Search Results

Search found 24207 results on 969 pages for 'anonymous users'.

Page 872/969 | < Previous Page | 868 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879  | Next Page >

  • Recursive Enumeration in Java

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Hello everyone. I still have a question about Enumerations. Here's a quick sketch of the situation. I have a class Backpack that has a Hashmap content with as keys a variable of type long, and as value an ArrayList with Items. I have to write an Enumeration that iterates over the content of a Backpack. But here's the catch: in a Backpack, there can also be another Backpack. And the Enumeration should also be able to iterate over the content of a backpack that is in the backpack. (I hope you can follow, I'm not really good at explaining..) Here is the code I have: public Enumeration<Object> getEnumeration() { return new Enumeration<Object>() { private int itemsDone = 0; //I make a new array with all the values of the HashMap, so I can use //them in nextElement() Collection<Long> keysCollection = getContent().keySet(); Long [] keys = keysCollection.toArray(new Long[keysCollection.size()]); public boolean hasMoreElements() { if(itemsDone < getContent().size()) { return true; }else { return false; } } public Object nextElement() { ArrayList<Item> temporaryList= getContent().get(keys[itemsDone]); for(int i = 0; i < temporaryList.size(); i++) { if(temporaryList.get(i) instanceof Backpack) { return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration(); }else { return getContent().get(keys[itemsDone++]); } } } }; Will this code work decently? It's just the "return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration();" I'm worried about. Will the users still be able to use just the hasMoreElemens() and nextElement() like he would normally do? Any help is appreciated, Harm De Weirdt

    Read the article

  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

    Read the article

  • SSL + Jquery + Ajax

    - by chobo2
    Hi I starting too look at a bit of security into my site. My site I would consider a very low security risk as it has really no personal information from the user other than email. However the security risk will go up a bit as I am partnering with a company and the initial password for this companies users will be the same password they use essentially to get onto the network and every piece of software. So I have up my security( what is fine by me...I wanted to get around to this anyways). So one of my security concerns is this. A user logs in. form submit(non ajax is done). Password is hashed & Salted and compared to one in the database. Reject or let them proceed. So this uses no jquery or ajax but is just asp.net mvc and C#. Still if my understanding is right the password is sent in clear text. So if a use SSL and I would not need to worry about that is this correct? If that is true is that all I need? Second the user can change their password at anytime. This is done through ajax. So when the password is sent it is sent in clear text( and I can verify this by looking at firebug). So if I have SSL enabled on this page is that all I need or do I need to do more? So I am just kinda confused of what I need to make the password being sent to the server(both ajax and full post ways secure). I am not sure if I need to do more then SSL or if that is enough and if it is not enough what is the next layer of security?

    Read the article

  • OpenSocial create activity from submit click

    - by russp
    Hi I'm "playing with OpsnSocial" and think I get a lot of it (well thanks to Googles' bits) but one question if I may. Creating an activity Lets say I have a form like this (simple) <form> <input type="text" name="" id="testinput" value=""/> <input type="submit" name="" id="" value=""/> </form> And I want to post the value of the text field (and or a message i.e "just posted" to the "users" activity. Do I use a function like this? function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + ' VALUE FROM FORM '}); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; If so, how do I pass the text field value to it - is it something like this? var testinput = document.getElementById("testinput"); so the function may look like function createActivity() { if (viewer) { var activity = opensocial.newActivity({ title: viewer.getDisplayName() + testinput }); opensocial.requestCreateActivity(activity, "HIGH", function() { setTimeout(initAllData,1000); }); } }; And how do I trigger the function by using the submit button. In my basic JQuery I would use $('#submitID').submit(function(){ 'bits in here '}); Is at "simple as that i.e. use the createActivity function and it will use the OS framework to "post" to the activity.xml

    Read the article

  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

    Read the article

  • How do I delete folders in bash after successful copy (Mac OSX)?

