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  • sql 2008 sqldmo alternative

    - by alexdelpiero
    Hi! I previously was using sqldmo to automatically generate scripts from the databse. Now I upgraded to sql server 2008 and I don’t want to use this feature anymore since Microsoft will be dropping this feature off. Is there any other alternative I can use to connect to a server and generate scripts automatically from a database? Any answer is welcome. Thanks in advance. This is the procedure i was previously using: CREATE PROC GenerateSP ( @server varchar(30) = null, @uname varchar(30) = null, @pwd varchar(30) = null, @dbname varchar(30) = null, @filename varchar(200) = 'c:\script.sql' ) AS DECLARE @object int DECLARE @hr int DECLARE @return varchar(200) DECLARE @exec_str varchar(2000) DECLARE @spname sysname SET NOCOUNT ON -- Sets the server to the local server IF @server is NULL SELECT @server = @@servername -- Sets the database to the current database IF @dbname is NULL SELECT @dbname = db_name() -- Sets the username to the current user name IF @uname is NULL SELECT @uname = SYSTEM_USER -- Create an object that points to the SQL Server EXEC @hr = sp_OACreate 'SQLDMO.SQLServer', @object OUT IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error create SQLOLE.SQLServer' RETURN END -- Connect to the SQL Server IF @pwd is NULL BEGIN EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'Connect', NULL, @server, @uname IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Connect' RETURN END END ELSE BEGIN EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'Connect', NULL, @server, @uname, @pwd IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Connect' RETURN END END --Verify the connection EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'VerifyConnection', @return OUT IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error VerifyConnection' RETURN END SET @exec_str = 'DECLARE script_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM ' + @dbname + '..sysobjects WHERE type = ''P'' ORDER BY Name' EXEC (@exec_str) OPEN script_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM script_cursor INTO @spname WHILE (@@fetch_status < -1) BEGIN SET @exec_str = 'Databases("'+ @dbname +'").StoredProcedures("'+RTRIM(UPPER(@spname))+'").Script(74077,"'+ @filename +'")' EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, @exec_str, @return OUT IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Script' RETURN END FETCH NEXT FROM script_cursor INTO @spname END CLOSE script_cursor DEALLOCATE script_cursor -- Destroy the object EXEC @hr = sp_OADestroy @object IF @hr < 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error destroy object' RETURN END GO

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  • Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

    - by Bob Horn
    I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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  • Back up a single table in SQL Server

    - by BuckWoody
    SQL Server doesn’t have an easy way to take a table backup, so I often use the bcp (Bulk Copy Program) to accomplish the same goal. I’ve mentioned this before, and someone told me when they tried it they couldn’t restore the table – ah the dangers of telling people half the information! I should have mentioned that you need to have a “format file” ready if the table does not exist at the destination. In my case I already had the table, in this person’s case they did not. The format file can be used to rebuild that table structure before the data is bcp’d in, and you can read more about it here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191516.aspx There’s another way to back up a table, and that’s to create a Filegroup and place the table there. Then you can take a Filegroup backup to back up a single table. Of course, there are other methods of moving a single table’s data in an out, including SQL Server Integration Services and even the older Data Transformation Services, or simply by using hte SQLCMD or PowerShell utilities to run a query and just save the output to a file. In fact, these days I’m using a PowerShell script to build INSERT statements from that query. That could also easily be modified to create the table structure (or modify one if needed) quite easily. Share this post: email it! | bookmark it! | digg it! | reddit! | kick it! | live it!

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  • Logging exceptions during bean injection

    - by Marc W
    I think this is a pretty basic question, but after Googling around I can't seem to find the answer. What I need is a way to log some custom output with log4j during Spring bean construction. I have a factory class called ResponderFactory (being used as an instance factory in Spring) with a factory method that can throw 2 different types of exception. public CollectorResponder collectorResponder(String inputQueueName) throws ConfigurationException, BrokerConnectionException {} Now, normally I could wrap a call to this method in a try-catch block with 2 catch clauses to handle the logging situations for each of the exceptions. However, if I'm using Spring to inject this CollectorResponder, created with the factory, into another class I don't see how this is possible. <bean id="responderFactory" class="com.package.ResponderFactory"> <constructor-arg index="0" ref="basicDispatcher" /> <constructor-arg index="1" value="http://localhost:9000" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorResponder" class="com.package.CollectorResponder" factory-bean="responderFactory" factory-method="collectorResponder"> <constructor-arg value="collector.in" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorConsumer" class="com.package.CollectorConsumer"> <constructor-arg ref="collectorResponder" /> </bean> Again, I want to catch these exceptions when the collectorResponder bean is instantiated. Right now I'm dealing with this is CollectorConsumer when I instantiate using new CollectorResponder(...). Is there any way I can do this?

