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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • jQuery JSON .each problem

    - by Aran
    I have a JSON object that looks like this. [ { "id" : "23", "event_id" : "0", "sport_title" : null, "event_title" : null, "title" : "Under 1 day!", "content" : "It\\'s all hotting up and battle commences in under one day!", "link" : "" }, { "id" : "20", "event_id" : "0", "sport_title" : null, "event_title" : null, "title" : "Getting Exciting", "content" : "Less than two days till it all kicks off, with cricket....", "link" : "" }] and I am trying to get the details out of this JSON Object and prepend them to a <ul> the code that I am currently trying looks like this and is having problems var writeup_list = writeuplist; $.getJSON('../json/getWriteups.json', function(data) { $.each(data.items, function(i, item) { writeup_list.html(function() { var output; output = '<li><a href="/writeups/index.php#writeup_' + item.id + '">'; if(item.sport_title != null) { output += item.sport_title + ' - '; } output += item.title + '</a></li>'; return output; }); }); }); writeuplist is just the ul object. I am also worried about overriding information that is already in the list or just adding again. Don't want to keep adding the same data. What is a good way to avoid this? I seem to be having a problem in getting the data out of the JSON file I believe it has something to do with the way am trying to access it in the .each function. Can anyone spot where am going wrong?

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  • How do I abort a socket.recv() from another thread in python?

    - by Samuel Skånberg
    I have a main thread that waits for connection. It spawns client threads that will echo the response from the client (telnet in this case). But say that I want to close down all sockets and all threads after some time, like after 1 connection. How would I do? If I do clientSocket.close() from the main thread, it won't stop doing the recv. It will only stop if I first send something through telnet, then it will fail doing further sends and recvs. My code look like this: # Echo server program import socket from threading import Thread import time class ClientThread(Thread): def __init__(self, clientSocket): Thread.__init__(self) self.clientSocket = clientSocket def run(self): while 1: try: # It will hang here, even if I do close on the socket data = self.clientSocket.recv(1024) print "Got data: ", data self.clientSocket.send(data) except: break self.clientSocket.close() HOST = '' PORT = 6000 serverSocket = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) serverSocket.setsockopt(socket.SOL_SOCKET, socket.SO_REUSEADDR, 1) serverSocket.bind((HOST, PORT)) serverSocket.listen(1) clientSocket, addr = serverSocket.accept() print 'Got a new connection from: ', addr clientThread = ClientThread(clientSocket) clientThread.start() time.sleep(1) # This won't make the recv in the clientThread to stop immediately, # nor will it generate an exception clientSocket.close()

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  • Debug not working in Monodroid with a Galaxy Nexus

    - by MaxM
    I'm starting to work with Monodroid testing on a Galaxy Nexus from MonoDevelop for Mac. Running the default Android project without debugging works. But if I try to debug it either says this in the Application Output pane: Error trying to detect already running process Or it outputs the following to logcat: I/ActivityManager( 448): Start proc monotest.monotest for activity monotest.monotest/monotest.Activity1: pid=3075 uid=10068 gids={3003} D/dalvikvm( 3063): GC_CONCURRENT freed 98K, 89% free 478K/4096K, paused 0ms+1ms I/dalvikvm( 3075): Turning on JNI app bug workarounds for target SDK version 8... V/PhoneStatusBar( 524): setLightsOn(true) I/ActivityThread( 3075): Pub monotest.monotest.__mono_init__: mono.MonoRuntimeProvider D/dalvikvm( 3075): Trying to load lib /data/data/monotest.monotest/lib/libmonodroid.so 0x41820850 D/dalvikvm( 3075): Added shared lib /data/data/monotest.monotest/lib/libmonodroid.so 0x41820850 D/OpenGLRenderer( 683): Flushing caches (mode 1) E/mono ( 3075): WARNING: The runtime version supported by this application is unavailable. E/mono ( 3075): Using default runtime: v2.0.50727 D/OpenGLRenderer( 683): Flushing caches (mode 0) I/monodroid-gc( 3075): environment supports jni NewWeakGlobalRef I/mono ( 3075): Stacktrace: I/mono ( 3075): D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): >>>>>> AndroidRuntime START com.android.internal.os.RuntimeInit <<<<<< D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): CheckJNI is OFF D/AndroidRuntime( 3093): Calling main entry com.android.commands.am.Am D/dalvikvm( 3021): GC_CONCURRENT freed 359K, 3% free 15630K/16071K, paused 2ms+4ms D/Zygote ( 119): Process 3075 terminated by signal (11) I/ActivityManager( 448): Process monotest.monotest (pid 3075) has died. I tried using another device (a Galaxy Tab) and it worked fine. I also tried the suggestion from here and it didn't help.