    - by cohortq
    Hello! I recently created my first bash script, and I am having problems perfecting it's operation. I am trying to copy certain folders from one local drive, to a network drive. I am having the problem of deleting folders once they are copied over, well and also really verifying that they were copied over). Is there a better way to try to delete folders after rsync is done copying? I was trying to exclude the live tv buffer folder, but really, I can blow it away without consequence if need be. Any help would be great! thanks! #!/bin/bash network="CBS" useracct="tvcapture" thedate=$(date "+%m%d%Y") folderToBeMoved="/users/$useracct/Documents" newfoldername="/Volumes/Media/TV/$network/$thedate" ECHO "Network is $network" ECHO "date is $thedate" ECHO "source is $folderToBeMoved" ECHO "dest is $newfoldername" mkdir $newfoldername rsync -av $folderToBeMoved/"EyeTV Archive"/*.eyetv $newfoldername --exclude="Live TV Buffer.eyetv" # this fails when there is more than one *.eyetv folder if [ -d $newfoldername/*.eyetv ]; then #this deletes the contents of the directories find $folderToBeMoved/"EyeTV Archive"/*.eyetv \( ! -path $folderToBeMoved/"EyeTV Archive"/"Live TV Buffer.eyetv" \) -delete #remove empty directory find $folderToBeMoved/"EyeTV Archive"/*.eyetv -type d -exec rmdir {} \; fi

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to create a Mac OS specific CSS to fix font difference ?

    - by Gabriel
    I'm working on a project with a designer and he insisted on using some specific font for titles and various elements in the page. So we're using a font kit to embed with @font-face. It's working perfectly on PC (Firefox, IE 7 and 8, Chrome, Safari) but on Mac OS (Safari and Firefox) the fonts are not vertically aligned the same way. After looking on the Web, I didn't find any solution for this except "there always been differences between browsers and platforms, live with it". I know that fonts are never rendered exactly the same across platforms, but this time it's not something like the font looks more bold or something like that. The font looks as if it's baseline is completely different between Windows and Mac OS X. On Mac OS, the font, at a size of 16px is 3px higher than on PC. So I'm looking for a backup solution : is there a way to create a CSS specifically for Mac OS users? I do not want to target only Safari because Safari PC is ok, and Firefox Mac is not ok. Or if you have a solution to fix the baseline difference that does not require a specific CSS file, I'd be happy to hear it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • RPC command to initiate a software install

    - by ericmayo
    I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

    Read the article

  • More efficient R / Sweave / TeXShop work-flow?

    - by user594795
    I've now got everything to work properly on my Mac OS X 10.6 machine so that I can create decent looking LaTeX documents with Sweave that include snippets of R code, output, and LaTeX formatting together. Unfortunately, I feel like my work-flow is a bit clunky and inefficient: Using TextWrangler, I write LaTeX code and R code (surrounded by <<= above and @ below R code chunk) together in one .Rnw file. After saving changes, I call the .Rnw file from R using the Sweave command Sweave(file="/Users/mymachine/Documents/Assign4.Rnw", syntax="SweaveSyntaxNoweb") In response, R outputs the following message: You can now run LaTeX on 'Assign4.tex' So then I find the .tex file (Assign4.tex) in the R directory and copy it over to the folder in my documents ~/Documents/ where the .Rnw file is sitting (to keep everything in one place). Then I open the .tex file (e.g. Assign4.tex) in TeXShop and compile it there into pdf format. It is only at this point that I get to see any changes I have made to the document and see if it 'looks nice'. Is there a way that I can compile everything with one button click? Specifically it would be nice to either call Sweave / R directly from TextWrangler or TeXShop. I suspect it might be possible to code a script in Terminal to do it, but I have no experience with Terminal. Please let me know if there's any other things I can do to streamline or improve my work flow.

    Read the article

  • Identical files from different servers. Why might IE 8 display them differently?

    - by jasongetsdown
    I'm working on a site that will go on my company's intranet. I developed it locally on my computer, checking it in different browsers and on colleague's computers, and when it was done I handed it off to IT. They put identical copies on a staging server, and on the production server. This is a site built only with html, javascript, and css. No server side scripting. It also uses a DWF viewer plugin from Autodesk. It is a single standalone page (not part of a CMS) that allows users to load drawings into the viewer and then click to see info from a database of space info saved in a series of js arrays (the space DB software spits out a js file with all the info listed in array literals, creating a crap ton of global variables - ugh, but I digress). When I followed their links (using IE 8) the version on the staging server looked as expected, but the layout is hosed on the version from the production server. Specifically, it seems like a div that is supposed to flow to the right of a div that is float: left is displaying below the floated div at full width, as though it was clear: left (which it is not). It also has the wrong height. I downloaded the files from each and they are identical to my local version. Frustrated, I cleared my browser's cache, restarted my computer, checked it on a colleague's computer who also has IE 8. All the same issue. Staging server good. Production server bad. Finally I uninstalled IE 8 and looked at it in IE 6. Both versions looked fine. So, to recap. Two different servers. No server side scripting. Identical files. One browser agrees they are identical, the other does not. What could cause this?

