Search Results

Search found 66233 results on 2650 pages for 'class method'.

Page 874/2650 | < Previous Page | 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881  | Next Page >

  • jqGrid disable sortablerows

    - by gurun8
    I'm trying to disable sortablerows functionality from a grid. I'd like to have the ability to toggle on/off the sortablerows functionality. Enabling the feature is pretty straightforward: jQuery("#list").jqGrid('sortableRows', { update: function(event, ui) { updateOrder() } }); But disabling the feature has proven to be a little bit harder. I've consulted the UI Integrations where sortableRows is documented in the jqGrid Wiki: www.trirand.com/jqgridwiki/doku.php?id=wiki:jquery_ui_methods And found that "The method is fully compatible with jQuery UI sortable widget." So I ventured off to the jQuery UI sortable documentation and found this: http://jqueryui.com/demos/sortable/ jQuery("#list").jqGrid('sortableRows', {disabled: true}); The code above simply disables the rows. So I moved onto the destroy method: jQuery("#list").jqGrid('sortableRows', {destroy: true}); but that doesn't do anything. Based upon the documentation the destroy method seems to be exactly what I need, so maybe my syntax is wrong but I can't seem to get it to work. Does anyone have experience with this same issue?

    Read the article

  • Change the default SqlCommand CommandTimeout with configuration rather than recompile?

    - by robertc
    I am supporting an ASP.Net 3.5 web application and users are experiencing a timeout error after 30 seconds when trying to run a report. Looking around the web it seems it's easy enough to change the timeout in the code, unfortunately I'm not able to access the code and recompile. Is there anyway to configure the default for either the web app, the worker process, IIS or the whole machine? Here is the stack trace up to the point where it's in System.Data in case I'm missing some other problem: [SqlException (0x80131904): Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +1948826 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4844747 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +2392 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData() +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData() +83 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) +297 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) +954 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) +162 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) +32 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) +141 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +12 System.Data.Common.DbCommand.System.Data.IDbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +10 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) +130 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) +162 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) +115 --Edit There must be something outside the code itself - I've downloaded the database and run it against the same web site installed on a test server and it runs for longer than 30 seconds and returns the report. I've compared the machine.config and web.config files from the .Net directory on the live and test and they seem the same, compared the two IIS setups, also looked at the SQL Server configuration and the only difference is that the live server is clustered on 64bit W2K3 while the test server is on 32bit.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 2 Error Code: 4004

    - by jkidv
    Hey guys/gals. I have a silverlight 2 app that has an ObservableCollection of a class from a separate assem/lib. When I set my ListBox.ItemsSource on that collection, and run it, I get the error code: 4004 "System.ArgumentException: Value does not fall within the expected range." Here is part of the code: public partial class Page : UserControl { ObservableCollection<Some.Lib.Owner> ooc; public Page() { ooc = new ObservableCollection<Some.Lib.Owner>(); Some.Lib.Owner o1 = new Some.Lib.Owner() { FirstName = "test1" }; Some.Lib.Owner o2 = new Some.Lib.Owner() { FirstName = "test2" }; Some.Lib.Owner o3 = new Some.Lib.Owner() { FirstName = "test3" }; ooc.Add(o1); ooc.Add(o2); ooc.Add(o3); InitializeComponent(); lb1.ItemsSource = ooc; } } But when I create the Owner class within this same project, everything works fine. Is there some security things going on behind the scenes? Also, I'm using the generate a html page option and not the aspx option, when I created this Silverlight 2 app.

    Read the article

  • Android: How to keep onItemSelected from firing off on a newly instantiated Spinner

    - by Drennen
    I've thought of some less than elegant ways to solve this, but I know I must be missing something. My onItemSelected fires off immediately without any interaction with the user, and this is undesired behavior. I wish for the UI to wait until the user selects something before it does anything. I even tried setting up the listener in the onResume, hoping that would help, but it doesn't. How can I stop this from firing off before the user can touch the control? THANKS public class CMSHome extends Activity { private Spinner spinner; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // Heres my spinner /////////////////////////////////////////// spinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.spinner); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.pm_list, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinner.setAdapter(adapter); }; public void onResume() { super.onResume(); spinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new MyOnItemSelectedListener()); } public class MyOnItemSelectedListener implements OnItemSelectedListener { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int pos, long id) { Intent i = new Intent(CMSHome.this, ListProjects.class); i.putExtra("bEmpID", parent.getItemAtPosition(pos).toString()); startActivity(i); Toast.makeText(parent.getContext(), "The pm is " + parent.getItemAtPosition(pos).toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView parent) { // Do nothing. } } }

