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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • deleting cookie at the end of a process

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I am using the following plug in for cookies in jQuery: https://code.google.com/p/cookies/ The issue i am having is not with the plugin but when and how to delete the cookie at the end of a quoting process. The site i am using this on is a six step online quote and buy process. There is Omniture event serialisation sitestat tracking applied to some of the pages. This event serialisation has to include the name of the event and a random number of which i create. I have a generic function for this which i call at the bottom of the page like so: serialEvent('event21:', 'payment'); Here is the function: function serialEvent(eventNumber, eventName) { var sessionID = jaaulde.utils.cookies.get('sessionID'); var remLength = 20 - eventName.length; var remSession = sessionID.substr(sessionID.length - remLength, remLength); var eventName = eventName + remSession; s.events = eventNumber + eventName; } I need to delete the cookie at the end of the process, the Thank you page but i also need the cookie 'sessionID' for the 'serialEvent' function. As the function is called at the bottom of the page should i just write the cookie delete after it? Is that robust enough? I need to be sure that the function has successfully been called before the cookie is deleted. The code for deleting the cookie is quite simple: jaaulde.utils.cookies.del('sessionID'); Thanks :)

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  • Validating Time & Date To Be At Least A Certain Amount Of Time In The Future

    - by MJH
    I've built a reservation form for a taxi company which works fine, but I'm having an issue with users making reservations that are due too soon in the future. Since the entire form is kind of long, I first want to make sure the user is not trying to make a reservation for less than an hour ahead of time, without them having to fill out the whole form. This is what I have come up with so far, but it's just not working: <?php //Set local time zone. date_default_timezone_set('America/New_York'); //Get current date and time. $current_time = date('Y-m-d H:i:s'); //Set reservation time variable $res_datetime = $_POST['res_datetime']; //Set event time. $event_time = strtotime($res_datetime); ?> <!doctype html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>Check Date and Time</title> </head> <?php //Check to be sure reservation time is at least one hour in the future. if (($current_time - $event_time) <= (3600)) { echo "You must make a reservation at least one hour ahead of time."; } ?> <form name="datetime" action="" method="post"> <input name="res_datetime" type="datetime-local" id="res_datetime"> <input type="submit"> </form> <body> </body> </html> How can I create a validation check to make sure the date and time of the reservation is at least one hour ahead of time?

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  • Eclipse 3.7 Classic Nightmare - ADT Installation

    - by Cal
    I've been trying to install the ADT for Eclipse Classic 3.7 to no avail. From what I've seen on searches, the general consensus seems to be to update the software, but alas I cannot do that, either. BELOW: An example of the error message received when trying to update Eclipse, or when attempting to install from a web location. Some sites could not be found. See the error log for more detail. Unable to read repository at http://download.eclipse.org/eclipse/updates/3.7/content.xml. Cannot assign requested address: JVM_Bind I followed the troubleshooting recommendations of Google/Android's developer section, and attempted to install ADT via archive. BELOW: The resulting error from attempting to install via archive. Cannot complete the install because one or more required items could not be found. Software being installed: Android Development Tools 11.0.0.v201105251008-128486 (com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.feature.group 11.0.0.v201105251008-128486) Missing requirement: Android Development Tools 11.0.0.v201105251008-128486 (com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.feature.group 11.0.0.v201105251008-128486) requires 'org.eclipse.gef 0.0.0' but it could not be found Now, from what I hear, the inability to update/install via Internet seems to be a proxy-related issue, however I don't believe that I'm under any such thing (I'm just using my computer connected to my home network for this). I'm using the most up-to-date versions of anything I can think of (ADT, Eclipse, SDK Tools etc). I'm using Windows 7 Ultimate 64bit, and am using the 64bit version of Eclipse Classic.

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  • Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

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  • How to make Solution Explorer behave after clearing search?