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  • jQuery DOM manipulation

    - by ufw
    I have different php output in jQuery-based tabs. This output is formed from database and it consists of several <div>'s. Every time I click any tab it sends AJAX request to the php script which performs "SELECT" request and gives result back as response to AJAX request from the tab. $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.tabs li').css('cursor', 'pointer'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').click(function(){ var thisClass = this.className.slice(0,2); $('div.t1').hide(); $('div.t2').hide(); $('div.t3').hide(); $('div.t4').hide(); $('div.' + thisClass).show('fast'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').removeClass('tab-current'); $(this).addClass('tab-current'); var data = thisClass; $.ajax({ type:"GET", url:"handler.php?name="+data, data:data, success:function(html) { $('div.' + thisClass).html(html); } }); return false; }); }); //Server-side PHP script: <?php $name = $_GET[name]; switch ($name) { case "t1": query_and_output_1(); case "t2": query_and_output_2(); // etc... } ?> The problem is that the first tab contains output that must be in second and third ones as well, the second also contains the third tab output. Sorry for such a rubbishy question, I used to work with server side and unfortunately I'm not familiar with DOM and jQuery yet. Thanks.

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  • UITableViewCell imageView images loading small even when they are the correct size!

    - by Alex Barlow
    Im having an issue whilst loading images into a UITableViewCell after an asynchronous download and placement into an UIImage variable.. The images appear smaller than they actually are! But when scrolled down and scrolled back up to the image, or the whole table is reloaded, they appear at the correct size... Here is a code excerpt... - (void)reviewImageDidLoad:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ThumbDownloader *thumbDownloader = [imageDownloadsInProgress objectForKey:indexPath]; if (thumbDownloader != nil) { UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:thumbDownloader.indexPathInTableView]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 0.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; cell.imageView.image = thumbDownloader.review.thumb; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 1.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Here is an image of the app just after calling this method.. http://www.flickr.com/photos/arbarlow/5288563627/ After calling tableView reloadData or scrolling around the appear correctly, go the the next flickr image, to see the normal result, but im sure you can guess that.. Does anyone have an ideas as to make the images appear correctly? im absolutely stumped?! Regards, Alex iPhone noob

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  • ASP.NET Response Filter to Reformat the rendered output of ASPX pages?

    - by PropellerHead
    I've created a simple HttpModule and response stream to reformat the rendered output of web pages (see code snippets below). In the HttpModule I set the Response.Filter to my PageStream: m_Application.Context.Response.Filter = new PageStream(m_Application.Context); In the PageStream I overwrite the Write method in order to do my reformatting of the rendered output: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { string html = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer); //Do some string resplace operations here... byte[] input = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(html); m_DefaultStream.Write(input, 0, input.Length); } And this work fine when using it on simple HTML pages (.html), but when I use this method on ASPX pages (.aspx), the Write method is called several times, splitting up the reformatting into different steps, and potentially destroying the string replacement operations. How do I solve this? Is there a way to let the ASPX page NOT call Write several times, e.g. by changing its buffer size, or have I chosen the wrong approach entirely, by using this Response.Filter method to manipulate the rendered output?