    Read the article

  • How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

    - by mhu
    Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

    Read the article

  • Get filename from path

    - by Eric
    I am trying to parse the filename from paths. I have this: my $filepath = "/Users/Eric/Documents/foldername/filename.pdf"; $filepath =~ m/^.*\\(.*[.].*)$/; print "Linux path:"; print $1 . "\n\n"; print "-------\n"; my $filepath = "c:\\Windows\eric\filename.pdf"; $filepath =~ m/^.*\\(.*[.].*)$/; print "Windows path:"; print $1 . "\n\n"; print "-------\n"; my $filepath = "filename.pdf"; $filepath =~ m/^.*\\(.*[.].*)$/; print "Without path:"; print $1 . "\n\n"; print "-------\n"; But that returns: Linux path: ------- Windows path:Windowsic ilename.pdf ------- Without path:Windowsic ilename.pdf ------- I am expecting this: Linux path: filename.pdf ------- Windows path: filename.pdf ------- Without path: filename.pdf ------- Can somebody please point out what I am doing wrong? Thanks! :)

    Read the article

  • PHP question about global variables and form requests

    - by user220201
    Hi, This is probably a stupid question but will ask anyway sine I have no idea. I have written basic php code which serve forms. Say I have a login page and I serve it using the login.php page and it will be called in the login.html page like this - <form action="login.php" method="post"> By this it is also implied that every POST needs its own php file, doesn't it? This kind of feels weird. Is there a way to have a single file, say code.php, and just have each of the forms as functions instead? EDIT: Specifically, say I have 5 forms that are used one after the other in my application. Say after login the user does A, B, C and D tasks each of which are sent to the server as a POST request. So instead of having A.php, B.php, C.php and D.php I would like to have a single code.php and have A(), B(), C() and D() as functions. Is there a way to do this? Also on the same note, how do I deal with say a global array (e.g. an array of currently logged in users) across multiple forms? I want to do this without writing to a DB. I know its probably better to write to a DB and query but is it even possible to do it with a global array? The reason I was thinking about having all the form functions in one file is to use a global array. Thanks, - Pav

    Read the article

  • Blocking HTML and Javascript from being displayed on my site

    - by Tim Powell
    I am working on this new social networking site. One of it's various functions is posting. You can post to Facebook and my site, or Twitter and my site. That being said, I couldn't help but try and post HTML as I was testing sql injection. When I did, I noticed that there where ways to manipulate the site to, for instance, using a element to completely screw up the CSS design, or redirect a user to another site using javascript. That being said, I want to make my site a safe environment for my users... not a site that is used to distribute computer viruses, porn, and other things that might make someone tend to stay off of my site. When I searched this topic, I found ways to "strip" the HTML out of the $post variable before submitting it to the database. However, I would just like to make it so you can post any text, including HTML and Javascript, without the browser interpreting it as "run this..." code: I want to display it as plane text. I've seen it on Facebook, and when I looked at it the source code of a post, it showed <, /, and as regular text. I tried "dissecting" Facebook's source code, but found nothing. I have tried using tags such as <pre> and <code>, but because of the lack of ability to style and control them, I gave up and went back to just allowing HTML. Please, anyone who knows how to do this, please help me out. Thanks in advance, TP

    Read the article

  • Do new Apple SDKs patch previous releases?

    - by Francisco Garcia
    A new iPhone will be soon out there along a new iOS release. Sooner or later there will also be a Xcode upgrade with the SDK for iOS 6 Does Apple do any type of bugfix on previous SDKs or are bugfixes just solved on new releases? As an example: Core Data with iCloud still have some issues but it is getting better over time. Let's say I have an app that really depends on that combo. I would require iOS6, however not all users upgrade the handsets. Ideally an app compiled with a newer XCode release could patch some error on previous SDKs if the target is set to an older iOS release. Should I expect that a project compiled with future SDK releases to work better on devices running on older iOS versions? will be some SDKs bugfixes backported? I understand that there are some bugs that cannot be fixed without an iOS update on the client. Also that it is a lot of work (and unlikely) to backport bugfixes. I am just wondering what is the normal release policy of Apple.