    - by stijn
    I currently have a VS installation with no extensions to see how that works out. For navigation that means making heavy use of Ctrl+; aka Search Solution Explorer. While the search itself is ok, it has one major drawback for me that makes it a pain to use for me (both with keyboard and mouse): Solution with two projects, one collapsed, one opened: Use Ctrl+; and start typing until match found from collapsed project What I want now is to simply clear the search and return to the previous view. Seems like a pretty standard requirement, no? But there seems to be no such functionality built in. Problem with the current commands that come close (pressing Esc, clicking Back or Home buttons in Solution Explorer Toolbar) is all the same: they have the extremely annoying behaviour that they insist on suddenly uncollapsing the previously collapsed project and track the match found! (Btw the Track Active Item in Solution Explorer option is turned of in the options). This makes no sense from a UX point of view? You select some kind of 'undo' command, the search box clears which is expected, but then suddenly there's an item visible from a previous search: So if the collapsed project has like 50 items in it, solution explorer is now useless visually since it litters the screen with stuff you don't want to see, and worse you have to manually collapse the project again to return to the previous view. Is there a way around this? I thought maybe keyboard shortcuts for Back/Home would be different, but the commands do not seem to be registered. I looked into EnvDTE80.DTE2.ToolWindows.SolutionExplorer but it has no properties/methods that have anything to do with this issue. And somewhere in the tree there is a Microsoft.VisualStudio.PlatformUI.SolutionPivotNavigator which is probably the class responsible for this behaviour, but I have no idea how to access it?

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  • JQuery submit form and output response or error message

    - by sergdev
    I want to submit form and show message about result. update_records initializes alert_message to error message. If success I expect that its value is changed. Than update_records outputs message. But the function always alerts "Error submitting form". What is wrong with this? The code follows: function update_records(form_name) { var options = { async: false, alert_message: "Error submitting form", success: function(message) { this.alert_message = message; } }; $('#' + form_name).ajaxSubmit(options); alert(options.alert_message); } I am newbie in Javascript/JSon/Jquery and I suspect that I misunderstand some basics of mentioned technologies. UPDATE: I specified "async:false" to make execution synchronous (Is it correct?) I also tried to insert delay between following two lines: $('#' + form_name).ajaxSubmit(options); pausecomp(1000); // inserted pause alert(options.alert_message); It also does not resolve the issue Function fo pousecomp follows: function pausecomp(millis) { var date = new Date(); var curDate = null; do { curDate = new Date(); } while(curDate-date < millis); }

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  • Detecting one point's location compared to two other points.

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Hi all, you can check my profile, this is not homework. I've got an interesting little problem to solve in a very real software and I'm looking for an easy way to solve it. I've got two fixed points on screen (they're fixed, but I don't know beforehand their position) that are not at the same location. These two fixed points form an imaginary line. Now I've got a third point that is "on one side" of that line (it cannot be on the line). The user can grab the point (the user actually grab an object, whose I track by its center, which is the point I'm interested in) and drag it. But it cannot "cross" the imaginary line. What is the easiest way to detect if the user is crossing the imaginary line? Example: a c / / (c cannot be dragged here) / b Or: c b -------------- a (c cannot be dragged here) So what is an easy to detect if c is staying on the correct "side" of the line (I draw segments here, but it really can be thought of as a line). One way to detect this is to take the destination point d and see if segment (c,d) intersects with line (a,b), but isn't there an easier way? Can't I just do some 2D dot-product magic here and have basically a one or two liner solving my issue?

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  • how do I zoom to normal text size in vs2008?