    Read the article

  • WCF Reliable Session Timeout

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, when do reliable sessions time out? My session class is defined as follows: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] and in my app.config... <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="FTS_netTcpBinding"> <reliableSession enabled="true" inactivityTimeout="00:00:30"/> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> I have put a timer in the constructor of my session class that simply outputs a count (1..2..3...) to the console for every second the session is active. I have tested it so far by faulting my channel. I would have imagined that the session class would have died after ~30 seconds (as specified in my inactivityTimeout parameter) and hence the timer would have died. However it was still going after a minute. Each session on my app will have significant resources so I need to make sure that they are cleaned up when something goes wrong. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What is the standard convention for defining nested view:viewmodel mapping in MVVM Light

    - by firoso
    so in classic MVVM examples ive seen DataTemplate definitions are used to map up View Models to Views, what is the standard way to do this in MVVM Light framework, and where should the mappings be located? Following are examples of what I'm doing now and what I'm talking about, blendability is important to me! Main Window: <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Class="STS2Editor.MainWindow" Title="{Binding ApplicationTitle, Mode=OneWay}" DataContext="{Binding RootViewModel, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <Window.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Skins/ApplicationSkin.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources/ViewMappings.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <ContentControl Content="{Binding ApplicationManagementViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> </Grid> </Window> In the above code, my RootViewModel class has an instance of the class ApplicationManagementViewModel with the same property name: public ApplicationManagementViewModel ApplicationManagementViewModel {get {...} set {...} } I reference the ResourceDictionary "ViewMappings.xaml" to specify how my view model is represented as a view. <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:STS2Editor.ViewModel"> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ApplicationManagementViewModel}"> <local:ApplicationManagementView/> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> should I be doing things like this using ViewModelLocator? what about collections of view models?

    Read the article

  • how to embed pure as3 bitmap assets with flex4 (worked with flex3)

    - by jedierikb
    In Flex3, I could compile pure as3 code and use "embed" tags to load in images. This was done by Flex making a BitmapAsset class. I can still do this in Flex4. However, there was a trick to fakeout flex3 and use my own mx.core.BitmapAsset class to remove some of the extraneous stuff Flex's BitmapAsset brings in with it. This is described here: http://www.ultrashock.com/forums/flex/embed-flex-assets-without-using-flex-123405.html Unfortunately, I cannot get these tricks to work with Flex4 and get smaller file sizes. I end up with the error "VerifyError: Error #1014: Class mx.core::BitmapAsset could not be found." This error leads me to this forum, and a solution as described there: http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/flexcoders/message/148762 Following this advice, I add -static-link-runtime-shared-libraries=true, and my swf loads without an error... but this means I am loading in the pieces of the flex framework I wanted to omit (and the file size says so too). Is there a better way to fake out flex4 when it comes to using Embed?

    Read the article

  • WCF deadlock when using callback channel

    - by mafutrct
    This is probably a simple mistake, but I could not figure out what was wrong. I basically got a method like this: [ServiceBehavior ( ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Reentrant, InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true) ] public class Impl : SomeContract { public string Foo() { _CallbackChannel.Blah(); return ""; } } Its interface is decorated: [ServiceContract ( Namespace = "http://MyServiceInterface", SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof (WcfCallbackContract)) ] public interface SomeContract { [OperationContract] string Foo (); } The service is hosted like this: ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost (typeof (Impl)); var binding = new NetTcpBinding (); var address = new Uri ("net.tcp://localhost:8000/"); host.AddServiceEndpoint ( typeof (SomeContract), binding, address); host.Open (); The client implements the callback interface and calls Foo. Foo runs, calls the callback method and returns. However, the client is still struck in the call to Foo and never returns. The client callback method is never run. I guess I made a design mistake somewhere. If needed, I can post more code. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • iPhone/iPod receive messages from C# tcpip server using CocoaAsyncSocket