    Read the article

  • MS Access: Permission problems with views

    - by Keith Williams
    "I'll use an Access ADP" I said, "it's only a tiny project and I've got better things to do", I said, "I can build an interface really quickly in Access" I said. </sarcasm> Sorry for the rant, but it's Friday, I have a date in just under two hours, and I'm here late because this just isn't working - so, in despair, I turn to SO for help. Access ADP front-end, linked to a SQL Server 2008 database Using a SQL Server account to log into the database (for testing); this account is a member of the role, "Api"; this role has SELECT, EXECUTE, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE access to the "Api" schema The "Api" schema is owned by "dbo" All tables have a corresponding view in the Api schema: e.g. dbo.Customer -- Api.Customers The rationale is that users don't have direct table access, but can deal with views as if they were tables I can log into SQL using my test login, and it works fine: no access to the tables, but I can select, insert, update and delete from the Api views. In Access, I see the views, I can open them, but whenever I try to insert or update, I get the following error: The SELECT permission was denied on the object '[Table name which the view is using]', database '[database name]', schema 'dbo' Crazy as it sounds, Access seems to be trying to access the underlying table rather than the view. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • SQL query for an access database needed

    - by masfenix
    Hey guys, first off all sorry, i can't login using my yahoo provider. anyways I have this problem. Let me explain it to you, and then I'll show you a picture. I have a access db table. It has 'report id', 'recpient id', and 'recipient name' and 'report req'. What the table "means" is that do the user using that report still require it or can we decommission it. Here is how the data looks like (blocked out company userids and usernames): *check the link below, I cant post pictures cuz yahoo open id provider isnt working. So basically I need to have 3 select queries: 1) Select all the reports where for each report, ALL the users have said no to 'reportreq'. In plain English, i want a listing of all the reports that we have to decommission because no user wants it. 2) Select all the reports where the report is required, and the batchprintcopy is more then 0. This way we can see which report needs to be printed and save paper instead of printing all the reports. 3)A listing of all the reports where the reportreq field is empty. I think i can figure this one out myself. This is using Access/VBA and the data will be exported to an excel spreadsheet. I just a simple query if it exists, OR an alogorithm to do it quickly. I just tried making a "matrix" and it took about 2 hours to populate. https://docs.google.com/uc?id=0B2EMqbpeBpQkMTIyMzA5ZjMtMGQ3Zi00NzRmLWEyMDAtODcxYWM0ZTFmMDFk&hl=en_US

    Read the article

  • JSR-299 (CDI) configuration at runtime

    - by nsn
    I need to configure different @Alternatives, @Decorators and @Injectors for different runtime environments (think testing, staging and production servers). Right now I use maven to create three wars, and the only difference between those wars are in the beans.xml files. Is there a better way to do this? I do have @Alternative @Stereotypes for the different environments, but even then I need to alter beans.xml, and they don't work for @Decorators (or do they?) Is it somehow possible to instruct CDI to ignore the values in beans.xml and use a custom configuration source? Because then I could for example read a system property or other environment variable. The application exclusively runs in containers that use Weld, so a weld-specific solution would be ok. I already tried to google this but can't seem to find good search terms, and I asked the Weld-Users-Forums, but to no avail. Someone over there suggested to write my own custom extension, but I can't find any API to actually change the container configuration at runtime. I think it would be possible to have some sort of @ApplicationScoped configuration bean and inject that into all @Decorators which could then decide themselves whether they should be active or not and then in order to configure @Alternatives write @Produces methods for every interface with multiple implementations and inject the config bean there too. But this seems to me like a lot of unnecessary work to essentially duplicate functionality already present in CDI?

    Read the article

  • Forms authentication: how do you store username password in web.config?