    - by gerryLowry
    I can not find any help on this issue in vs2008 help, Google, or SO. Scenario: I'm looking at a source file in vs2008 SP1; Windows 2003 Server SP2 Standard Edition, 1280x1024. The irrelevant name of this file is index.aspx. What is relevant is that the file has only 65 lines of code. The print is unreadably small--less than 4 point. It uses less than a third of the vs2008 text window vertically and less that a quarter of the vs2008 text window horizontally. It's not just index.aspx; e.g. another file with 142 lines only fills about 3/4 of the vs2008 text window vertically and less that a quarter of the vs2008 text window horizontally. Possible cause: Probably, but not certainly, I found the equivalent of zoom in/zoom out such as one finds in products like Microsoft Word. However, I've explored many vs2008 toolbars and other customization options and unfortunately I can not find out how to get myself out of this mess. Window, Reset Window Layout has no effect on the text size; my tiny text size did not change. QUESTION: how do I zoom vs2008 text size in and out and back to normal size? Thank you. Regards ~~ Gerry (Lowry)

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  • Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

    - by onedaywhen
    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

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  • Converting an AnsiString to a Unicode String

    - by jrodenhi
    I'm converting a D2006 program to D2010. I have a value stored in a single byte per character string in my database and I need to load it into a control that has a LoadFromStream, so my plan was to write the string to a stream and use that with LoadFromStream. But it did not work. In studying the problem, I see an issue that tells me that I don't really understand how conversion from AnsiString to Unicode string works. Here is some code I am puzzling over: oStringStream := TStringStream.Create(sBuffer); sUnicodeStream := oPayGrid.sStream; //explicit conversion to unicode string iSize1 := StringElementSize(oPaygrid.sStream); iSize2 := StringElementSize(sUnicodeStream); oStringStream.WriteString(sUnicodeStream); When I get to the last line, iSize1 does equal 1 and iSize2 does equal 2, so that part is what I understood from my reading. But, on the last line, after I write the string to the stream, and look at the Bytes Property of the string, it shows this (the string starts as '16,159'): (49 {$31}, 54 {$36}, 44 {$2C}, 49 {$31}, 53 {$35}, 57 {$39} ... I was expecting that it might look something like (49 {$31}, 00 {$00}, 54 {$36}, 00 {$00}, 44 {$2C}, 00 {$00}, 49 {$31}, 00 {$00}, 53 {$35}, 00 {$00}, 57 {$39}, 00 {$00} ... I'm not getting the right results out of the LoadFromStream because it is reading from the stream two bytes at a time, but the data it is receiving is not arranged that way. What is it that I should do to give the LoadFromStream a well formed stream of data based on a unicode string? Thank you for your help.

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  • gen_server with a dict vs mnesia table vs ets

    - by pablo
    Hi, I'm building an erlang server. Users sends http requests to the server to update their status. The http request process on the server saves the user status message in memory. Every minute the server sends all messages to a remote server and clear the memory. If a user update his status several times in a minute, the last message overrides the previous one. It is important that between reading all the messages and clearing them no other process will be able to write a status message. What is the best way to implement it? gen_server with a dict. The key will be the userid. dict:store/3 will update or create the status. The gen_server solves the 'transaction' issue. mnesia table with ram_copies. Handle transactions and I don't need to implement a gen_server. Is there too much overhead with this solution? ETS table which is more light weight and have a gen_server. Is it possible to do the transaction in ETS? To lock the table between reading all the messages and clearing them? Thanks

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  • How to Perform Continues Iteration over Shared Dictionary in Multi-threaded Environment

    - by Mubashar Ahmad
    Dear Gurus. Note Pls do not tell me regarding alternative to custom session, Pls answer only relative to the Pattern Scenario I have Done Custom Session Management in my application(WCF Service) for this I have a Dictionary shared to all thread. When a specific function Gets called I add a New Session and Issue SessionId to the client so it can use that sessionId for rest of his calls until it calls another specific function, which terminates this session and removes the session from the Dictionary. Due to any reason Client may not call session terminator function so i have to implement time expiration logic so that i can remove all such sessions from the memory. For this I added a Timer Object which calls ClearExpiredSessions function after the specific period of time. which iterates on the dictionary. Problem: As this dictionary gets modified every time new client comes and leaves so i can't lock the whole dictionary while iterating over it. And if i do not lock the dictionary while iteration, if dictionary gets modified from other thread while iterating, Enumerator will throw exception on MoveNext(). So can anybody tell me what kind of Design i should follow in this case. Is there any standard pattern available.

