Search Results

Search found 26693 results on 1068 pages for 'back to basics'.

Page 876/1068 | < Previous Page | 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881 882 883  | Next Page >

  • Silverlight MVVM binding seems not to work

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hi everybody! Building my first SL MVVM application (Silverlight4 RC) and have some issues i don't understand. Having a WPF background i don't know what is going on here: ViewModel has several properties, in which one is called SelectedRecord. This is a get only property and is defined like this: public Culture SelectedRecord { get { return culturesView.View.CurrentItem as Culture; } } As you can see it is gets the current value of a CollectionViewSource (called culturesView). So if i select a Culture, the SelectedRecord (gets a value directly from within the CollectionViewSource) as expected. (Actually there is a datagrid control bound to the CollectionViewSource, hence it is possible to change the selected item) OK. Now to the View . There are several views which access this ViewModel and in particular there is one which shows the values of the aforementioned property SelectedRecord (let's call it the EditView). To show this EditView there is a button (which has its Command property bound to an ICommand in the ViewModel) which functions (the first time) as expected. This means: 1st try : i select a record, switch to EditView, outcome: selected record values are shown (as expected!!). 2nd try: switch back to datagrid, select another record, switch to EditView, outcome: the values of the previous shown record are shown again!!! WHY?? First i thought that the SelectedRecord has not the correct value set, but i was mistaken: it HAS the correct value! So it should be shown!? What am i missing? In WPF this would work!! Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to modify ASCII table in C ? [closed]

    - by drigoSkalWalker
    Like this: My ASCII Chart 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A B C D E F 0 NUL SOH STX ETX EOT ENQ ACK BEL BS HT LF VT FF CR SO SI 1 DLE DC1 DC2 DC3 DC4 NAK SYN ETB CAN EM SUB ESC FS GS RS US 2 SP ! " # $ % & ' ( ) * + , - . / 3 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 : ; ? 4 @ A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O 5 P Q R S T U V W X Y Z [ \ ] ^ _ 6 ` a b c d e f g h i j k l m n o 7 p q r s t u v w x y z { | } ~ DEL I want to call a function, alter the ASCII sequence in this function and when it returns, the ASCII sequence back to the original. Thanks in advance! EDIT: What I want is it: I want to change the order of chars, for examble, A is 65, if I want to make A equal a 0? without to make a function to do it, for example, I could accomplish it with a function that compare an array of chars, and store it in another way with the correct value (the new table), but do it is too expensive, is there another way? thanks in advance again!

    Read the article

  • jquery validator message styling error in IE08 only when customised using errorPlacement function

    - by John Slaytor
    Going back to the errorplacement solution by Nadia (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/860055/jquery-override-default-validation-error-message-display-css-popup-tooltip-like) I have tried it and it works like a charm in Safari and Firefox but causes IE08 to bypass the jqueryvalidator and go straight to the server side validator. My code is this - as soon as I insert 'error element.... it is unstable in IE08. All help much appreciated <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#sampleform").validate({ rules: { dinername: "required", venue: "required", contact: "required", dinertelephone: "required", venuetime: "required", numberdiners: "required", dineremail: { required: true, email: true}, datepicker: { required: true,date: true} }, messages: { dinername: "Your name?", numberdiners: "How many guests?", dinertelephone: "Your mobile?", venue: "Which restaurant?", venuetime: "Your arrival time?", datepicker: "Your booking date?", dineremail: "Please enter a valid email address", }, errorElement: "div", errorPlacement: function(error, element) { element.before(error); offset = element.offset(); error.css('right', offset.right); error.css('right', offset.right - element.outerHeight()); } }); }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datepicker") .datepicker({minDate: 0, maxDate: '+6M +0D',dateFormat: 'DD, d M yy',onClose: function() {$(this).valid();} }); }); </script> The relevant webpage is http://www.johnslaytor.com.au/nilgiris/forms/bookingform/bookingform.html

    Read the article

  • How do ASP.NET MVC Routes work?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, imagine i have the following route setup... public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); // Added custom route here! routes.MapRoute( "CatchAll", "{*catchall}," new { controller = "Error", action = "NotFound" } ); } nothing new - that's the default ASP.NET MVC1 RegisterRoutes method, with one custom route added. Now, if I goto the following url, i get a 404... http://whatever/Home/MissingActionMethod So there's no ActionMethod called MissingActionMethod in the HomeController. So, does this mean, if i goto the 1st route defined, above .. and fail to find an action .. do I then come back and try the second route? rinse-repeat? Or once i match a route, i then try and execute that route .. and if i fail (ie, find the action is missing) .. then .. bad luck? boomski? cheers!

