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  • Item in multiple lists

    - by Evan Teran
    So I have some legacy code which I would love to use more modern techniques. But I fear that given the way that things are designed, it is a non-option. The core issue is that often a node is in more than one list at a time. Something like this: struct T { T *next_1; T *prev_1; T *next_2; T *prev_2; int value; }; this allows the core have a single object of type T be allocated and inserted into 2 doubly linked lists, nice and efficient. Obviously I could just have 2 std::list<T*>'s and just insert the object into both...but there is one thing which would be way less efficient...removal. Often the code needs to "destroy" an object of type T and this includes removing the element from all lists. This is nice because given a T* the code can remove that object from all lists it exists in. With something like a std::list I would need to search for the object to get an iterator, then remove that (I can't just pass around an iterator because it is in several lists). Is there a nice c++-ish solution to this, or is the manually rolled way the best way? I have a feeling the manually rolled way is the answer, but I figured I'd ask.

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  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

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  • How do you use boost iterators

    - by Neil G
    It worked, and then I added the typedefs so that I could have a const_sparse_iterator as well. Now, when I compile this and try to use sparse_iterator, it says: /Users/neilrg/nn/src/./core/sparse_vector.h:331: error: invalid use of incomplete type 'struct sparse_vector<A>::sparse_iterator' Here's the code. More code here. tempalte<typename T> class sparse_vector { // There is more code at my previous question, but this might be enough...? private: template<typename base_type> class sparse_iterator_private : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator_private<base_type> // Derived , base_type // Base , value_type // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag // CategoryOrTraversal > { private: struct enabler {}; // a private type avoids misuse public: sparse_iterator_private() : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(0) {} explicit sparse_iterator_private(typename array_type::iterator&& p) : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(p) {} private: friend class boost::iterator_core_access; reference dereference() const { return this->base()->value; } }; public: typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::iterator> sparse_iterator; typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::const_iterator> const_sparse_iterator; };

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  • Chache problem running two consecutive HTTP GET requests from an APP1 to an APP2

    - by user502052
    I use Ruby on Rails 3 and I have 2 applications (APP1 and APP2) working on two subdomains: app1.domain.local app2.domain.local and I am tryng to run two consecutive HTTP GET requests from APP1 to APP2 like this: Code in APP1 (request): response1 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local?test=first&id=1") ) response2 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local/test=second&id=1") ) Code in APP2 (response): respond_to do |format| if <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "first" <model_name>.find(params[:id]).update_attribute ( <field_name>, <field_value> ) format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } elsif <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "second" format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } end end After the first request I get the correct XML (response1 is what I expect), but on the second it isn't (response2 isn't what I expect). Doing some tests I found that the second time that <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> run (for the elsif statements) it returns always a blank value so that the code in the elseif statement is never run. Is it possible that the problem is related on caching <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name>? P.S.: I read about eTag and Conditional GET, but I am not sure that I must use that approach. I would like to keep all simple.

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  • What is wrong with this Fortran '77 snippet?

    - by notJim
    I've been tasked with maintaing some legacy fortran code, and I'm having trouble getting it to compile with gfortran. I've written a fair amount of Fortran 95, but this is my first experience with Fortran 77. This snippet of code is the problematic one: CHARACTER*22 IFILE, OFILE IFILE='TEST.IN' OFILE='TEST.OUT' OPEN(5,FILE=IFILE,STATUS='NEW') OPEN(6,FILE=OFILE,STATUS='NEW') common/pabcde/nfghi When I compile with gfortran file.FOR, all lines starting with the common statement are errors (e.g. Error: Unexpected COMMON statement at (1) for each following line until it hits the 25 error limit). I compiled with -Wall -pedantic, but fixing the warnings did not fix this problem. The crazy thing is that if I comment out all 4 lines starting with IF='TEST.IN', the program compiles and works as expected, but I must comment out all of them. Leaving any of them uncommented gives me the same errors starting with the common statement. If I comment out the common statement, I get the same errors, just starting on the following line. I am on OS X Leopard (not Snow Leopard) using gfortran. I've used this very system with gfortran extensively to write Fortran 95 programs, so in theory the compiler itself is sane. What the hell is going on with this code?