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  • ObjectDisposedException when .Show()'ing a form that shouldn't be disposed.

    - by user320781
    ive checked out some of the other questions and obviously the best solution is to prevent the behavior that causes this issue in the first place, but the problem is very intermittent, and very un-reproduceable. I basically have a main form, with sub forms. The sub forms are shown from menus and/or buttons from the main form like so: private void myToolStripMenuItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { xDataForm.Show(); xDataForm.Activate(); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR 10103"); ErrorLogging newLogger = new ErrorLogging("10103"); Thread errorThread = new Thread(ErrorLogging.writeErrorToLog); errorThread.Start(); } } and the sub forms are actually in the main form(for better or worse. i would actually like to change this but would be a considerable amount of time to do so): public partial class FormMainScreen : Form { Form xDataForm = new xData(); ...(lots more here) public FormMainScreen(int pCount, string pName) { InitializeComponent(); ... } ... } The Dispose function for the sub form is modified so that, the 'close' and 'X' buttons actually hide the form so we dont have to re-create it every time. When the main screen closes, it sets a "flag" to 2, so the other forms know that it is actually ok to close; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (FormMainScreen.isExiting == 2) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } else { if (xData.ActiveForm != null) { xData.ActiveForm.Hide(); } } } So, the question is, why would this work over and over and over again flawlessly, but, literally, about every 1/1000 of the time, cause an exception, or rather, why is my form being disposed? I had a suspicion that the garbage collector was getting confused, because it occurs slightly more frequently after it has been running for many hours.

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  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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  • Jquery click bindings are not working correctly when binding multiple copies

    - by KallDrexx
    I seem to have an issue when creating copies of a template and tying the .click() method to them properly. Take the following javascript for example: var list; // Loop through all of the objects var topics = data.objects; for (x = 0; x < objects.length; x++) { // Clone the object list item template var item = $("#object_item_list_template").clone(); // Setup the click action and inner text for the link tag in the template var objectVal = objects[x].Value; item.find('a').click(function () { ShowObject(objectVal.valueOf(), 'T'); }).html(objects[x].Text); // add the html to the list if (list == undefined) list = item; else list.append(item.contents()); } // Prepend the topics to the topic list $("#object_list").empty().append(list.contents()); The problem I am seeing with this is that no matter which item the user clicks on in the #object_list, ShowObject() is called with the last value of objectVal. So for example, if the 3rd item's <a> is clicked, ShowObject(5,'T'); is called even though objects[2].Value is successfully being seen as 2. How can I get this to work? The main purpose of this code is to take a variable number of items gotten from a JSON AJAX request, make copies of the item template, and insert those copies into the correct spot on the html page. I decided to do it this way so that I can keep all my HTML in one spot for when I need to change the layout or design of the page, and not have to hunt for the html code in the javascript.

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  • Jasmine testing coffeescript expect(setTimeout).toHaveBeenCalledWith

    - by Lee Quarella
    In the process of learning Jasmine, I've come to this issue. I want a basic function to run, then set a timeout to call itself again... simple stuff. class @LoopObj constructor: -> loop: (interval) -> #do some stuff setTimeout((=>@loop(interval)), interval) But I want to test to make sure the setTimeout was called with the proper args describe "loop", -> xit "does nifty things", -> it "loops at a given interval", -> my_nifty_loop = new LoopObj interval = 10 spyOn(window, "setTimeout") my_nifty_loop.loop(interval) expect(setTimeout).toHaveBeenCalledWith((-> my_nifty_loop.loop(interval)), interval) I get this error: Expected spy setTimeout to have been called with [ Function, 10 ] but was called with [ [ Function, 10 ] ] Is this because the (-> my_nifty_loop.loop(interval)) function does not equal the (=>@loop(interval)) function? Or does it have something to do with the extra square brackets around the second [ [ Function, 10 ] ]? Something else altogther? Where have I gone wrong?