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  • IoC / Dependency Injection - please explain code versus XML

    - by steve.macdonald
    I understand basically how IoC frameworks work, however one thing I don't quite get is how code-based config is supposed to work. With XML I understand how you could add a new assembly to a deployed application, then change the config in XML to include it. If the application is already deployed (i.e., compiled in some form) then how can code changes be made without recompiling? Or is that what people do, just change config in code and recompile?

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  • How far does Dependency Injection reach?

    - by Baddie
    My web app solution consists of 3 projects: Web App (ASP.NET MVC) Business Logic Layer (Class Library) Database Layer (Entity Framework) I want to use Ninject to manage the lifetime of the DataContext generated by the Entity Framework in the Database Layer. The Business Logic layer consists of classes which reference repositories (located in the database layer) and my ASP.NET MVC app references the business logic layer's service classes to run code. Each repository creates an instance of the MyDataContext object from the Entity Framework Repository public class MyRepository { private MyDataContext db; public MyRepository { this.db = new MyDataContext(); } // methods } Business Logic Classes public class BizLogicClass { private MyRepository repos; public MyRepository { this.repos = new MyRepository(); } // do stuff with the repos } Will Ninject handle the lifetime of MyDataContext despite the lengthy dependency chain from the Web App to the Data Layer?

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  • MS SQL datetime precision problem

    - by Nailuj
    I have a situation where two persons might work on the same order (stored in an MS SQL database) from two different computers. To prevent data loss in the case where one would save his copy of the order first, and then a little later the second would save his copy and overwrite the first, I've added a check against the lastSaved field (datetime) before saving. The code looks roughly like this: private bool orderIsChangedByOtherUser(Order localOrderCopy) { // Look up fresh version of the order from the DB Order databaseOrder = orderService.GetByOrderId(localOrderCopy.Id); if (databaseOrder != null && databaseOrder.LastSaved > localOrderCopy.LastSaved) { return true; } else { return false; } } This works for most of the time, but I have found one small bug. If orderIsChangedByOtherUser returns false, the local copy will have its lastSaved updated to the current time and then be persisted to the database. The value of lastSaved in the local copy and the DB should now be the same. However, if orderIsChangedByOtherUser is run again, it sometimes returns true even though no other user has made changes to the DB. When debugging in Visual Studio, databaseOrder.LastSaved and localOrderCopy.LastSaved appear to have the same value, but when looking closer they some times differ by a few milliseconds. I found this article with a short notice on the millisecond precision for datetime in SQL: Another problem is that SQL Server stores DATETIME with a precision of 3.33 milliseconds (0. 00333 seconds). The solution I could think of for this problem, is to compare the two datetimes and consider them equal if they differ by less than say 10 milliseconds. My question to you is then: are there any better/safer ways to compare two datetime values in MS SQL to see if they are exactly the same?

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  • Instance management with Dependency injection (DI)

    - by Sven
    Hello I'm trying to understand how DI exactly works. I'm currently using Windsor as DI container. I use this to load my services dynamically in code without direct reference. But I have change behaviour and want to know a bit more on the instance mgmt using DI. I have a web app projct, here is a WCF service using PerCall as instancemode. This means, new instance/call. In this WCF I call a service (loaded via DI) and this service calls another service (again loaded via DI). The WCF is a new instance in the appdomain, but what about the services. They are also new instances? Is this DI container shared among all WCF instances and are the services in this container also single instances? Can anyone clarify?

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  • Instead of trigger in SQL Server - looses SCOPE_IDENTITY?

    - by kastermester
    Hey StackOverflow, I am (once again) having some issues with some SQL. I have a table, on which I have created an INSTEAD OF trigger to enforce some buissness rules (rules not really important). This works as intended. My issue is, that now when inserting data into this table, SCOPE_IDENTITY() now returns a NULL value, rather than the actual inserted identity, my guess is that this is because it is now out of scope - but then how do I get this in scope? I am using SQL Server 2008. Per request, here's the SQL: Insert + Scope code INSERT INTO [dbo].[Payment]([DateFrom], [DateTo], [CustomerId], [AdminId]) VALUES ('2009-01-20', '2009-01-31', 6, 1) SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY() Trigger: CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_Payments_Insert] ON [dbo].[Payment] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT 1 FROM dbo.Payment p INNER JOIN Inserted i ON p.CustomerId = i.CustomerId WHERE (i.DateFrom >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateFrom <= p.DateTo) OR (i.DateTo >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <= p.DateTo) ) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM Inserted p INNER JOIN Inserted i ON p.CustomerId = i.CustomerId WHERE (i.DateFrom <> p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <> p.DateTo) AND ((i.DateFrom >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateFrom <= p.DateTo) OR (i.DateTo >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <= p.DateTo)) ) BEGIN INSERT INTO dbo.Payment (DateFrom, DateTo, CustomerId, AdminId) SELECT DateFrom, DateTo, CustomerId, AdminId FROM Inserted END ELSE BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION END END The code did work before the creation of this trigger, also I am using LINQ to SQL in C# and as far as I can see, I have no way of changing SCOPE_IDENTITY to @@IDENITY - is there really no way out of this one?