    - by SorinA.
    Hello, i'm trying to send/receive data over wifi to an iphone/ipodtouch app from a C# tcpip server. for this i used cocoaAsyncSocket from the google project. If i push a button and i send a request from ipod to server it returns the requested data(song title for example)..i want to know every second what song is playng...so from C# server i send at intervals of 1 second messages to my app. In my app in an timer with the interval of 1 second i call the asyncSocket read readDataWithTimeout method. My problem is that after 8-9 seconds that method is not called anymore. The connection to the server is still active and the C# server still sends data.. what i want to do is the following thing: - winamp plays a song - C# server asks winamp what songs is he playing and sends the song title to my app. - iphone app receives the data and displays it i don't know why the readDataWithTimeout method is not called anymore after a short period of time..Maybe because the short time between messages sent by the C# server? Thank you, Sorin

    Read the article

  • JAVA: ICEFACES: component <ice:selectInputDate> mapped on a "java.util.Calendar" field

    - by blummihaela
    Does anybody knows how can component <ice:selectInputDate> be mapped on a java.util.Calendar field, not java.util.Date? I am using from IceFaces version 1.8.2, the component <ice:selectInputDate>. This component requires to be bound with a java.util.Date proeprty. For example, value="#{bean.myDate}", the myDate field must be of type java.util.Date. But I need my date field to be of type java.util.Calendar. My trials: I have tried to use standard converter or a custom one: Standard one: <f:convertDateTime pattern="dd/MM/yyyy" /> it formats correct the value in GUI, but when setting it on the property bean.myDate of type Calendar I get following error message: [5/3/10 12:09:18:398 EEST] 00000021 lifecycle I WARNING: FacesMessage(s) have been enqueued, but may not have been displayed. sourceId=j_id12:j_id189:myDate[severity=(ERROR 2), summary=(/WEB-INF/xhtml............file.xhtml @507,51 value="#{bean.myDate}": Can't set property 'myDate' on class 'bean' to value '5/11/10 3:00 AM'.), detail=(/WEB-INF/xhtml........file.xhtml @507,51 value="#{bean.myDate}": Can't set property 'myDate' on class '...bean...' to value '5/11/10 3:00 AM'.)] Custom one: <f:converter converterId="c2d"/> getAsObject - returns the java.util.Calendar object out of the submitted String. getAsString - receives an Object, and returns the String formatted. NOTE: this method was hacked so instead of expecting java.util.Calendar, to be complementary with getAsObject method. Instead, the hacked method getAsString, expects an java.util.Date, provided as parameter (by ice:selectInputDate) and returns the String formatted. But still an error message occurs: [5/3/10 12:55:34:299 EEST] 0000001f D2DFaceletVie E com.icesoft.faces.facelets.D2DFaceletViewHandler renderResponse Problem in renderResponse: java.util.GregorianCalendar incompatible with java.util.Date java.lang.ClassCastException: java.util.GregorianCalendar incompatible with java.util.Date at com.icesoft.faces.component.selectinputdate.SelectInputDate.getTextToRender(SelectInputDate.java:252) Any hint is very useful! Thanks, Mihaela

    Read the article

  • Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

    - by Felix
    I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Page - hyper links in HTML.ValidationSummary

    - by Rita
    Hi I have Registration page and if the validation fails, it displays the error messages using HTML.ValidationSummary control. Now i have to display the Hyperlink in that Validation Error Message. But it is treating href also as string. The Validation Message that I am trying to display with hyperlink is: **"User already exists in the system, please <a href='../Login.aspx'>login</a>"** Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform">; <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <% } %

    Read the article

  • viewDidLoad not being called by parent UITabBarController

    - by Adam Bishop
    Sample: I've created a minimal set of files that highlight the issue here: http://uploads.omega.org.uk/Foo3.zip If viewDidLoad/viewInitWithNibName are called, a message box is displayed. The message box is not displayed, therefore, the methods are not being called. Details: I have an application that is attempting to use a UITabBarController to switch between multiple views. The views are linked up to the UITabBarController using interface builder (select the tab page, open Attributes (Option-1), and fill in the NIB Name field), and so are displayed "automatically" with no extra code-behind to make them appear. Is it intended behaviour that views loaded like this do not have their viewDidLoad method executed? If not, how am I doing it wrong, and what do I need to change. If it is intended behaviour, I can think of a few work-arounds, but any suggestions are appreciated: Scrap the UITabBarController and implement the view switching myself (using initWithNibName and add/insert/push/Subview). Call each of the children's viewDidLoad method manually in the UITabBarController's own viewDidLoad method. Thank you in advance for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • C# - foreach showing strange behavior / for working with no problem

