (empty($response)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("Error contacting Geo-IP-Server"); } //Array containing all regex-patterns necessary to extract ip-geoinfo from page $patterns=array(); $patterns["country"] = '#Country: (.*?)&nbsp;#i'; //Array where results will be stored $ipInfo=array(); //check response from ipserver for above patterns foreach ($patterns as $key => $pattern) { //store the result in array $ipInfo[$key] = preg_match($pattern,$response,$value) && !empty($value[1]) ? $value[1] : ''; } return $ipInfo; } ?> How can I get ONLY the name of the Country like in my case "Bulgaria"? I think it will happen with preg_replace or substr but i dont know what is the better solution now.

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  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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  • dynamically embedding youtube videos with jquery

    - by danwoods
    Hello all, I'm trying to retrieve a listing of a user's youtube videos and embed them in a page using jQuery. My code looks something like this: $(document).ready(function() { //some variables var fl_obj_template = $('<object width="260" height="140">' + '<param name="movie" value=""></param>' + '<param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param>' + '<param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param>' + '<embed src="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="260" height="140"></embed>' + '</object>'); var video_elm_arr = $('.video'); //hide videos until ready $('.video').addClass('hidden'); //pull video data from youtube $.ajax({ url: 'http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/username/uploads?alt=json', dataType: 'jsonp', success: function(data) { $.each(data.feed.entry, function(i,item){ //only take the first 7 videos if(i > 6) return; //give the video element a flash object var cur_flash_obj = fl_obj_template; //assign title $(video_elm_arr[i]).find('.video_title').html(item.title.$t); //clean url var video_url = item.media$group.media$content[0].url; var index = video_url.indexOf("?"); if (index > 0) video_url = video_url.substring(0, index); //and asign it to the player's parameters $(cur_flash_obj).find('object param[name="movie"]').attr('value', video_url); $(cur_flash_obj).find('object embed').attr('src', video_url); //alert(cur_flash_obj); //insert flash object in video element $(video_elm_arr[i]).append(cur_flash_obj); //and show $(video_elm_arr[i]).removeClass('hidden'); }); } }); }); (of course with 'username' being the actual username). The video titles appear correctly but no videos show up. What gives? The target html looks like: <div id="top_row_center" class="video_center video"> <p class="video_title"></p> </div>

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  • Exporting de-aggregated data

    - by Ben
    I'm currently working on a data export feature for a survey application. We are using SQL2k8. We store data in a normalized format: QuestionId, RespondentId, Answer. We have a couple other tables that define what the question text is for the QuestionId and demographics for the RespondentId... Currently I'm using some dynamic SQL to generate a pivot that joins the question table to the answer table and creates an export, its working... The problem is that it seems slow and we don't have that much data (less than 50k respondents). Right now I'm thinking "why am I 'paying' to de-aggregate the data for each query? Why don't I cache that?" The data being exported is based on dynamic criteria. It could be "give me respondents that completed on x date (or range)" or "people that like blue", etc. Because of that, I think I have to cache at the respondent level, find out what respondents are being exported and then select their combined cached de-aggregated data. To me the quick and dirty fix is a totally flat table, RespondentId, Question1, Question2, etc. The problem is, we have multiple clients and that doesn't scale AND I don't want to have to maintain the flattened table as the survey changes. So I'm thinking about putting an XML column on the respondent table and caching the results of a SELECT * FROM Data FOR XML AUTO WHERE RespondentId = x. With that in place, I would then be able to get my export with filtering and XML calls into the XML column. What are you doing to export aggregated data in a flattened format (CSV, Excel, etc)? Does this approach seem ok? I worry about the cost of XML functions on larger result sets (think SELECT RespondentId, XmlCol.value('//data/question_1', 'nvarchar(50)') AS [Why is there air?], XmlCol.RinseAndRepeat)... Is there a better technology/approach for this? Thanks!

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

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  • Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

    - by ozone
    Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

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  • Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

    - by Michael Bleigh
    I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

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  • Sencha : how to pass parameter to php using Ext.data.HttpProxy?