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  • StructureMap resolve dependency through injection instead of service location

    - by Chris Marisic
    In my project I register many ISerializers implementations with the assembly scanner. FWIW this is the code that registers my ISerializers Scan(scanner => { scanner.AssemblyContainingType<ISerializer>(); scanner.AddAllTypesOf<ISerializer>().NameBy(type => type.Name); scanner.WithDefaultConventions(); }); Which then correctly registers ISerializer (...ISerializer) Scoped as: Transient JsonSerializer Configured Instance of ...JsonSerializer BsonSerializer Configured Instance of ...BsonSerializer And so forth. Currently the only way I've been able to figure out how to resolve the serializer I want is to hardcode a service location call with jsonSerializer = ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<ISerializer>("JsonSerializer"); Now I know in my class that I specifically want the jsonSerializer so is there a way to configure a rule or similar that says for ISerializer's to connect the named instance based on the property name? So that I could have MySomeClass(ISerializer jsonSerializer, ....) And StructureMap correctly resolve this scenario? Or am I approaching this wrong and perhaps I should just register the concrete type that implements ISerializer and then just specifically use MySomeClass(JsonSerializer jsonSerializer, ....) for something along these lines with the concrete class?

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  • How to set minimum SQL Server resource allocation for a database?

    - by Jeff Widmer
    Over the past Christmas holiday week, when the website I work on was experiencing very low traffic, we saw several Request timed out exceptions (one on each day 12/26, 12/28, 12/29, and 12/30) on several pages that require user authentication. We rarely saw Request timed out exceptions prior to this very low traffic week. We believe the timeouts were due to the database that it uses being "spun down" on the SQL Server and taking longer to spin up when a request came in. There are 2 databases on the SQL Server (SQL Server 2005), one which is specifically for this application and the other for the public facing website and for authentication; so in the case where users were not logged into the application (which definitely could have been for several hours at a time over Christmas week) the application database probably received no requests. We think at this point SQL Server reallocated resources to the other database and then when a request came in, extra time was needed to spin up the application database and the timeout occurred. Is there a way to tell SQL Server to give a minimum amount of resources to a database at all times?

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  • do I have both sql 05 and 08 installed?

    - by Blankman
    When in 'sql server configuration manager' I see, under 'sql server services', 2 items that look like sql server's: sql server (sqlexpress) sql server (mssqlserver) Does that mean I have 2 versions installed at the same time? The 'sql server (mssqlserver) is currently stopped).

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  • ruby on rails params injection

    - by Julien P.
    Hello everyone, I have a question about ruby on rails and the process of assigning variables using the params variable passed through a form class User attr_accessible :available_to_admins, :name end Let's say that I have a field that is only available to my admins. Assuming that you are not an admin, I am going to not display the available_to_admins input in your form. After that, when I want to save your data I'll just do a: User.update_attributes(params[:user]) If you are an admin, then no problem, the params[:user] is going to contain name and available_tu_admins and if you're not then only your name. Since the available_to_admins is an attr_accessible parameter, how should I prevent non admin users from being able to inject a variable containing the available_to_admins input with their new value?