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  • Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

    - by Anonymouslemming
    Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

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  • My Core Animation block isn't working like I'd expect

    - by Alex Reynolds
    I have a UIView called activityView, which contains two subviews activityIndicator and cancelOperationsButton. These views are embedded in a XIB and wired up to my view controller. I have two methods that deal with activating (showing) and deactivating (hiding) these two subviews: - (void) enableActivityIndicator { [activityIndicator startAnimating]; [cancelOperationsButton setHidden:NO]; } - (void) disableActivityIndicator { [activityIndicator stopAnimating]; [cancelOperationsButton setHidden:YES]; } By themselves, these two methods work fine. To give this a bit of polish, I'd like to add an animation that fades these subviews in and out: - (void) enableActivityIndicator { [activityIndicator startAnimating]; [cancelOperationsButton setHidden:NO]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"fadeIn" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:0.0f]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseIn]; activityView.alpha = 1.0f; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void) disableActivityIndicator { [UIView beginAnimations:@"fadeOut" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:0.0f]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; activityView.alpha = 0.0f; [UIView commitAnimations]; [activityIndicator stopAnimating]; [cancelOperationsButton setHidden:YES]; } But the animations are not working — the subviews just show up or disappear without the parent view's alpha property having an effect on transparency. How should I write these methods to get the fade-in, fade-out effect I am after?

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  • Display new image on web page

    - by RuiT
    Hello, I'm uploading images to a folder and I want to display each new image on a web page every time it is saved in the folder. I can display the initial image, which is already in the folder, and I can also detect when a new image is saved into the folder but I don't know how to display the new images. I'm new to web development. Can somebody help me? Here's the code: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string DirectoryPath = "C:\\Users\\Desktop\\PhotoUpload\\Uploads\\"; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { FileSystemWatcher watcher = new FileSystemWatcher(); try { watcher.Path = DirectoryPath; watcher.Created += new FileSystemEventHandler(watcher_Created); watcher.EnableRaisingEvents = true; Image image = Image.FromFile(DirectoryPath + "inicial.jpg"); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); image.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); byte[] im = ms.ToArray(); Context.Response.ContentType = "Image/JPG"; Context.Response.BinaryWrite(im); } catch (Exception ex) { } } void watcher_Created(object sender, FileSystemEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("File Created: Name: " + e.Name); try { //How to display new image? } catch (Exception ex) { } } }

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  • Apply a Quartz filter while saving PDF under Mac OS X 10.6.3

    - by olpa
    Using Mac OS X API, I'm trying to save a PDF file with a Quartz filter applied, just like it is possible from the "Save As" dialog in the Preview application. So far I've written the following code (using Python and pyObjC, but it isn't important for me): -- filter-pdf.py: begin from Foundation import * from Quartz import * import objc page_rect = CGRectMake (0, 0, 612, 792) fdict = NSDictionary.dictionaryWithContentsOfFile_("/System/Library/Filters/Blue \ Tone.qfilter") in_pdf = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithProvider(CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename ("test .pdf")) url = CFURLCreateWithFileSystemPath(None, "test_out.pdf", kCFURLPOSIXPathStyle, False) c = CGPDFContextCreateWithURL(url, page_rect, fdict) np = CGPDFDocumentGetNumberOfPages(in_pdf) for ip in range (1, np+1): page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(in_pdf, ip) r = CGPDFPageGetBoxRect(page, kCGPDFMediaBox) CGContextBeginPage(c, r) CGContextDrawPDFPage(c, page) CGContextEndPage(c) -- filter-pdf.py: end Unfortunalte, the filter "Blue Tone" isn't applied, the output PDF looks exactly as the input PDF. Question: what I missed? How to apply a filter? Well, the documentation doesn't promise that such way of creating and using "fdict" should cause that the filter is applied. But I just rewritten (as far as I can) sample code /Developer/Examples/Quartz/Python/filter-pdf.py, which was distributed with older versions of Mac (meanwhile, this code doesn't work too): ----- filter-pdf-old.py: begin from CoreGraphics import * import sys, os, math, getopt, string def usage (): print ''' usage: python filter-pdf.py FILTER INPUT-PDF OUTPUT-PDF Apply a ColorSync Filter to a PDF document. ''' def main (): page_rect = CGRectMake (0, 0, 612, 792) try: opts,args = getopt.getopt (sys.argv[1:], '', []) except getopt.GetoptError: usage () sys.exit (1) if len (args) != 3: usage () sys.exit (1) filter = CGContextFilterCreateDictionary (args[0]) if not filter: print 'Unable to create context filter' sys.exit (1) pdf = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithProvider (CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename (args[1])) if not pdf: print 'Unable to open input file' sys.exit (1) c = CGPDFContextCreateWithFilename (args[2], page_rect, filter) if not c: print 'Unable to create output context' sys.exit (1) for p in range (1, pdf.getNumberOfPages () + 1): #r = pdf.getMediaBox (p) r = pdf.getPage(p).getBoxRect(p) c.beginPage (r) c.drawPDFDocument (r, pdf, p) c.endPage () c.finish () if __name__ == '__main__': main () ----- filter-pdf-old.py: end