    Read the article

  • SQL Alchemy MVC and cross controller joins

    - by Khorkrak
    When using SQL Alchemy for abstracting your data access layer and using controllers as the way to access objects from that abstraction layer, how should joins be handled? So for example, say you have an Orders controller class that manages Order objects such that it provides getOrder, saveOrder, etc methods and likewise a similar controller for User objects. First of all do you even need these controllers? Should you instead just treat SQL Alchemy as "the" thing for handling data access. Why bother with object oriented controller stuff there when you instead have a clean declarative way to obtain and persist objects without having to write SQL directly either. Well one reason could be that perhaps you may want to replace SQL Alchemy with direct SQL or Storm or whatever else. So having controller classes there to act as an intermediate layer helps limit what would need to change then. Anyway - back to the main question - so assuming you have these two controllers, now lets say you want the list of orders for a certain set of users meeting some criteria. How do you go about doing this? Generally you don't want the controllers crossing domains - the Orders controllers knows only about Orders and the User controller just about Users - they don't mess with each other. You also don't want to go fetch all the Users that match and then feed a big list of user ids to the Orders controller to go find the matching Orders. What's needed is a join. Here's where I'm stuck - that seems to mean either the controllers must cross domains or perhaps they should be done away with altogether and you simply do the join via SQL Alchemy directly and get the resulting User and / or Order objects as needed. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Read from file hexadecimal number and change their representation style

    - by user576844
    I want to write a program changing the notation of all hexadecimal numbers found in an assembly source file from traditional (h) to C-style (0x). I have started the coding part but am not sure how can I detect the hexadecimal numbers and eventually change the style and save it back in the file... I have started writing the program.. ## Mips program - .data fin: .ascii "" # filename for input msg0: .asciiz "aaaa" msg1: .asciiz "Please enter the input file name:" buffer: .asciiz "" .text #----------------------- li $v0, 4 la $a0, msg1 syscall li $v0, 8 la $a0, fin li $a1, 21 syscall jal fileRead #read from file move $s1, $v0 #$t0 = total number of bytes li $t0, 0 # Loop counter loop: bge $t0, $s1, end #if end of file reached OR if there is an error in the file lb $t5, buffer($t0) #load next byte from file jal checkhexa #check for hexadecimal numbers addi $t0, $t0, 1 #increment loop counter j loop end: jal output jal fileClose li $v0, 10 syscall fileRead: # Open file for reading li $v0, 13 # system call for open file la $a0, fin # input file name li $a1, 0 # flag for reading li $a2, 0 # mode is ignored syscall # open a file move $s0, $v0 # save the file descriptor # reading from file just opened li $v0, 14 # system call for reading from file move $a0, $s0 # file descriptor la $a1, buffer # address of buffer from which to read li $a2, 100000 # hardcoded buffer length syscall # read from file jr $ra Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Problems when handling orientation changes

    - by nixau
    Hi all, I need to handle orientation changes in my Android application. For this purpose I decided to use OrientationEventListener convenience class. But his callback method is given somewhat strange behavior. My application starts in the portrait mode and then eventually switches to the lanscape one. I have some custom code executing in the callback onOrientationChanged method that provides some additional UI handling logic - it has a few calls to findViewById. What is strange is that when switching back from landscape to portrait mode onOrientationChanged callback is called twice, and what's even worse - the second call is dealing with bad Context - findViewById method starts returning null. These calls are made right from the MainThread @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); listener = new OrientationListener(); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); // enabling listening listener.enable(); } @Override protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); // disabling listening listener.disable(); } I've replicated the same behavior with a dummy Activity without any logic except for one that deals with orientation hadling. I initiate orientation switch from the Android 2.2 emulator by pressing Ctrl+F11 What could be wrong? Upd: Inner class that implements OrientationEventListener private class OrientationListener extends OrientationEventListener { public OrientationL() { super(getBaseContext()); } @Override public void onOrientationChanged(int orientation) { toString(); } } }