    - by Marks
    Hi there. Today I coded a function that uses two nested foreach loops. After seeing, that it did not work like expected, i debugged it. But I dont see an error, and dont think a simple error can cause the behavior i have noticed. The part looks like this: foreach(MyClass cItem in checkedListBoxItemList.Items) { foreach(MyClass cActiveItem in ActiveItemList) { if (cActiveItem.ID == cItem.ID) /*...check checkbox for item...*/; } } Lets say, checkedListBoxItemList.items holds 4 items of type MyClass, and ActiveItemList is a List< MyClass with 2 Items. The debugger jumps into the outer foreach, reaches inner foreach, executes the if 2 times (once per cActiveItem) and reaches the end of the outer foreach.Now, the debugger jumps back to the head of the outer foreach as it should. But instead of starting the second round of the outer foreach, the debugger suddenly jumps into the MyClass.ToString() method. I can step through this method 4 times (number of items in checkedListBoxItemList.Items) and then ... nothing. Visual Studio shows me my windows form, and the foreach is not continued. When changing the code to int ListCount = checkedListBoxItemList.Items.Count; for(int i=0; i<ListCount; i++) { MyClass cItem = checkedListBoxItemList.Items[i] as MyClass; foreach(MyClass cActiveItem in ActiveItemList) { if (cActiveItem.ID == cItem.ID) /*...check checkbox for item...*/; } } everything works fine and as supposed. I showed the problem to a collegue, but he also didnt understand, what happened. I dont understand why the debugger jumps into the MyClass.ToString() method. I used F10 to step through, so no need to leave the function. And even, if there is a reason, why isnt the foreach loop continued? Im using Visual Studio 2010, if this is of any matter. Please tell me what happened. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Logging in worker threads spawned from a pylons application does not seem to work

    - by TimM
    I have a pylons application where, under certain cirumstances I want to spawn multiple worker threads to process items in a queue. Right now we aren't making use of a ThreadPool (would be ideal, but we'll add that in later). The main problem is that the worker threads logging does not get written to the log files. When I run the code outside of the pylons application the logging works fine. So I think its something to do with the pylons log handler but not sure what. Here is a basic example of the code (trimmed down): import logging log = logging.getLogger(__name__) import sys from Queue import Queue from threading import Thread, activeCount def run(input, worker, args = None, simulteneousWorkerLimit = None): queue = Queue() threads = [] if args is not None: if len(args) > 0: args = list(args) args = [worker, queue] + args args = tuple(args) else: args = (worker, queue) # start threads for i in range(4): t = Thread(target = __thread, args = args) t.daemon = True t.start() threads.append(t) # add ThreadTermSignal inputData = list(input) inputData.extend([ThreadTermSignal] * 4) # put in the queue for data in inputData: queue.put(data) # block until all contents are downloaded queue.join() log.critical("** A log line that appears fine **") del queue for thread in threads: del thread del threads class ThreadTermSignal(object): pass def __thread(worker, queue, *args): try: while True: data = queue.get() if data is ThreadTermSignal: sys.exit() try: log.critical("** I don't appear when run under pylons **") finally: queue.task_done() except SystemExit: queue.task_done() pass Take note, that the log lin within the RUN method will show up in the log files, but the log line within the worker method (which is run in a spawned thread), does not appear. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks ** EDIT: I should mention that I tried passing in the "log" variable to the worker thread as well as redefining a new "log" variable within the thread and neither worked. ** EDIT: Adding the configuration used for the pylons application (which comes out of the INI file). So the snippet below is from the INI file. [loggers] keys = root [handlers] keys = wsgierrors [formatters] keys = generic [logger_root] level = WARNING handlers = wsgierrors [handler_console] class = StreamHandler args = (sys.stderr,) level = WARNING formatter = generic [handler_wsgierrors] class = pylons.log.WSGIErrorsHandler args = () level = WARNING format = generic