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  • SQL Server lock/hang issue

    - by mattwoberts
    Hi, I'm using SQL Server 2008 on Windows Server 2008 R2, all sp'd up. I'm getting occasional issues with SQL Server hanging with the CPU usage on 100% on our live server. It seems all the wait time on SQL Sever when this happens is given to SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD. Here is the Stored Proc that causes the hang. I've added the "WITH (NOLOCK)" in an attempt to fix what seems to be a locking issue. ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MostPopularRead] AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource as ContentSource , sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) as Popularity , (sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) * 100) / @Total as Percent , @Total as TotalHits from ContentHit ch WITH (NOLOCK) join [Content] c WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.ContentId = c.ContentId join HitWeight hw WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.HitWeightId = hw.HitWeightId join ContentType ct WITH (NOLOCK) on c.ContentTypeId = ct.ContentTypeId where ch.CreatedDate between @Then and @Now group by c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource order by sum(ch.HitCount * hw.HitWeightMultiplier) desc END The stored proc reads from the table "ContentHit", which is a table that tracks when content on the site is clicked (it gets hit quite frequently - anything from 4 to 20 hits a minute). So its pretty clear that this table is the source of the problem. There is a stored proc that is called to add hit tracks to the ContentHit table, its pretty trivial, it just builds up a string from the params passed in, which involves a few selects from some lookup tables, followed by the main insert: BEGIN TRAN insert into [ContentHit] (ContentId, HitCount, HitWeightId, ContentHitComment) values (@ContentId, isnull(@HitCount,1), isnull(@HitWeightId,1), @ContentHitComment) COMMIT TRAN The ContentHit table has a clustered index on its ID column, and I've added another index on CreatedDate since that is used in the select. When I profile the issue, I see the Stored proc executes for exactly 30 seconds, then the SQL timeout exception occurs. If it makes a difference the web application using it is ASP.NET, and I'm using Subsonic (3) to execute these stored procs. Can someone please advise how best I can solve this problem? I don't care about reading dirty data... Thanks

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  • How do I login to SQL Server without having to use "Run as Administrator" when starting Management S

    - by MedicineMan
    When I start Management Studio, unless I use the "Run as Administrator" selection, I cannot login to my local SQL Server. Is this normal? I am a normal developer and don't believe I have a need for high security on my local machine. I'm running SQL Server 2008, Windows 7. The error I get is: Cannot connect to (local) Additional Information Login failed for user 'MYCOMPUTER\MyName'. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456)

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  • Website Link Injection

    - by Ryan B
    I have a website that is fairly static. It has some forms on it to send in contact information, mailing list submissions, etc. Perhaps hours/days after an upload to the site I found that the main index page had new code in it that I had not placed there that contained a hidden bunch of links in a invisible div. I have the following code the handles the variables sent in from the form. <?php // PHP Mail Order to [email protected] w/ some error detection. $jamemail = "[email protected]"; function check_input($data, $problem='') { $data = trim($data); $data = stripslashes($data); $data = htmlspecialchars($data); if ($problem && strlen($data) == 0) { die($problem); } return $data; } $email = check_input($_POST['email'], "Please input email address."); $name = check_input($_POST['name'], "Please input name."); mail($jamemail, "Mailing List Submission", "Name: " . $name . " Email: " .$email); header('Location: index.php'); ?> I have the following code within the index page to present the form with some Javascript to do error detection on the content of the submission prior to submission. <form action="sendlist.php" method="post" onSubmit="return checkmaill(this);"> <label for="name"><strong>Name: </strong></label> <input type="text" name="name"/><br /> <label for="email"><strong>Email: </strong></label> <input type="text" name="email"/><br /> &nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;<input type="submit" value="Subscribe" style="width: 100px;"/> </form> At the end of the day, the source code where the injected hyperlinks is as follows: </body> </html><!-- google --><font style="position: absolute;overflow: hidden;height: 0;width: 0"> xeex172901 <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/onondaga.php>onondaga</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/tami.php>tami</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/shotguns.php>shotguns</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/weir.php>weir</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/copperhead.php>copperhead</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/mpv.php>mpv</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/brunei.php>brunei</a> <a href=http://menorca.caeb.com/od9c2/xjdmy/doreen.php>doreen</a>

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  • How can you connect to a SQL Server not on your domain?

    - by scotty2012
    I have a test machine that's not allowed on our domain because we are testing corporately unsupported applications (SQL 2008 and Server 2008). I want to use management studio to connect to the SQL2008 server but can't get it working. I have authentication set to mixed-mode, I've checked 'allow remote connections to this server', but when I try to access it, I get the error A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 53) Since it says the provider is Named Pipes, I enabled Named Pipes on the server, but still no dice. I've tried connecting to the system name, the IP, the system name\instance and IP\instance, all to no avail. Is what I'm trying to do not possible? Edit: Well, through some basic troubleshooting, I've found that I can't ping the server from my client computer, but I can ping the client computer from the server? They are both plugged into the same switch, and are sitting next to each other. The windows firewall on the server is turned on, is there some specific settings I need to enable? DAH! So it was the firewall blocking me. How can I enable the firewall and still connect?