    Read the article

  • Storing Arbitrary Contact Information in Ruby on Rails

    - by Anthony Chivetta
    Hi, I am currently working on a Ruby on Rails app which will function in some ways like a site-specific social networking site. As part of this, each user on the site will have a profile where they can fill in their contact information (phone numbers, addresses, email addresses, employer, etc.). A simple solution to modeling this would be to have a database column per piece of information I allow users to enter. However, this seems arbitrary and limited. Further, to support allowing users to enter as many phone numbers as they would like requires the addition of another database table and joins. It seems to me that a better solution would be to serialize all the contact information entered by a user into a single field in their row. Since I will never be conditioning a SQL query on this information, such a solution wouldn't be any less efficient. Ideally, I would like to use a vCard as my serialization format. vCards are the standard solution to storing contact information across the web, and reusing tested solutions is a Good Thing. Alternative serialization formats would include simply marshaling a ruby hash, or YAML. Regardless of serialization format, supporting the reading and updating of this information in a rails-like way seems to be a major implementation challenge. So, here's the question: Has anyone seen this approach used in a rails application? Are there any rails plugins or gems that make such a system easy to implement? Ideally what I would like is an acts_as_vcard to add to my model object that would handle editing the vcard for me and saving it back to the database.

    Read the article

  • Build number increment not reflected in AssemblyVersion

    - by awshepard
    I've browsed through some of the discussion on auto-incrementing build numbers, but in the impatience of youth decided to roll my own and re-invent the wheel. I know there are probably better ways to go about this (which I'm definitely going to investigate), but my question centers more around the Assembly and/or Version classes. My approach was to write a separate exe (BuildIncrementer) that takes a command line parameter for file name, does a regex match on the contents to grab the [assembly: AssemblyVersion...] string, do the modifications that I want (increment the build number, etc.), then write the contents back to the file. This approach works as-is. The next thing I did was in the project that I wanted to use this on, I set up a pre-build command line that is simply the command to execute that BuildIncrementer.exe on this project's AssemblyInfo.cs file. This too works, updating the assembly info as desired. The problem comes when I run the project, it sends an email containing the current version, obtained with Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().Version.ToString(). BUT, the version showing up is the previous version. When my AssemblyInfo.cs says [assembly: AssemblyVersion("1.0.2.49667")], I get sent 1.0.1.45660, which was the previous build. Anyone have any ideas why that might be?

    Read the article

  • Allow selection of readonly files from SaveFileDialog?

    - by Andy Dent
    I'm using Microsoft.Win32.SaveFileDialog in an app where all files are saved as readonly but the user needs to be able to choose existing files. The existing files being replaced are renamed eg: blah.png becomes blah.png-0.bak, blah.png-1.bak and so on. Thus, the language for the OverwritePrompt is inappropriate - we are not allowing them to overwrite files - so I'm setting dlog.OverwritePrompt = false; The initial filenames for the dialog are generated based on document values so for them, it's easy - we rename the candidate file in advance and if the user cancels or chooses a different name, rename it back again. When I delivered the feature, testers swiftly complained because they wanted to repeatedly save files with names different from the agreed workflow (those goofy, playful guys!). I can't figure out a way to do this with the standard dialogs, in a way that will run safely on both XP (for now) and Windows 7. I was hoping to hook into the FileOK event but that is called after I get a warning dialog: |-----------------------------------------| | blah.png | | This file is set to read-only. | | Try again with a different file name. | |-----------------------------------------|