    Read the article

  • MSTest: Problems with DeploymentItem attribute

    - by Juri
    Hi, I'm currently maintaining an "old" system written in C#.net, removing some obsolete features and doing some refactoring. Thanks god, the previous guy wrote some unit tests (MSTests). I quite comfortable with JUnit tests, but didn't do yet much with MSTests. The test methods have a DeploymentItem attribute, specifying a text file which is parsed by the business logic method that is being tested and a 2nd DeploymentItem where just a path has been specified containing a bunch of TIF files that have to be deployed too. [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem(@"files\valid\valid_entries.txt")] [DeploymentItem(@"files\tif\")] public void ExistsTifTest() { ... } The tests worked before, but now I had to change the names of the TIF files contained in the \files\tif directory. According to a rule, the TIF filenames have to match a certain pattern which is also checked by the ExistsTifTest() method. Now I had to change the filenames in order to adapt them to the new requirements and suddently the TIF files are no more being deployed as before. Can someone give me a hint why this happens or what may be the cause? The same thing happens also if I add a new text-file say "my2ndTest.txt" beside the "valid_entries.txt" in the \files\valid\ directory with the according DeploymentItem attribute on the test method. The file doesn't get deployed? I got the images now deployed by defining the deployment path directly in the testrunconfig, but I'd like to understand why these things happen or why for instance my new file "my2ndTest.txt" doesn't get deployed while the others do. Thanks a lot. Juri

    Read the article

  • UINavigationController inside tabbar loading a child root view

    - by Doug
    Hi guys, Firstly i'll preface by saying that i am a complete Cocoa touch/objective c noob (.Net dev having a dabble) I have searched on Google as well as here but cannot seem to find an easy solution. I have a UItabbarcontroller view with a UINavigationController inside its first tab I have the root view for this UINavigationController stored in a seperate class and NIB as i am trying to seperate the data viewing from the data loading (i'm going to reuse the table list in multiple places in my database) and simply pass the root view its data using a loading method and have it take it from there. What i want to happen: App loads and loads the first view of the tab bar (A UINavigationController) The UINavigationController inside the first view loads a root view (a UIViewController with a table view) and sets its title The UINavigationController loads the data from a web service and parses it The UINavigationController sends the data to a loading method inside the UIViewController Am i thinking about this completely wrongly? What currently happens: the first tab bar loads with an empty uinavigationcontroller (no table view) the data methods fire and get the webservice data this child view gets sent its data using the loading method the tableview delegate events fail to fire inside the child view telling it to load the data into the table I just can't seem how to load my second view inside the root view of the navigation controller and then send it my data?

    Read the article

  • Jaxb2Marshaller and primitive types

    - by Thomas Einwaller
    Is it possible to create a web service operation using primitive or basic Java types when using the Jaxb2Marschaller in spring-ws? For example a method looking like this: @Override @PayloadRoot(localPart = "AddTaskRequest", namespace = "http://example.com/examplews/") public long addTask(final Task task) throws AddTaskFault { // do something return 0; } I am using the maven jaxws plugin to generate the interface and model classes from my WSDL. When I try to call the webservice I get the following error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No adapter for endpoint [...]: Does your endpoint implement a supported interface like MessageHandler or PayloadEndpoint I found out that if I change the method to that: @Override @PayloadRoot(localPart = "AddTaskRequest", namespace = "http://example.com/examplews/") public JAXBElement<Long> addTask(final JAXBElement<Task> task) throws AddTaskFault { final ObjectFactory objectFactory = new ObjectFactory(); return objectFactory.createAddTaskResponse(0L); } I am able to call it - but this signature is not compatible with the interface generated by the maven jaxws plugin. What can I do to configure either spring-ws to be able to use the first kind of implementation or to tell maven jaxws plugin to generate the second variant of the interface? UPDATE: My relevant spring-ws config entries look like that: <bean id="marshaller" class="org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller"> <property name="contextPath" value="com.example.examplews" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.ws.server.endpoint.adapter.GenericMarshallingMethodEndpointAdapter"> <constructor-arg ref="marshaller" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.ws.server.endpoint.mapping.PayloadRootAnnotationMethodEndpointMapping"> <property name="order" value="1" /> </bean>

    Read the article

  • How can we leverage NSAppearance?