    - by Lauraire Jérémy
    I have successfully completed this great tutorial : http://www.sencha.com/learn/ext-js-grids-with-php-and-sql/ I just can't use the baseParams field specified with the proxy... Here is my code that follows tutorial description : __ My Store : Communes.js ____ Ext.define('app.store.Communes', { extend: 'Ext.data.Store', id: 'communesstore', requires: ['app.model.Commune'], config: { model: 'app.model.Commune', departement:'var', // the proxy with POST method proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ url: 'app/php/communes.php', // File to connect to method: 'POST' }), // the parameter passed to the proxy baseParams:{ departement: "VAR" }, // the JSON parser reader: new Ext.data.JsonReader({ // we tell the datastore where to get his data from rootProperty: 'results' }, [ { name: 'IdCommune', type: 'integer' }, { name: 'NomCommune', type: 'string' } ]), autoLoad: true, sortInfo:{ field: 'IdCommune', direction: "ASC" } } }); _____ The php file : communes.php _____ <?php /** * CREATE THE CONNECTION */ mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "pwd") or die("Could not connect: " . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("databasename"); /** * INITIATE THE POST */ $departement = 'null'; if ( isset($_POST['departement'])){ $departement = $_POST['departement']; // Get this from Ext } getListCommunes($departement); /** * */ function getListCommunes($departement) { [CODE HERE WORK FINE : just a connection and query but $departement is NULL] } ?> There is no parameter passed as POST method... Any idea?

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  • using LoadControl with object initializer to create properties

    - by lloydphillips
    In the past I've used UserControls to create email templates which I can fill properties on and then use LoadControl and then RenderControl to get the html for which to use for the body text of my email. This was within asp.net webforms. I'm in the throws of building an mvc website and wanted to do something similar. I've actually considered putting this functionality in a seperate class library and am looking into how I can do this so that in my web layer I can just call EmailTemplate.SubscriptionEmail() which will then generate the html from my template with properties in relevant places (obviously there needs to be parameters for email address etc in there). I wanted to create a single Render control method for which I can pass a string to the path of the UserControl which is my template. I've come across this on the web that kind of suits my needs: public static string RenderUserControl(string path, string propertyName, object propertyValue) { Page pageHolder = new Page(); UserControl viewControl = (UserControl)pageHolder.LoadControl(path); if (propertyValue != null) { Type viewControlType = viewControl.GetType(); PropertyInfo property = viewControlType.GetProperty(propertyName); if (property != null) property.SetValue(viewControl, propertyValue, null); else { throw new Exception(string.Format( "UserControl: {0} does not have a public {1} property.", path, propertyName)); } } pageHolder.Controls.Add(viewControl); StringWriter output = new StringWriter(); HttpContext.Current.Server.Execute(pageHolder, output, false); return output.ToString(); } My issue is that my UserControl(s) may have multiple and differing properties. So SubscribeEmail may require FirstName and EmailAddress where another email template UserControl (lets call it DummyEmail) would require FirstName, EmailAddress and DateOfBirth. The method above only appears to carry one parameter for propertyName and propertyValue. I considered an array of strings that I could put the varying properties into but then I thought it'd be cool to have an object intialiser so I could call the method like this: RenderUserControl("EmailTemplates/SubscribeEmail.ascs", new object() { Firstname="Lloyd", Email="[email protected]" }) Does that make sense? I was just wondering if this is at all possible in the first place and how I'd implement it? I'm not sure if it would be possible to map the properties set on 'object' to properties on the loaded user control and if it is possible where to start in doing this? Has anyone done something like this before? Can anyone help? Lloyd

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • Classic ASP Recursive function

    - by user333411
    Hi everyone, I havent done any classic ASP for a couple of years and now trying to get back into it from c# is prooving impossible! I've got a recursive function which very simply is supposed to query a database based on a value passed to the function and once the function has stopped calling itself it returns the recordset....however im getting the old error '80020009' message. I've declared the recordset outside of the function. Cany anyone see the error in my ways? Dim objRsTmp Function buildList(intParentGroupID) Set objRsTmp = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Recordset") SQLCommand = "SELECT * FROM tblGroups WHERE tblGroups.intParentGroupID = " & intParentGroupID & ";" objRsTmp.Open SQLCommand, strConnection, 3, 3 If Not objRsTmp.Eof Then While Not objRsTmp.Eof Response.Write(objRsTmp("strGroup") & "<br />") buildList(objRsTmp("intID")) objRsTmp.MoveNext Wend End If Set buildList = objRsTmp '#objRsTmp.Close() 'Set objRsTmp = Nothing End Function Set objRs = buildList(0) If Not objRs.Eof Then Response.Write("There are records") While Not objRs.Eof For Each oFld in objRs.Fields Response.Write(oFld.Name & ": " & oFld.Value & ",") next Response.Write("<br />") objRs.MoveNext Wend End If Any assistance would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Al

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  • Passing password value through URL