    Read the article

  • VS2010: "Select Resource" dialog & resx location

    - by Dav
    Got two issues with the VS2010 / VS2008 select resource dialog - the one that appears when you want to add an image to a button in a WinForms app for example. Give me my files back! It only seems to see the default project resources file (Properties\Resources.resx), and resx files in project root (say MyProject\famfamfam.resx). We have quite a few icons all over the app, and because some of them come from different icon sets (like famfamfam), and some are related to this project only we'd like to keep them separate. For that same reason (keeping solution neat & tidy) we want to store these extra resource files in the Resources folder (eg. Resources\famfamfam.resx). However, we'd also like to keep using the Select Resource dialog :-) Because it does not see the 'extra' resource files, we're having to select a 'fake' icon now (from the global Resources.resx file) and then manually change that to reference the right icon in .Designer.cs. As you can imagine, this is a pain. Stop modifying my files! Second issue is a bit more annoying. We use the excellent MultiLang add-in for Visual Studio to globalize our app. It stores its translations in MultiLang.resx & MultiLang.XY.resx files in the project root, where XY is a language code, eg. .cs.resx for Czech. These have to be set to No code generation access modifier. What Select Resource seems to be doing is set all .resx files it can find to Internal. Exec summary Is there a way to convince Select Resource dialog to look for extra .resx files anywhere besides the project root? Is there any way to stop it from modifying the access modifier of the resources it does see (other than file a bug with MS)? Thanks in advance for any suggestions!

    Read the article

  • How to make a cell in a datagrid readonly based the content on another cell in SL4?

    - by Nair
    I have two columns, the second column depends on the content on the first column. By default, the second columns is readonly. When I enter some valid value, I want the second column to become editable. To achive this, I created a cell template and cell edit template on the second column where back ground and read only bound to the first column. On load, the first column is null so my second columns comes correctly as read only. Following is Cell Template for second column, where the background color is set by based on the first column. <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Border Background="{Binding FristColumn,Converter={StaticResource ColorConverter}}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SecondColumn, Converter={StaticResource NumberFormatter}}" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0"/> </Grid> </DataTemplate> Following is cell edit template for second column to make it editable <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBox Text="{Binding SecondColumn, Mode=TwoWay, Converter={StaticResource NumberFormatter}}" Margin="0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" IsReadOnly="{Binding FirstColumn, Converter={StaticResource readOnlyConverter}, ConverterParameter=FirstColumn}" Background="{Binding Depend,Converter={StaticResource ColorConverter}, ConverterParameter=FirstColumn}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> With these two in place, when enter the valid value in the first column, I was expecting the second column color to change but it does not. But If I double click on the cell then it behaves properly based on the first cell. Is there some thing I am missing?

    Read the article

  • Something like jQuery's .resizable but without the div's inside

    - by Brendon Muir
    Hi everyone, this is just a quick probe to see if this is technically possible. I'm wanting to enable the resizing of an image in the browser (also within a contentEditable area). Firefox and IE already allow this to be done with their inbuilt handles and it works fine. I'm wanting to implement something for Safari however because it doesn't support this natively. I've had a go with jQuery's resizable method and it does a very good job, however it relies on inserting a bunch of div's along with the image and wrapping that in a big div. This would normally be fine if we weren't concerned with the code generated in the contentEditable area, but we are because it's going to be saved back to the server. I could strip this extra stuff out on save, but I was thinking, is it technically possible to create a resizing script for images that doesn't rely on adding extra div's? Even if we decide to go without handles for now, and just concentrate on detecting when a user is close to the edge of the image, change the mouse cursor to a resizing one, and detect clicks and drags in the 5px's around the edge of the image, is this possible? If it's possible, I'm assuming (hoping) that perhaps it's already been done, but my searching hasn't turned up anything so far. Keen to hear any ideas :)

    Read the article

  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net tree view in SharePoint webpart- Input string error