    - by Brad Allred
    I was reading the Cocoa documentation and stumbled across some new features in the 10.9 API. From the docs I gather that the NSAppearance class and a related protocol NSAppearanceCustomization Appear to be a means of customizing the appearance of NSView and its descendants. An NSAppearance object represents a file that specifies a standard or custom appearance that applies to a subset of UI elements in an app. An app can contain multiple appearance files and—because NSAppearance conforms to NSCoding—you can use Interface Builder to assign UI elements to an appearance. Typically, you customize a window by using Xcode to create an appearance file that contains the views you want to customize and the custom art that should be applied to them. Xcode transforms the file’s art content into a runtime format that AppKit can draw when the specified views are displayed. Well that all sounds neat and promising, but nowhere in the documentation can I find what an appearance file is or how to make one. Google searches are coming up empty other than for the thin documentation I have already read. I do see that UIKit has a similar sounding UIAppearance class, but from what I can tell this is not a straight port of the UIKit class. Does anybody know how to make this magic "appearance file" and what exactly we can do with it?

    Read the article

  • Conversion constructor vs. conversion operator: precedence

    - by GRB
    Reading some questions here on SO about conversion operators and constructors got me thinking about the interaction between them, namely when there is an 'ambiguous' call. Consider the following code: class A; class B { public: B(){} B(const A&) //conversion constructor { cout << "called B's conversion constructor" << endl; } }; class A { public: operator B() //conversion operator { cout << "called A's conversion operator" << endl; return B(); } }; int main() { B b = A(); //what should be called here? apparently, A::operator B() return 0; } The above code displays "called A's conversion operator", meaning that the conversion operator is called as opposed to the constructor. If you remove/comment out the operator B() code from A, the compiler will happily switch over to using the constructor instead (with no other changes to the code). My questions are: Since the compiler doesn't consider B b = A(); to be an ambiguous call, there must be some type of precedence at work here. Where exactly is this precedence established? (a reference/quote from the C++ standard would be appreciated) From an object-oriented philosophical standpoint, is this the way the code should behave? Who knows more about how an A object should become a B object, A or B? According to C++, the answer is A -- is there anything in object-oriented practice that suggests this should be the case? To me personally, it would make sense either way, so I'm interested to know how the choice was made. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • spring-mvc binding arraylist in form

    - by Mike
    In my controller I added an ArrayList to my model with the attribute name "users". Now I looked around and this is the method I found (including a question here): <form:form action="../user/edit" method="post" modelAttribute="users"> <table> <c:forEach var="user" items="${users}" varStatus="counter"> <tr> <td> <form:input path="users[${counter.index}].age"/> </td> <td><button type="submit" name="updateId" id="Update" value="${user.id}">Update</button></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </table> </form:form> But when I load the JSP page I get: .springframework.beans.NotReadablePropertyException: Invalid property 'projects[0]' of bean class [java.util.ArrayList]: Bean property 'users[0]' is not readable or has an invalid getter method: Does the return type of the getter match the parameter type of the setter? So apparantely this isn't the way to go, but in that case how do I bind an arraylist so I can edit the values?

    Read the article

  • DataContractSerializer does not properly deserialize, values for methods in object are missing

    - by sachin
    My SomeClass [Serializable] [DataContract(Namespace = "")] public class SomeClass { [DataMember] public string FirstName { get; set; } [DataMember] public string LastName { get; set; } [DataMember] private IDictionary<long, string> customValues; public IDictionary<long, string> CustomValues { get { return customValues; } set { customValues = value; } } } My XML File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SomeClass> <FirstName>John</FirstName> <LastName>Smith</LastName> <CustomValues> <Value1>One</Value1> <Value2>Two</Value2> </CustomValues > </SomeClass> But my problem is for the class, i am only getting some of the data for my methods when i deserialize. var xmlRoot = XElement.Load(new StreamReader( filterContext.HttpContext.Request.InputStream, filterContext.HttpContext.Request.ContentEncoding)); XmlDictionaryReader reader = XmlDictionaryReader.CreateDictionaryReader(xmlRoot.CreateReader()); DataContractSerializer ser = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(SomeClass)); //Deserialize the data and read it from the instance. SomeClass someClass = (SomeClass)ser.ReadObject(reader, true); So when I check "someClass", FirstName will have the value john, But the LastName will be null. Mystery is how can i get some of the data and not all of the data for the class. So DataContractSerializer is not pulling up all the data from xml when deserializing. Am i doing something wrong. Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance. Let me know if anyone has the same problem or any one has solution