    - by Nick G
    I'm used to using Forms Authentication with a database, but I'm writing a little internal utility and the app doesn't have a database so I want to store the username and password in web.config. However for some reason, forms authentication is still trying to access SQL Server and I can't see how to stop it doing this and pick up the credentials from web.config. What am I doing wrong? I just get the error "Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to a failure in impersonating the client. The connection will be closed." Here are the relevant sections of my web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" timeout="60" name=".LoginCookie" path="/" > <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="user1" password="[pass]" /> <user name="user2" password="[pass]" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • java gui image problem : doesn't display in the background

    - by thegamer
    Hello, i have a query about why is my image not being displayed in my background of my program. I mean i did all the steps necessary and still it would'nt be displayed. The code runs perfectly but without having the image displayed. The directory is written in the good location of the image. I am using java with gui. If anyone could help me solve my problem, i would appreciate :) here is the code below: import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.*; public class hehe extends JPanel{ public hehe(){ setOpaque(false); setLayout(new FlowLayout()); } public static void main (String args[]){ JFrame win = new JFrame("yooooo"); // it is automaticcally hidden JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(new BorderLayout()); win.add(mainPanel); JLabel titleLabel = new JLabel("title boss"); titleLabel.setFont(new Font("Arial",Font.BOLD,18)); titleLabel.setForeground(Color.blue); mainPanel.add(titleLabel,BorderLayout.NORTH); win.setSize(382,269); // the dimensions of the image win.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); win.setVisible(true); } public void paint(Graphics g) { Image a = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getImage("C:\\Users\\andrea\\Desktop\\Gui\\car"); // car is the name of the image file and is in JPEG g.drawImage(a,0,0,getSize().width,getSize().height,this); super.paint(g); } }

    Read the article

  • media.set_xx giving me grief!

    - by Firas
    New guy here. I asked a while back about a sprite recolouring program that I was having difficulty with and got some great responses. Basically, I tried to write a program that would recolour pixels of all the pictures in a given folder from one given colour to another. I believe I have it down, but, now the program is telling me that I have an invalid value specified for the red component of my colour. (ValueError: Invalid red value specified.), even though it's only being changed from 64 to 56. Any help on the matter would be appreciated! (Here's the code, in case I messed up somewhere else; It's in Python): import os import media import sys def recolour(old, new, folder): old_list = old.split(' ') new_list = new.split(' ') folder_location = os.path.join('C:\', 'Users', 'Owner', 'Spriting', folder) for filename in os.listdir (folder): current_file = media.load_picture(folder_location + '\\' + filename) for pix in current_file: if (media.get_red(pix) == int(old_list[0])) and \ (media.get_green(pix) == int(old_list[1])) and \ (media.get_blue(pix) == int(old_list[2])): media.set_red(pix, new_list[0]) media.set_green(pix, new_list[1]) media.set_blue(pix, new_list[2]) media.save(pic) if name == 'main': while 1: old = str(raw_input('Please insert the original RGB component, separated by a single space: ')) if old == 'quit': sys.exit(0) new = str(raw_input('Please insert the new RGB component, separated by a single space: ')) if new == 'quit': sys.exit(0) folder = str(raw_input('Please insert the name of the folder you wish to modify: ')) if folder == 'quit': sys.exit(0) else: recolour(old, new, folder)

    Read the article

  • Writing out sheet to text file using POI event model

    - by Eduardo Dennis
    I am using XLSX2CSV example to parse large sheets from a workbook. Since I only need to output the data for specific sheets I added an if statement in the process method to test for the specific sheets. When the condition is met I continue with the process. public void process() throws IOException, OpenXML4JException, ParserConfigurationException, SAXException { ReadOnlySharedStringsTable strings = new ReadOnlySharedStringsTable(this.xlsxPackage); XSSFReader xssfReader = new XSSFReader(this.xlsxPackage); StylesTable styles = xssfReader.getStylesTable(); XSSFReader.SheetIterator iter = (XSSFReader.SheetIterator) xssfReader.getSheetsData(); while (iter.hasNext()) { InputStream stream = iter.next(); String sheetName = iter.getSheetName(); if (sheetName.equals("SHEET1")||sheetName.equals("SHEET2")||sheetName.equals("SHEET3")||sheetName.equals("SHEET4")||sheetName.equals("SHEET5")){ processSheet(styles, strings, stream); try { System.setOut(new PrintStream( new FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\edennis.AD\\Desktop\\test\\"+sheetName+".txt"))); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } stream.close(); } } } But I need to output text file and not sure how to do it. I tried to use the System.set() method to output everything from system.out to text but that's not working I just get blank files.