    - by Faiz
    Hi All, I am facing a very strange issue. I have a SharePoint webpart that displays an asp.net tree view. It takes tree depth from a drop down. To improve performance of the tree view, i am setting the PopulateOnDemand property to true for the last level of the tree depth. For example, if i have a total of 10 levels in the data and the user selects tree depth as 3, then the third level data i set PopulateOnDemand to true. Now comes the strange part. When i click on the + image on the third level, and if there are children under that particular node then call back happens and node gets expanded. But if there no children for that particular node, then click + throws "Input string was not in the correct format" error. I have made sure that there is no server side error. Some things looks to be fishy when internet explorer is trying to bind construct the expanded node. Please let me know if any one faced similar issue or the resolution for the same? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • iPhone static library Clang/LLVM error: non_lazy_symbol_pointers

    - by Bekenn
    After several hours of experimentation, I've managed to reduce the problem to the following example (C++): extern "C" void foo(); struct test { ~test() { } }; void doTest() { test t; // 1 foo(); // 2 } This is being compiled for iOS devices in XCode 4.2, using the provided Clang compiler (Apple LLVM compiler 3.0) and the iOS 5.0 SDK. The project is configured as a Cocoa Touch Static Library, and "Enable Linking With Shared Libraries" is set to No because I'm building an AIR native extension. The function foo is defined in another external library. (In my actual project, this would be any of the C API functions defined by Adobe for use in AIR native extensions.) When attempting to compile this code, I get back the error: FATAL:incompatible feature used: section type non_lazy_symbol_pointers (must specify "-dynamic" to be used) clang: error: assembler command failed with exit code 1 (use -v to see invocation) The error goes away if I comment out either of the lines marked 1 or 2 above, or if I change the build setting "Enable Linking With Shared Libraries" to Yes. (However, if I change the build setting, then I get multiple ld warning: unexpected srelocation type 9 warnings when linking the library into the final project, and the application crashes when running on the device.) The build error also goes away if I remove the destructor from test. So: Is this a bug in Clang? Am I missing some all-important and undocumented build setting? The interaction between an externally-provided function and a struct with a destructor is very peculiar, to say the least.

    Read the article

  • AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

    - by Julian
    Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I programmatically insert rows into a Silverlight DataGrid without binding?

    - by j0rd4n
    I am using a common Silverlight DataGrid to display results from a search. The "schema" of the search can vary from query to query. To accommodate this, I am trying to dynamically populate the DataGrid. I can set explicitly set the columns, but I am having trouble setting the ItemSource. All of the MSDN examples set the ItemSource to a collection with a strong type (e.g. a Custom type with public properties matching the schema). The DataGrid then uses reflection to scour the strong type for public properties that will match the columns. Since my search results are dynamic, I cannot create a strong type to represent what comes back. Can I not just give the DataGrid an arbitrary list of objects so long as the number of objects in each list matches the number of columns? Anyone know if this is possible? I would like to do something similar to this: List<List<object>> myResults = <voodoo that populates the result list> myDataGrid.ItemsSource = myResults;

    Read the article

  • How to implement menuitems that depend on current selection in WPF MVVM explorer-like application

    - by Doug
    I am new to WPF and MVVM, and I am working on an application utilizing both. The application is similar to windows explorer, so consider an app with a main window with menu (ShellViewModel), a tree control (TreeViewModel), and a list control (ListViewModel). I want to implement menu items such as Edit - Delete, which deletes the currently selected item (which may be in the tree or in the list). I am using Josh Smith's RelayCommand, and binding the menuitem to a DeleteItemCommand in the ShellViewModel is easy. It seems like implementing the DeleteItemCommand, however, requires some fairly tight coupling between the ShellViewModel and the two child view models (TreeViewModel and ListViewModel) to keep track of the focus/selection and direct the action to the proper child for implementation. That seems wrong to me, and makes me think I'm missing something. Writing a focus manager and/or selection manager to do the bookkeeping does not seem too hard, and could be done without coupling the classes together. The windowing system is already keeping track of which view has the focus, and it seems like I'd be duplicating code. What I'm not sure about is how I would route the command from the ShellViewModel down to either the ListViewModel or the TreeViewModel to do the actual work without making a mess of the code. Some day, the application will be extended to include more than two children, and I want the shell to be as ignorant of the children as possible to make that extension as painless as possible. Looking at some sample WPF/MVVM applications (Karl Shifflett's CipherText, Josh Smith's MVVM Demo, etc.), I haven't seen any code that does this (or I didn't understand it). Regardless of whether you think my approach is way off base or I'm just missing a small nuance, please share your thoughts and help me get back on track. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • When developing a Microsoft Office Add-In (for Word), is it possible to store hidden metadata inform