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  • Issue on dojo onlick event on html button

    - by Cuong Le
    I am a new kid with dojo, I got weird issue which I take lots of time and have not yet found out, assume I have 4 buttons: <button id="btnMoveFirst" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &lt; &lt;</button> <button id="btnMovePrev" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &lt;</button> <button id="btnMoveNext" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &gt;</button> <button id="btnMoveLast" data-dojo-type="dijit.form.Button" iconclass="plusIcon"> &gt; &gt;</button> And use dojo with event onclick as below: dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMoveFirst'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test1'); }); dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMovePrev'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test2'); }); dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMoveNext'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test3'); }); dojo.connect(dijit.registry.byId('btnMoveLast'), "onclick", function(evt){ alert('test4'); }); But when I click any one of 4 buttons, or even any button in form, I got 4 alerts instead of only correct one. Does anyone know this?

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  • Canvas scroll animation not working correctly

    - by pedalpete
    I'm building a gantt chart style timeline using html canvas element. I am currently attempting to add the functionality which allows the user to click a next/prev button to have the gantt chart scroll to display earlier or later times. The way I am doing this is to have a span.adjustTime where the id holds a value in seconds for the time to be adjusted (eg 86400 for one day). I am trying to animate the scrolling so it looks like a scroll, rather than jumping ahead by one day. I have a small problem in my timing calculation, but the script below is not animating, but rather jumping directly to the final time. I do have the draw function running on a separate setInterval which updates every second, so I'm hoping it isn't an issue of conflicting timers on the same function on the same element and data. jQuery('span.adjustTime').click(function() { var adjustBy = parseInt(jQuery(this).attr('id').replace('a', '')); var data = jQuery('img#logo').data(); for(var m = 1; m >= 30; m++) { gantt.startUnixTime = gantt.startUnixTime + (adjustBy * (m * 0.001)); var moveTimer = setTimeout(function() { draw(document.getElementById('gantt'), data, gantt); }, 1000); if (m == 30) { clearTimeout(moveTimer); } } });

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  • Validating Login / Changing User settings / Php Mysql