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  • google maps api keys to be set webserver-wide, (as env var? inside apache?)

    - by ~knb
    I have a web site with many virtual hosts and each registered with several domain names (ending in .org, .de), site1.mysite.de, site2.mysite.org Then I have different templating systems based on several programming languages (perl and php) in use on the web server. The Google Maps Api requires a unique Google Maps api key for each vhost. I want to have something like a web-server wide variable $goomapkey that I can call from inside my code. In PHP code, Now I have a kludgy case-analysis solution like $domain = substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], -3); if (".de" == $domain){ //if ("xxxxxx" eq substr($ENV{SERVER_NAME}, 0, 5)){ // $gookey = "ABQIAAA..."; //} else { //site1.de $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1Js..."; //} } elseif ("dev" == substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], 0, 3)){ //dev.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsSb..."; } else { //www.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsS..."; //TODO: Add more keys for each virtual host, for my.machinename.de, IP-address based URL, ... } ... inside my php-based CMS. A non-ideal solution, because it is, php-only, and I still have to set it at several html templates inside the CMS, and there are too many cases. I want the google maps api key to be set by the apache web server who examines the request *early in the request loop before any php page template code is constructed and evaluated. is an environment variable a good solution? which technology should be used to set the $goomapkey variable? I'd prefer mod_perl2 Apache request handler, but the documentation is confusing (many API changes in the past ). Which Apache module could I use? Is there a built-in Apache module that does the same thing?

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  • OpenGL Mipmapping: how does OpenGL decide on map level?

    - by Droozle
    Hi, I am having trouble implementing mipmapping in OpenGL. I am using OpenFrameworks and have modified the ofTexture class to support the creation and rendering of mipmaps. The following code is the original texture creation code from the class (slightly modified for clarity): glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); glTexSubImage2D(texData.textureTarget, 0, 0, 0, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); This is my version with mipmap support: glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); gluBuild2DMipmaps(texData.textureTarget, texData.glTypeInternal, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); The code does not generate errors (gluBuild2DMipmaps returns '0') and the textures are rendered without problems. However, I do not see any difference. The scene I render consists of "flat, square tiles" at z=0. It's basically a 2D scene. I zoom in and out by using "glScale()" before drawing the tiles. When I zoom out, the pixels of the tile textures start to "dance", indicating (as far as I can tell) unfiltered texture look-up. See: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b_As2Np3m8A at 25s. My question is: since I do not move the camera position, but only use scaling of the whole scene, does this mean OpenGL can not decide on the appropriate mipmap level and uses the full texture size (level 0)? Paul

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  • Hard coded contents in SVG Editor is not appearing?

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I'm using this: http://code.google.com/p/svg-edit/ I put a hard coded code inside the svgcanvas div html tag: <div id="svgcanvas"> <svg xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" id="svgroot" height="480" width="640"><svg xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" viewbox="0 0 640 480" id="svgcontent"><g style="pointer-events: all;"><title style="pointer-events: inherit;">Layer 1</title><ellipse ry="69" rx="90" style="pointer-events: inherit;" stroke-width="5" stroke="#000000" fill="#FF0000" id="svg_1" cy="156.5" cx="286"></ellipse></g></svg><g id="selectorParentGroup"><rect style="pointer-events: none;" display="none" stroke-width="0.5" stroke="#22C" fill-opacity="0.15" fill="#22C" id="selectorRubberBand"></rect></g></svg> </div> My expected output is that it should draw the example svg code in there but it didn't. Even if I reload the page it will still not appear. How can I make it appear? Thanks

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  • All Callbacks on GUI Thread - Multithreading issues possible?