    - by leftend
    I am trying to store metadata (basically a unique id) along with each cell of a table in a Word document. Currently, for the add-in I'm developing, I am querying the database, and building a table inside the Word document using the data that is retrieved. I want to be able to save any of the user's edits to the document, and persist it back to the database. My initial thought was to store a unique id along with each cell in the table so that I would be able to tell which records to update. I would also like to store some sort of "isChanged" flag within each cell so that I could tell which cells were changed. I found that I could add the needed information into the "ID" property of the cell - however, that information was not retained if the user saved the document, closed it, and re-opened it. I then tried storing the data by adding a data to the "Fields" collection - but that did not work and threw a runtime error. Here is the code that I tried: object t1 = Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldEmpty; object val = "myValue: " + counter; object preserveFormatting = true; tbl.Cell(i, j).Range.Fields.Add(tbl.Cell(i, j).Range, ref t1, ref val, ref preserveFormatting); This compiles fine, but throws this runtime error "This command is not available". So, is this possible at all? Or am I headed in the wrong direction? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Django + jQuery: Sometimes AJAX, but always DRY?

    - by Justin Myles Holmes
    Let's say I have an app (in Django) for which I want to sometimes (but not always) load content via ajax. An easy example is logging in. When the user logs in, I don't want to refresh the page, just change things around. Yet, if they are already logged in, and then arrive at (or refresh) the same page, I want it to show the same content. So, in the first case, obviously I do some sort of ajax login and load changes to the page accordingly. Easy enough. But what about in the second case? Do I go back through and add {% if user.authenticated %} all over the place? This seems cold, dark, and WET. On the other hand, I can just wrap all the ajaxy stuff in a javascript function, called loggedIn(), and run that if the user is authenticated. But then I'm faced with two http requests instead of one. Also undesirable. So what's the standard solution here?

    Read the article

  • Checkbox does not change when clicked directly on it

    - by Matt McCormick
    I have a table of data and have one checkbox per row for the user to select the item. I'm using the following jQuery code to allow the user to select the item by clicking anywhere in the row: $("tbody tr").click(function() { var checkbox = $(this).find(':checkbox'); checkbox.attr('checked', !checkbox.attr('checked')); }); The problem is if I click directly on the checkbox, nothing happens. ie. if the checkbox is not checked, it remains unchecked. If I click anywhere else in the row, the checkbox changes status. I'm thinking that the jQuery code is causing the action to be performed twice. If I click on the checkbox, the checkbox will change but then the jQuery code for clicking on the row will be performed and the checkbox will be changed back. Not sure if that is actually happening but that is my guess. How can I get a checkbox to be toggled when a user clicks on a row and the same thing if they click directly on the checkbox?

    Read the article

  • LinqKit stack overflow exception using predicate builder

    - by MLynn
    I am writing an application in C# using LINQ and LINQKit. I have a very large database table with company registration numbers in it. I want to do a LINQ query which will produce the equivalent SQL: select * from table1 where regno in('123','456') The 'in' clause may have thousands of terms. First I get the company registration numbers from a field such as Country. I then add all the company registration numbers to a predicate: var predicate = PredicateExtensions.False<table2>(); if (RegNos != null) { foreach (int searchTerm in RegNos) { int temp = searchTerm; predicate = predicate.Or(ec => ec.regno.Equals(temp)); } } On Windows Vista Professional a stack overflow exception occured after 4063 terms were added. On Windows Server 2003 a stack overflow exception occured after about 1000 terms were added. I had to solve this problem quickly for a demo. To solve the problem I used this notation: var predicate = PredicateExtensions.False<table2>(); if (RegNosDistinct != null) { predicate = predicate.Or(ec => RegNos.Contains(ec.regno)); } My questions are: Why does a stack overflow occur using the foreach loop? I take it Windows Server 2003 has a much smaller stack per process\thread than NT\2000\XP\Vista\Windows 7 workstation versions of Windows. Which is the fastest and most correct way to achieve this using LINQ and LINQKit? It was suggested I stop using LINQ and go back to dynamic SQL or ADO.NET but I think using LINQ and LINQKit is far better for maintainability.