    - by Steven Wright
    OK I see a lot of people asking about passing other values, URLS, random stuff through a URL, but don't find anything about sending a password to a password field. Here is my situation: I have a ton of sites I use on a daily basis with my work and oh about 90% require logins. Obviously remembering 80 bajillion logins for each site is dumb, especially when there are more than one user name I use for each site. So to make life easier, I drew up a nifty JSP app that stores all of my logins in a DB table and creates a user interface for the specific page I want to visit. Each page has a button that sends a username, password into the id parameters of the html inputs. Problem: I can get the usernames and other info to show up just dandy, but when I try and send a password to a password field, it seems that nothing gets received by the page I'm trying to hit. Is there some ninja stuff I need to be doing here or is it just not easily possible? Basically this is what I do now: http://addresshere/support?loginname=steveoooo&loginpass=passwordhere and some of my html looks like this: <form name="userform" method="post" action="index.jsp" > <input type="hidden" name="submit_login" value="y"> <table width="100%"> <tr class="main"> <td width="100" nowrap>Username:</td> <td><input type="text" name="loginname" value="" size="30" maxlength="64"></td> </tr> <tr class="main"> <td>Password: </font></td> <td><input type="password" name="loginpass" value="" size="30" maxlength="64"></td> </tr> <tr class="main"> <td><center><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Login"></center></td> </tr> </table> </form> Any suggestions?

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  • Getting Outlook calendar items based on subject

    - by EKS
    I'm trying to get a list of calendar objects from exchange and sorting them based on subject. The part of of getting the objects just based on date and sorting out via subject is in "code" is now working, but i want to do a sort on subject in the "sql" first, but im unable to make it work ( Currently getting error from exchange saying the query is wrong. The line I added is: + "AND lcase(\"urn:schemas:calendar:subject\") = 'onsite%' " What I want is the ability to catch all appointments that start with onsite, both in upper and lower case. strQuery = "<?xml version=\"1.0\"?>" + "<g:searchrequest xmlns:g=\"DAV:\">" + "<g:sql>SELECT \"urn:schemas:calendar:location\", \"urn:schemas:httpmail:subject\", " + "\"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\", \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtend\", " + "\"urn:schemas:calendar:busystatus\", \"urn:schemas:calendar:instancetype\" " + "FROM Scope('SHALLOW TRAVERSAL OF \"" + strCalendarURI + "\"') " + "WHERE NOT \"urn:schemas:calendar:instancetype\" = 1 " + "AND \"DAV:contentclass\" = 'urn:content-classes:appointment' " + "AND \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\" > '2003/06/01 00:00:00' " //'" + DateString + "'" + "AND lcase(\"urn:schemas:calendar:subject\") = 'onsite' " + "ORDER BY \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\" ASC" + "</g:sql></g:searchrequest>";

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  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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  • SQL SERVER FOR XML SYNTAX

    - by Raj73
    How can I get an output as follows using FOR XML / sql query. I am not sure how I can get the Column Values as Elements instead of the tables' column Names. I am using sql server 2005 I HAVE TABLE SCEMA AS FOLLOWS CREATE TABLE PARENT ( PID INT, PNAME VARCHAR(20) ) CREATE TABLE CHILD ( PID INT, CID INT, CNAME VARCHAR(20) ) CREATE TABLE CHILDVALUE ( CID INT, CVALUE VARCHAR(20) ) INSERT INTO PARENT VALUES (1, 'SALES1') INSERT INTO PARENT VALUES (2, 'SALES2') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (1, 1, 'FOR01') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (1, 2, 'FOR02') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (2, 3, 'FOR03') INSERT INTO CHILD VALUES (2, 4, 'FOR04') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (1, '250000') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (2, '400000') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (3, '500000') INSERT INTO CHILDVALUE VALUES (4, '800000') The Output I am looking for is as follows <SALE1> <FOR01>250000</FOR01> <FOR02>400000</FOR02> </SALE1> <SALE2> <FOR03>500000</FOR03> <FOR04>800000</FOR04> </SALE2>

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  • SQLBrowser will not start

    - by Oliver
    SQL Server 2005 x64 on Windows Server 2003 x64, with multiple instances (default + 2 named). Engineers moved server to a different domain. Since then, cannot get SQLBrowser to start. Still able to query the default instance, and can access named instances by port (TCP:hostname,port#). When on server, can use SSMS to connect to the instances, all is well from that perspective. No errors in the SQL Server logs. As SQLBrowser is starting, an entry in EventViewer.Application says that one of the named instances has an invalid configuration, but I haven't been able to figure out what is invalid. Startup continues, and next message says "The SQLBrowser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery." Next, it enables instance and connectivity discovery support; next, another message about that same named instance having an invalid configuration; then an event says that SQLBrowser has started; last, an event shows the SQLBrowser service has shutdown. I got SQLBrowser to get past the issue with the first named instance by temporarily renaming a registry entry, and now the second named instance can be accessed by name rather than port. Still, cannot access the first named instance by name. Advice?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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