    - by miguel
    We have an external data provider which, in its construtor, takes a callback thread for returning data upon. There are some issues in the system which I am suspicious are related to threading, however, in theory they cannot be, due to the fact that the callbacks should all be returned on the same thread. My question is, does code like this require thread synchronisation? class Foo { ExternalDataProvider _provider; public Foo() { // This is the c'tor for the xternal data provider, taking a callback loop as param _provider = new ExternalDataProvider(UILoop); _provider.DataArrived += ExternalProviderCallbackMethod; } public ExternalProviderCallbackMethod(...) { //...(code omitted) var itemArray[] = new String[4] { "item1", "item2", "item3", "item4" }; for (int i = 0; i < itemArray.Length; i++) { string s = itemArray[i]; switch(s) { case "item1": DoItem1Action(); break; case "item2": DoItem2Action(); break; default: DoDefaultAction(); break; } //...(code omitted) } } } The issue is that, very infrequently, DoItem2Action is executingwhen DoItem1Action should be exectuing. Is it at all possible threading is at fault here? In theory, as all callbacks are arriving on the same thread, they should be serialized, right? So there should be no need for thread sync here?

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  • Getting hover text with selenium in java

    - by BinaryEmpire
    I am trying to figure out how to get the product availability text from a page like http://www.walmart.com/browse/TV-Video/TVs/_/N-96v3? (once a store has been selected) I selected 76574 as my zipcode and went to the "In My Store" tab The code I have now is WebElement hoverElement = driver.findElement(By.xpath(".//*[@id='Body_15992428']/span")); WebElement hidden = driver.findElement(By.xpath(".//*[@id='slapInfo_NoVariant_15992428']/div")); Actions builder = new Actions(driver); builder.clickAndHold(hoverElement).build().perform(); System.out.println(hidden.getText()); **Edit: I tried profile.setEnableNativeEvents(false); and the text is now displayed in the automated browser window. I still cannot get to the text I want though. It does not throw an exception, only displays nothing because the driver thinks its still hidden. Any one know how to fix this? I keep getting Exception in thread "main" org.openqa.selenium.InvalidElementStateException: Cannot perform native interaction: Could not load native events component. Even after I do profile.setEnableNativeEvents(true); Are there any other ways I can get the hidden text, or what am I doing wrong here? Additionally while I was inspecting the code with firebug, I saw that there is this code <script type="text/javascript"> WALMART.$(document).ready(function(){ WALMART.$('#Body_15992428').hover(function(){ WALMART.$('#SeeStoreAvailBubble').wmBubble('update',WALMART.$('#bubbleMsgUpdate_15992428').html()); }); }); </script> I dont really know how to do things directly with javascript but is there is any way of getting the message text directly from that with a javascript executor?

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  • How to use a TFileStream to read 2D matrices into dynamic array?

    - by Robert Frank
    I need to read a large (2000x2000) matrix of binary data from a file into a dynamic array with Delphi 2010. I don't know the dimensions until run-time. I've never read raw data like this, and don't know IEEE so I'm posting this to see if I'm on track. I plan to use a TFileStream to read one row at a time. I need to be able to read as many of these formats as possible: 16-bit two's complement binary integer 32-bit two's complement binary integer 64-bit two's complement binary integer IEEE single precision floating-point For 32-bit two's complement, I'm thinking something like the code below. Changing to Int64 and Int16 should be straight forward. How can I read the IEEE? Am I on the right track? Any suggestions on this code, or how to elegantly extend it for all 4 data types above? Since my post-processing will be the same after reading this data, I guess I'll have to copy the matrix into a common format when done. I have no problem just having four procedures (one for each data type) like the one below, but perhaps there's an elegant way to use RTTI or buffers and then move()'s so that the same code works for all 4 datatypes? Thanks! type TRowData = array of Int32; procedure ReadMatrix; var Matrix: array of TRowData; NumberOfRows: Cardinal; NumberOfCols: Cardinal; CurRow: Integer; begin NumberOfRows := 20; // not known until run time NumberOfCols := 100; // not known until run time SetLength(Matrix, NumberOfRows); for CurRow := 0 to NumberOfRows do begin SetLength(Matrix[CurRow], NumberOfCols); FileStream.ReadBuffer(Matrix[CurRow], NumberOfCols * SizeOf(Int32)) ); end; end;

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  • Converting string to a simple type

    - by zespri
    .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

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  • HTML input not working correctly with AJAX update panels used else where on page