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC 1.0 and 2.0 currency model binding

    - by David Liddle
    I would like to create model binding functionality so a user can enter ',' '.' etc for currency values which bind to a double value of my ViewModel. I was able to do this in MVC 1.0 by creating a custom model binder, however since upgrading to MVC 2.0 this functionality no longer works. Does anyone have any ideas or better solutions for performing this functionality? A better solution would be to use some data annotation or custom attribute. public class MyViewModel { public double MyCurrencyValue { get; set; } } A preferred solution would be something like this... public class MyViewModel { [CurrencyAttribute] public double MyCurrencyValue { get; set; } } Below is my solution for model binding in MVC 1.0. public class MyCustomModelBinder : DefaultModelBinder { public override object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { object result = null; ValueProviderResult valueResult; bindingContext.ValueProvider.TryGetValue(bindingContext.ModelName, out valueResult); bindingContext.ModelState.SetModelValue(bindingContext.ModelName, valueResult); if (bindingContext.ModelType == typeof(double)) { string modelName = bindingContext.ModelName; string attemptedValue = bindingContext.ValueProvider[modelName].AttemptedValue; string wantedSeperator = NumberFormatInfo.CurrentInfo.NumberDecimalSeparator; string alternateSeperator = (wantedSeperator == "," ? "." : ","); try { result = double.Parse(attemptedValue, NumberStyles.Any); } catch (FormatException e) { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError(modelName, e); } } else { result = base.BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext); } return result; } }

    Read the article

  • Objective C - displaying data in NSTextView

    - by Leo
    Hi, I'm having difficulties displaying data in a TextView in iPhone programming. I'm analyzing incoming audio data (from the microphone). In order to do that, I create an object "analyzer" from my SignalAnalyzer class which performs analysis of the incoming data. What I would like to do is to display each new incoming data in a TextView in realtime. So when I push a button, I create the object "analyzer" whiwh analyze the incoming data. Each time there is new data, I need to display it on the screen in a TextView. My problem is that I'm getting an error because (I think) I'm trying to send a message to the parent class (the one taking care of displaying stuff in my TextView : it has a TexView instance variable linked in Interface Builder). What should I do in order to tell my parent class what it needs to display ? Or how sohould I design my classes to display automaticlally something ? Thank you for your help. PS : Here is my error : 2010-04-19 14:59:39.360 MyApp[1421:5003] void WebThreadLockFromAnyThread(), 0x14a890: Obtaining the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. UIKit should not be called from a secondary thread. 2010-04-19 14:59:39.369 MyApp[1421:5003] bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x14a890: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.

    Read the article

  • Building a generic page "Query Analyzer" like in Asp.net with SMO

    - by Rodrigo
    Hello, I'm build a web page in ASP.net is supposed to work just like Query Analyzer. It has basically a textarea to input the sql command, and an Execute button. I'm using SMO to execute the command in the database, as follows: //Create object SMO Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server server = new Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server(new Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Common.ServerConnection(oConn)); //To execute the command server.ConnectionContext.ExecuteNonQuery(tbx_cmd.Text); //OR myDataset = server.ConnectionContext.ExecuteWithResults(tbx_cmd.Text); The problem is that the textarea command can contain anything, from a stored procedure (with GO's statements) and any select command that return resultsets, just like Query Analyzer. But, if I have GO statements, I only can perform the query using ExecuteNonQuery method. If I use the ExecuteWithResults method, it raises errors because of the GO statements. And if I want the resultsets to be available, of course I can only use the ExecuteWithResults method. Does anybody knows how can I do to execute the same command texts at the same time? Thank you!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881  | Next Page >