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  • Remote SQL server connection failure

    - by Sevki
    I am trying to connect to my MSSQL server 2008 web instance and im failing horribly... i get the error 26 and before you jump on me i have done these Check the spelling of the SQL Server instance name that is specified in the connection string. Use the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration tool to enable SQL Server to accept remote connections over the TCP or named pipes protocols. For more information about the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration Tool, see Surface Area Configuration for Services and Connections. Make sure that you have configured the firewall on the server instance of SQL Server to open ports for SQL Server and the SQL Server Browser port (UDP 1434). Make sure that the SQL Server Browser service is started on the server. in addition to theese i have disabled the firewall completely and tried other ports nothing works the same credentials work on the server but not on the client. this is the exact error message A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) Can anybody help?

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  • Dependency Injection and Unit of Work pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I have a dilemma. I've used DI (read: factory) to provide core components for a homebrew ORM. The container provides database connections, DAO's,Mappers and their resultant Domain Objects on request. Here's a basic outline of the Mappers and Domain Object classes class Mapper{ public function __constructor($DAO){ $this->DAO = $DAO; } public function load($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; $values = $this->DAO->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); return $Object; } } class User(){ public function setName($string){ $this->name = $string; //mark modified by means fair or foul } } The ORM also contains a class (Monitor) based on the Unit of Work pattern i.e. class Monitor(){ private static array modified; private static array dirty; public function markClean($class); public function markModified($class); } The ORM class itself simply co-ordinates resources extracted from the DI container. So, to instantiate a new User object: $Container = new DI_Container; $ORM = new ORM($Container); $User = $ORM->load('user',1); //at this point the container instantiates a mapper class //and passes a database connection to it via the constructor //the mapper then takes the second argument and loads the user with that id $User->setName('Rumpelstiltskin');//at this point, User must mark itself as "modified" My question is this. At the point when a user sets values on a Domain Object class, I need to mark the class as "dirty" in the Monitor class. I have one of three options as I can see it 1: Pass an instance of the Monitor class to the Domain Object. I noticed this gets marked as recursive in FirePHP - i.e. $this-Monitor-markModified($this) 2: Instantiate the Monitor directly in the Domain Object - does this break DI? 3: Make the Monitor methods static, and call them from inside the Domain Object - this breaks DI too doesn't it? What would be your recommended course of action (other than use an existing ORM, I'm doing this for fun...)

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  • Dependency injection: Scoping by region (Guice, Spring, Whatever)

    - by Itay
    Here's a simplified version of my needs. I have a program where every B object has its own C and D object, injected through Guice. In addition an A object is injected into every C and D objects. What I want: that for each B object, its C and D objects will be injected with the same A object. Specifically, I want the output of the program (below) to be: Created C0 with [A0] Created D0 with [A0] Created B0 with [C0, D0] Created C1 with [A1] Created D1 with [A1] Created B1 with [C1, D1] Where it currently produces the following output: Created C0 with [A0] Created D0 with [A1] <-- Should be A0 Created B0 with [C0, D0] Created C1 with [A2] <-- Should be A1 Created D1 with [A3] <-- Should be A1 Created B1 with [C1, D1] I am expecting DI containers to allow this kind of customization but so far I had no luck in finding a solution. Below is my Guice-based code, but a Spring-based (or other DI containers-based) solution is welcome. import java.util.Arrays; import com.google.inject.*; public class Main { public static class Super { private static Map<Class<?>,Integer> map = new HashMap<Class<?>,Integer>(); private Integer value; public Super(Object... args) { value = map.get(getClass()); value = value == null ? 0 : ++value; map.put(getClass(), value); if(args.length > 0) System.out.println("Created " + this + " with " + Arrays.toString(args)); } @Override public final String toString() { return "" + getClass().getSimpleName().charAt(0) + value; } } public interface A { } public static class AImpl extends Super implements A { } public interface B { } public static class BImpl extends Super implements B { @Inject public BImpl(C c, D d) { super(c,d); } } public interface C { } public static class CImpl extends Super implements C { @Inject public CImpl(A a) { super(a); } } public interface D { } public static class DImpl extends Super implements D { @Inject public DImpl(A a) { super(a); } } public static class MyModule extends AbstractModule { @Override protected void configure() { bind(A.class).to(AImpl.class); bind(B.class).to(BImpl.class); bind(C.class).to(CImpl.class); bind(D.class).to(DImpl.class); } } public static void main(String[] args) { Injector inj = Guice.createInjector(new MyModule()); inj.getInstance(B.class); inj.getInstance(B.class); } }

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  • Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

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