    - by Sean P
    I have some update panels on my page that do some asyncpostbacks to keep some dropdownlists correctly populated. My problem is that on my page i have an HTML input that is handling some file uploads. With the AJAX on the page with asyncpostbacks, and while i step through my code behind, the files arent being uploaded. Using a postbacktrigger (non-async) is not possible because of my layout. Here is my code: <div id="divFileInputs" runat="server"> <input id="file1" name="fileInput" type="file" runat="server" size="50" style="width: 50em" onfocus="AddFileInput()" class="textbox" /></div> <select id="selectFileList" name="ListBox1" size="5" style="width: 50em; text-align: left;" class="textbox" /> <input id="RemoveAttachmentButton" type="button" value="Remove" onclick="RemoveFileInput()" class="removebutton " /> </div> Here is my code behind: Protected Sub CopyAttachments(ByVal issueId As String) Dim files As HttpFileCollection = Request.Files Dim myStream As System.IO.Stream Dim service As New SubmitService.Service For i As Integer = 0 To files.Count - 1 Dim postedFile As HttpPostedFile = files(i) Dim fileNameWithoutPath As String = System.IO.Path.GetFileName(postedFile.FileName) If fileNameWithoutPath.Length > 0 And issueId.Length > 0 Then Dim fileLength As Integer = postedFile.ContentLength Dim fileContents(fileLength) As Byte ' Read the file into the byte array. Send it to the web service. myStream = postedFile.InputStream myStream.Read(fileContents, 0, fileLength) service.ClearQuestAttachToIssue(issueId, fileNameWithoutPath, fileContents) End If Next service = Nothing End Sub When I put a breakpoint in at the declaration of service and then check the value of "files", the count is 0. I am expecting it to be 2 when i have one file uploaded. Anyone know how to fix this?

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  • Javascript, IE, Strings, and Performance problems

    - by Infinity
    Hey guys, So we have this product, and it's really slow in IE. We've already applied a lot of the practices advised by the IE guys themselves (like this, and this), and try to sacrifice clean code for performance in the critical parts like DOM manipulation. However, as you can see in this IE profiler screenshot.. Just "String" is the biggest offender. Almost 750ms of exclusive time. Does this mean IE is spending 750ms just instantiating Strings? I also read this stuff on the Opera dev blog: A build script can remove whitespace, comments, replace strings with Array lookups (to avoid MSIE creating a string object for every single instance of a string — even in conditions) But no more info regarding this. Anyone can clarify? It seems like IE has to create a full String instance every time you have " " in your code, which could explain this, but I don't know what the array lookup optimization would look like. BTW- we don't really do much of string concatenation anywhere in the code. The library we use is MooTools 1.2.4 Any suggestions will be appreciated! Thx

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

    - by Daniel DiPaolo
    We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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  • help in selecting a row in a tableview and pushing that row into anotherview? sturgling on this sinc

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I have a list of about 5 items in a tableview which I bought them from a database and now when i am trying to push each of them into different views in DidSelectRow() what I am seeing is it is showing me all the views in all the categories.... here is the code I have written.... Here is the code written in cell for row at indexpath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } BeautyQuotes *bQuote = (BeautyQuotes*)[mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = bQuote.qBeauty; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator] ; return cell; and in didselectrow() i have written this code: id count1 = [mBeautyQ count]; while (count1--) { object = [mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:count1]; } [mBeautyQ release]; if([[object objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual : @"Beauty Quotes"]){ [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; BeautysubViewController *subBeauty = [[BeautysubViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BeautysubViewController" bundle:nil]; //subBeauty.selected =[regions objectAtIndex:indexPath.row];(this is not working) [subBeauty setTitle:@"Beauty Quotes"]; NSLog(@"it is about push beauty subview controller"); [self.navigationController pushViewController:subBeauty animated:YES]; [subBeauty release]; } in this way i am pusing all the rows in to different views....but when I am pushing this into beautyquotes it is showing me all other views along with this.... struggling on this a lot please help me in dealing with this....

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  • Recursive function for copy of multilevel folder is not working.