    - by Marcelo
    Hi everyone, my questions are about login, and changing already saved data. (Q1) 'Till now I've only saved input in the tables of the database (registration steps), now I need to check if the input (login steps), are the same of my table in database, in fact I have 3 types of users, then I'll have to check 3 kind of tables. Then if the input data matches with one of those 3 tables I will redirect the user to his specific area. I'm thinking about saved the submitted data $login=$_REQUEST['login']; and $password=$_REQUEST['password']; and compare with the login column in the database. Then if the login matches, I'll compare the password submitted with the one in the row, not in the column. But I don't know how to do this search and comparison,neither what to use. Then if both matches I'll redirect the user. Else I'll send an login error message. (this I know how to do) (Q2) What if need to change an already saved user ? For example to change an email address. My changing user's data web page is exactly the same like the registration user web page. Can I load the already saved options and values of registration (table user for example). Then the user will change whatever he thinks it's necessary, and then when he submits the new information, they would not create a new row in my table, but just be overwritten the old information? How can I do this? Sorry for any mistake in English, and Thanks for the attention.

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  • PHP/MySQL - Working with two databases, one shared and one local to an instance of application

    - by Extrakun
    The situation: Using a off-the-shelf PHP application, I have to add in a new module for extra functionality. Today, it is made known that eventually four different instances of the application are to be deployed, but the data from the new functionality is to be shared among those 4 instances. Each instance should still have their own database for users, content and etc. So the data for the new functionality goes into a 'shared' database. The data for the application (user login, content, uploads) go into a 'local' database To make things more complex, the new module I am writing will fetch data from the local DB and the shared DB at the same time. A re-write of the base application will take too long. I only have control over the new module which I am writing. The ideal solution: Is there a way to encapsulate 2 databases into one name using MySQL? I do not wish to switch DB connections or specifically name the DB to query from inside my SQL statements. The application uses a DB wrapper, so I am able to change it somehow so I can invisibly attempt to read/write to two different DB. What is the best way to handle this problem?

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  • jquery ajax post and response evaluation

    - by Rami
    Hello people, i am relatively new to javascript and jquery in particular, so please bear with me, i am trying to loop through multiple s and then serialize() the data with jquery and post it using ajax to my page, this's happening alright, and the data is posted, and my php script echos 1 and everything is taken care off, but for some strange reason, the following code is not working, specially the "success" variable, it's not increasing at all! would you please help me? $('.submitB').click(function(){ var success = 0; var times = 0; var alertText; $('.input').each(function(){ times++; var serializedForms = $(this).serialize(); $.post('<?=$this->config->site_url()?>crud/additem/forms', serializedForms ,function(data){ if (data) { success++; } }); }); if (times) { alertText = "?? ????? " + success + " ???? ?? ??? " + times + " ?????."; alert(alertText); } }) the Arabic text just says "success + Entries from + times + were entered successfully".. thank you in advance.

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  • Entity Framework Validation & usage

    - by kmsellers
    I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

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  • Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

    - by dj_kyron
    Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • how can i learn Enterprise library 4.0 ?

    - by ykaratoprak
    I try to learn Enterprise Library. i find these useful codes to get data from sql. But i try to send data via parameter. also use UPDATE, DELETE, SAVe method. Do you give sama sample? i'm using enterprise 4.0 !!! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Data; using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common; using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; namespace WebApplicationForEnterpirires { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Database objdbase = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase("connectionString"); DataSet ds = objdbase.ExecuteDataSet(CommandType.StoredProcedure, "sp_GetProducts"); GridView1.DataSource = ds; GridView1.DataBind(); } } }

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  • [android] Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget?

    - by cappuccino
    [Android] Hi, everyone. Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget? I saw android sample soucrce(API Demos). In API Demos, ExampleAppWidgetProvider class extends AppWidgetProvider, not Activity. So, I guess it is impossible to regist SMS Receiver like this, rcvIncoming = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.i("telephony", "SMS received"); Bundle data = intent.getExtras(); if (data != null) { // SMS uses a data format known as a PDU Object pdus[] = (Object[]) data.get("pdus"); String message = "New message:\n"; String sender = null; for (Object pdu : pdus) { SmsMessage part = SmsMessage.createFromPdu((byte[])pdu); message += part.getDisplayMessageBody(); if (sender == null) { sender = part.getDisplayOriginatingAddress(); } } Log.i(sender, message); } } }; registerReceiver(rcvIncoming, new IntentFilter("android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED")); My goal is to receive SMS message on my custom appWidget. any help would be appreciated!!