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • Angular ng-style not changing with property

    - by ganaraj
    For the life of me I cant seem to figure out why the style property is not getting updated. In my larger application it seems to work fine. http://jsfiddle.net/ganarajpr/C2hRa/4/ Here is a fiddle which shows the issue I am currently facing. You will notice that the width and height are getting updated in the div when you change the input. But the style itself doesnt seem to be updating. Anyone can tell me what I am doing wrong here? I have tried all the following scenarios using $scope.$apply.. - Throws an error stating $apply already in progress.. $rootScope.$apply - same as above. Setting another variable in a service which is $watched in the other controller. - no change seen. It would be really cool if someone can get me an answer to this. Also would be really happy if you can tell me why exactly it is not getting updated.

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  • KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

    - by BestPractices
    Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

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  • Sending Email over VPN SmtpException net_io_connectionclosed

    - by Holy Christ
    I am sending an email from a WPF application. When sending as a domain user on the network, the emails sends as expected. However, when I attempt to send email over a VPN connection, I get the following exception: Exception: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. --- System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.GetConnection() at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) I have tried using impersonation as well as setting the Credentials on the SmtpClient. Neither seem to work: using (new ImpersonateUser("myUser", "MYDOMAIN", "myPass")) { var client = new SmtpClient("myhost.com"); client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUser", "myPass", "MYDOMAIN"); client.Send(mailMessage); } I've also tried using Wireshark to view the message over the wire, but I don't know enough about SMTP to know what I'm looking for. One other variable is that the machine I'm using on the VPN is Vista Business and the machine on the network is Win7. I don't think it's related, but then I wouldn't be asking if I knew the issue! :) Any ideas?

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  • What constitutes a development environment, and how do you document it?

    - by Joel Coehoorn
    What items go into a software shop's development environment, how do you document it, and what processes do you follow to make changes? I thinking about this from the standpoint where I want to make it easier to bring new hires up to speed quickly by having all this on a checklist we follow when setting them up, and then while I'm at it making it easier for the new hires or existing team members to bring new powerful toolkits and ideas into the environment without disrupting things. I want to keep this platform agnostic, so even though I'm currently at a microsoft shop where Visual Studio would be assumed I'll go ahead and list compiler/IDE as one of the items: Here are some ideas for part 1: [edit]: I'm keeping this updated based on the better suggestions. Source Control access Issue/Bug/Project tracker System Documention, or references to find the system documentation in source control or in a wiki, including: build document/environment covered by this question design documents / technical notes Coding Style guidelines Deploy for review/testing/QA/staging/production procedures Licensing details for your tools and your product Team Calendar, including the project schedule(s), deadlines, vacation time, and support/on-call schedule (if required) compiler/IDE compiler/IDE extensions (things like source control plugins or visual studio add-ins) 3rd party SDKs/toolkits Database connection and tools Testing Frameworks Internal libraries communication tools (chat, wiki, etc) Static analysis tools (FxCop, FlawFinder, etc) Virtual machines (holding dev environment or for testing) Specialized editors (modeling, xml, etc) Other tools What else goes in this list, and how do you document it and vet changes?

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  • Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

    - by Laurence
    (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

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  • TFS: Choose which Team Project to add a solution too.

    - by Patricker
    I have a solution which I developed in VS2008 and which I am trying to add to Source Control (TFS 2010, though the issue happened in TFS 2008 as well). I have several TFS workspaces on my computer and I have access to several Team Projects. When I right click the solution in my Solution Explorer and choose the "Add Solution to Source Control" option I am never given an option of choosing which Workspace or which Team Project to add the existing solution too. VS2008 then proceeds to add it to the same team project every time. I have tried selecting an alternate workspace/team project in every window where I can see an option for it but it always adds it back to the same one. I even tried changing the name of my new workspace so that alphabetically it was the first thinking that it might be somehow related to that... no luck. I then tried goign to the Change Source Control window where you can add/remove bindings on a solution/project but that window also defaults to the same Team Project as trying to add the solution directly does... Any help would be greatly appreciated with this, maybe I'm just missing something?

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  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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