    - by OM The Eternity
    Recursive function for copy of multilevel folder is not working. I have a code to copy all the mulitilevel folder to new folder. But in between I feel there is problem of proper path recognition, see the code below.. <?php $source = '/var/www/html/pranav_test'; $destination = '/var/www/html/parth'; copy_recursive_dirs($source, $destination); function copy_recursive_dirs($dirsource, $dirdest) { // recursive function to copy // all subdirectories and contents: if(is_dir($dirsource)) { $dir_handle=opendir($dirsource); } if(!is_dir($dirdest)) { mkdir($dirdest, 0777); } while($file=readdir($dir_handle)) {/*echo "<pre>"; print_r($file);*/ if($file!="." && $file!="..") { if(!is_dir($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file)) { copy ($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file, $dirdest.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file); } else{ copy_recursive_dirs($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file, $dirdest); } } } closedir($dir_handle); return true; } ?> from the above code the if loop has a copy function as per requirement, but the path applied for destination here is not proper, I have tried with basename function as well.. but it didnt got the expected result.. below is the if loop i am talking about with comment describing the output... if(!is_dir($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file)) { $basefile = basename($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file);//it gives the file name echo "Pranav<br>".$dirdest.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file;//it outputs for example "/var/www/html/parth//var/www/html/pranav_test/media/system/js/caption.js" which is not correct.. copy ($dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file, $dirdest.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$dirsource.DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR.$file); } as shown above the i cannot get the files and folders copied to expected path.. please guide me to place proper path in the function....

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  • How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

    - by John Canady
    I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

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  • ExecuteNonQuery: Connection property has not been initialized

    - by 20151012
    I get an error in my code: The error point at dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery();. Code(connection) public admin_addemp() { InitializeComponent(); con = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\EMPS.accdb;Persist Security Info=True"); con.Open(); ds.Tables.Add(dt); ds.Tables.Add(dt2); } Code (Save button) private void save_btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { OleDbCommand check = new OleDbCommand(); check.Connection = con; check.CommandText = "SELECT COUNT(*) FROM employeeDB WHERE ([EmployeeName]=?)"; check.Parameters.AddWithValue("@EmployeeName", tb_name.Text); if (Convert.ToInt32(check.ExecuteScalar()) == 0) { dbcom2 = new OleDbCommand("SELECT EmployeeID FROM employeeDB WHERE EmployeeID='" + tb_id.Text + "'", con); OleDbParameter param = new OleDbParameter(); param.ParameterName = tb_id.Text; dbcom.Parameters.Add(param); OleDbDataReader read = dbcom2.ExecuteReader(); if (read.HasRows) { MessageBox.Show("The Employee ID '" + tb_id.Text + "' already exist. Please choose another Employee ID."); read.Dispose(); read.Close(); } else { string q = "INSERT INTO employeeDB (EmployeeID, EmployeeName, IC, Address, State, " + " Postcode, DateHired, Phone, ManagerName) VALUES ('" + tb_id.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_name.Text + "', '" + tb_ic.Text + "', '" + tb_add1.Text + "', '" + cb_state.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_postcode.Text + "', '" + dateTimePicker1.Value + "', '" + tb_hp.Text + "', '" + cb_manager.Text + "')"; dbcom = new OleDbCommand(q, con); dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("New Employee '" + tb_name.Text + "'- Successfuly Added."); } } else { MessageBox.Show("Employee name '" + tb_name.Text + "' already added into the database"); } ds.Dispose(); } I'm using Microsoft Access 2010 as my database and this is stand alone system. Please help me.

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  • Freetype2 (error-)return value documentation