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  • Problem with filefield module after migrating drupal site to a new server: cant upload files

    - by oalo
    We have a content type with two imagefield / filefield fields, and after migrating our site to a new server, we have the following problem: When we submit a new item for this content type, with two images for those fields, drupal gives us the following error and does not upload the images: warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. An image thumbnail was not able to be created. warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. An image thumbnail was not able to be created. I understand this is a permissions error, but it is not clear to me where do I have to change permissions. Line 349 of file.inc has the following code: if (($fp = fopen("$directory/.htaccess", 'w')) && fputs($fp, $htaccess_lines)) { fclose($fp); chmod($directory .'/.htaccess', 0664); } else { $repl = array('%directory' = $directory, '!htaccess' = nl2br(check_plain($htaccess_lines))); form_set_error($form_item, t("Security warning: Couldn't write .htaccess file. Please create a .htaccess file in your %directory directory which contains the following lines:!htaccess", $repl));

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  • How do I bind arrays to columns in a WPF datagrid

    - by user1432917
    I have a Log object that contains a list of Curve objects. Each curve has a Name property and an array of doubles. I want the Name to be in the column header and the data below it. I have a user control with a datagid. Here is the XAML; <UserControl x:Class="WellLab.UI.LogViewer" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="500" d:DesignWidth="500"> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Name="stackPanel1" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Width="Auto"> <ToolBarTray Height="26" Name="toolBarTray1" Width="Auto" /> <ScrollViewer Height="Auto" Name="scrollViewer1" Width="Auto" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" CanContentScroll="True" Background="#E6ABA4A4"> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="True" Height="Auto" Name="logDataGrid" Width="Auto" ItemsSource="{Binding}" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> </DataGrid> </ScrollViewer> </StackPanel> </Grid> In the code behind I have figured out how to create columns and name them, but I have not figured out how to bind the data. public partial class LogViewer { public LogViewer(Log log) { InitializeComponent(); foreach (var curve in log.Curves) { var data = curve.GetData(); var col = new DataGridTextColumn { Header = curve.Name }; logDataGrid.Columns.Add(col); } } } I wont even show the code I tried to use to bind the array "data", since nothing even came close. I am sure I am missing something simple, but after hours of searching the web, I have to come begging for an answer.

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  • Concatenating a string and byte array in to unmanaged memory.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    This is a followup to my last question. I now have a byte[] of values for my bitmap image. Eventually I will be passing a string to the print spooler of the format String.Format("GW{0},{1},{2},{3},", X, Y, stride, _Bitmap.Height) + my binary data; I am using the SendBytesToPrinter command from here. Here is my code so far to send it to the printer public static bool SendStringPlusByteBlockToPrinter(string szPrinterName, string szString, byte[] bytes) { IntPtr pBytes; Int32 dwCount; // How many characters are in the string? dwCount = szString.Length; // Assume that the printer is expecting ANSI text, and then convert // the string to ANSI text. pBytes = Marshal.StringToCoTaskMemAnsi(szString); pBytes = Marshal.ReAllocCoTaskMem(pBytes, szString.Length + bytes.Length); Marshal.Copy(bytes,0, SOMTHING GOES HERE,bytes.Length); // this is the problem line // Send the converted ANSI string + the concatenated bytes to the printer. SendBytesToPrinter(szPrinterName, pBytes, dwCount); Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pBytes); return true; } My issue is I do not know how to make my data appended on to the end of the string. Any help would be greatly appreciated, and if I am doing this totally wrong I am fine in going a entirely different way (for example somehow getting the binary data concatenated on to the string before the move to unmanaged space. P.S. As a second question, will ReAllocCoTaskMem move the data that is sitting in it before the call to the new location?

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  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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