    Read the article

  • Scalability 101: How can I design a scalable web application using PHP?

    - by Legend
    I am building a web-application and have a couple of quick questions. From what I learnt, one should not worry about scalability when initially building the app and should only start worrying when the traffic increases. However, this being my first web-application, I am not quite sure if I should take an approach where I design things in an ad-hoc manner and later "fix" them. I have been reading stories about how people start off with an app that gets millions of users in a week or two. Not that I will face the same situation but I can't help but wonder, how do these people do it? Currently, I bought a shared hosting account on Lunarpages and that got me started in building and testing the application. However, I am interested in learning how to build the same application in a scalable-manner using the cloud, for instance, Amazon's EC2. From my understanding, I can see a couple of components: There is a load balancer that first receives requests and then decides where to route each request This request is then handled by a server replica that then processes the request and updates (if required) the database and sends back the response to the client If a similar request comes in, then a caching mechanism like memcached kicks into picture and returns objects from the cache A blackbox that handles database replication Specifically, I am trying to do the following: Setting up a load balancer (my homework revealed that HAProxy is one such load balancer) Setting up replication so that databases can be synchronized Using memcached Configuring Apache to work with multiple web servers Partitioning application to use Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3 (my application is something that will need great deal of storage) Finally, how can I avoid burning myself when using Amazon services? Because this is just a learning phase, I can probably do with 2-3 servers with a simple load balancer and replication but until I want to avoid paying loads of money accidentally. I am able to find resources on individual topics but am unable to find something that starts off from the big picture. Can someone please help me get started?

    Read the article

  • MemoryFailPoint fires to early in WinXP 64

    - by msedi
    Hello, I have created a volume class (called VoxelVolume) with a self-organizing memory management, since the GC in C# didn't provide a good mechanism for managing contents of the volume for mapping, unmapping and remapping. Although I could have used the mechanisms of virtual memory, the problem is that the files are often too large to fit into the page file and I don't want to force the users to increase the pagefile size. Currently this system is working quite well and there is no problem in lacking resources and OutOfMemoryExceptions since the InsufficientMemoryException using the MemoryFailPoint works quite well. This was all testes on a 32bit WinXP system with 2GB of main memory. Running the same mechanism on 64bit system with 32GB of main memory also works well, but when the application runs the MemoryFailPoint suddenly throws an exception although 24GB of main memory are still free. Another point is when the MemoryFailPoint has fired once, it fires everytime and there is no chance to get rid of it. What I have read so far, that there is a small object and a large object heap (SOH and LOH). But only for the SOH the GC takes real care of and I can free the SOH from unused objects by applying GC.Collect() and GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers. The MemoryFailPoint is obviously the only way to get a little bit of control for the LOH, but since there is enough memory left on the system I see no reason why the MemoryFilePoint should fire. Is there any experience around here using the MemoryFailPoint? Thank you for your help Martin

    Read the article

  • Are there any security issues to avoid when providing a either-email-or-username-can-act-as-username

    - by Tchalvak
    I am in the process of moving from a "username/password" system to one that uses email for login. I don't think that there's any horrible problem with allowing either email or username for login, and I remember seeing sites that I consider somewhat respectable doing it as well, but I'd like to be aware of any major security flaws that I may be introducing. More specifically, here is the pertinent function (the query_row function parameterizes the sql). function authenticate($p_user, $p_pass) { $user = (string)$p_user; $pass = (string)$p_pass; $returnValue = false; if ($user != '' && $pass != '') { // Allow login via username or email. $sql = "SELECT account_id, account_identity, uname, player_id FROM accounts join account_players on account_id=_account_id join players on player_id = _player_id WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) AND phash = crypt(:pass, phash)"; $returnValue = query_row($sql, array(':login'=>$user, ':pass'=>$pass)); } return $returnValue; } Notably, I have added the WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) ...etc section to allow graceful backwards compatibility for users who won't be used to using their email for the login procedure. I'm not completely sure that that OR is safe, though. Are there some ways that I should tighten the security of the php code above?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 868 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879  | Next Page >