    - by Awaki
    In short, I'm looking for documentation that would limit the error situations to check for after a Freetype library function failed, much like the OpenGL and Win32 APIs document the error codes generated by their respective functions. I can't seem to find such documentation though, so I was wondering how to best handle translation of Freetype errors to typed exceptions. Background: I am currently in the process of implementing font-rendering capability (using Freetype) for my GUI framework, which makes strong use of typed exceptions to indicate error situations. However, the Freetype docs seem to completely omit what errors can be expected from what functions. That, if such documentation does indeed not exist, would basically leave me with two options: either guessing which errors make sense for a certain Freetype function (obviously prone to mistakes on my part), or considering every error code for translation into appropriate exceptions (less verbose since I would have to write the translation only once). Performance isn't really critical in the code that calls the Freetype library, so even the latter option would probably be acceptable, but surely there must be some kind of documentation on which library calls may return what Freetype error? Is there any such documentation which I just somehow managed to not find? Should I go the route of generically expecting every error code for translation? Or are there other ways to approach this problem? By the way, I wanted to avoid introducing some kind of generic FreetypeException (containing a description of the Freetype error) since I intended to completely hide what libraries I'm using (not from a legal point-of-view, mind you), but I guess I can be convinced to do this anyway if the consensus is that it would be the best option. I don't think it matters for this question, but I'm writing in C++.

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  • wxpython - Running threads sequentially without blocking GUI

    - by ryantmer
    I've got a GUI script with all my wxPython code in it, and a separate testSequences module that has a bunch of tasks that I run based on input from the GUI. The tasks take a long time to complete (from 20 seconds to 3 minutes), so I want to thread them, otherwise the GUI locks up while they're running. I also need them to run one after another, since they all use the same hardware. (My rationale behind threading is simply to prevent the GUI from locking up.) I'd like to have a "Running" message (with varying number of periods after it, i.e. "Running", "Running.", "Running..", etc.) so the user knows that progress is occurring, even though it isn't visible. I'd like this script to run the test sequences in separate threads, but sequentially, so that the second thread won't be created and run until the first is complete. Since this is kind of the opposite of the purpose of threads, I can't really find any information on how to do this... Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance! gui.py import testSequences from threading import Thread #wxPython code for setting everything up here... for j in range(5): testThread = Thread(target=testSequences.test1) testThread.start() while testThread.isAlive(): #wait until the previous thread is complete time.sleep(0.5) i = (i+1) % 4 self.status.SetStatusText("Running"+'.'*i) testSequences.py import time def test1(): for i in range(10): print i time.sleep(1) (Obviously this isn't the actual test code, but the idea is the same.)

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  • Google Maps Controls panel size is displayed wrong

    - by Andrea Giachetto
    I have a weird problem with Google Maps Control. I've tested in a blank page my custom maps with custom markers and everything seems to be ok, also with the control panel. When I tried to import all my code in the page I'm working with ( I use a full screen fluid grid system ) the control panel is displayed with strange size. I tried everything for disable/enable the ui of the Google Maps but the problem remain. The code of my maps are exactly the same, both in my blank page and in my site, but in the site the ui control panel is displayed very strange. Here's the code: <div id="map_canvas2" style="height: 580px; width: 100%;"></div> <script> var image = 'path/to/your/image.png'; var mapOptions = { zoom: 17, center: new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290, 12.621510), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, scrollwheel: false } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map_canvas2'), mapOptions); var myPos = new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290,12.621510); var myMarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: myPos, map: map, icon: 'http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/pin-map.png' }); </script> </div> Here's an img: http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/img-maps.png

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  • Help me make a jquery AJAXed divs' links work like an iframe.

    - by Dave
    I want to make a few divs on the same page work similar to iframes. Each will load a URL which contains links. When you click on those links I want an AJAX request to go out and replace the div's html with new html from the page of the clicked link. It will be very similar to surfing a page inside an iframe. Here is my code to initially load the divs (this code works): onload: $.ajax({ url: "http://www.foo.com/videos.php", cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#HowToVideos").replaceWith(html); } }); $.ajax({ url: "http://www.foo.com/projects.php", cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#HowToProjects").replaceWith(html); } }); This is a sample of code that I'm not quite sure how to implement but explains the concept. Could I get some help with some selectors(surround in ?'s) and or let me know what is the correct way of doing this? I also want to display a loading icon, which I need to know where the right place to place the function is. $(".ajaxarea a").click(function(){ var linksURL = this.href; // var ParentingAjaxArea = $(this).closest(".ajaxarea");; $.ajax({ url: linksURL, cache: false, success: function(html){ $(ParentingAjaxArea).replaceWith(html); } }); return false; }); $(".ajaxarea").ajaxStart(function(){ // show loading icon });

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