    Read the article

  • Looping through recordset with VBA

    - by Robert
    I am trying to assign salespeople (rsSalespeople) to customers (rsCustomers) in a round-robin fashion in the following manner: Navigate to first Customer, assign the first SalesPerson to the Customer. Move to Next Customer. If rsSalesPersons is not at EOF, move to Next SalesPerson; if rsSalesPersons is at EOF, MoveFirst to loop back to the first SalesPerson. Assign this (current) SalesPerson to the (current) Customer. Repeat step 2 until rsCustomers is at EOF (EOF = True, i.e. End-Of-Recordset). It's been awhile since I dealt with VBA, so I'm a bit rusty, but here is what I have come up with, so far: Private Sub Command31_Click() 'On Error GoTo ErrHandler Dim intCustomer As Integer Dim intSalesperson As Integer Dim rsCustomers As DAO.Recordset Dim rsSalespeople As DAO.Recordset Dim strSQL As String strSQL = "SELECT CustomerID, SalespersonID FROM Customers WHERE SalespersonID Is Null" Set rsCustomers = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset(strSQL) strSQL = "SELECT SalespersonID FROM Salespeople" Set rsSalespeople = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset(strSQL) rsCustomers.MoveFirst rsSalespeople.MoveFirst Do While Not rsCustomers.EOF intCustomers = rsCustomers!CustomerID intSalesperson = rsSalespeople!SalespersonID strSQL = "UPDATE Customers SET SalespersonID = " & intSalesperson & " WHERE CustomerID = " & intCustomer DoCmd.RunSQL (strSQL) rsCustomers.MoveNext If Not rsSalespeople.EOF Then rsSalespeople.MoveNext Else rsSalespeople.MoveFirst End If Loop ExitHandler: Set rsCustomers = Nothing Set rsSalespeople = Nothing Exit Sub ErrHandler: MsgBox (Err.Description) Resume ExitHandler End Sub My tables are defined like so: Customers --CustomerID --Name --SalespersonID Salespeople --SalespersonID --Name With ten customers and 5 salespeople, my intended result would like like: CustomerID--Name--SalespersonID 1---A---1 2---B---2 3---C---3 4---D---4 5---E---5 6---F---1 7---G---2 8---H---3 9---I---4 10---J---5 The above code works for the intitial loop through the Salespeople recordset, but errors out when the end of the recordset is found. Regardless of the EOF, it appears it still tries to execute the rsSalespeople.MoveFirst command. Am I not checking for the rsSalespeople.EOF properly? Any ideas to get this code to work?

    Read the article

  • Memory allocation in detached NSThread to load an NSDictionary in background?

    - by mobibob
    I am trying to launch a background thread to retrieve XML data from a web service. I developed it synchronously - without threads, so I know that part works. Now I am ready to have a non-blocking service by spawning a thread to wait for the response and parse. I created an NSAutoreleasePool inside the thread and release it at the end of the parsing. The code to spawn and the thread are as follows: Spawn from main-loop code: . . [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(spawnRequestThread:) toTarget:self withObject:url]; . . Thread (inside 'self'): -(void) spawnRequestThread: (NSURL*) url { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; [self parseContentsOfResponse]; [parser release]; [pool release]; } The method parseContentsOfResponse fills an NSMutableDictionary with the parsed document contents. I would like to avoid moving the data around a lot and allocate it back in the main-loop that spawned the thread rather than making a copy. First, is that possible, and if not, can I simply pass in an allocated pointer from the main thread and allocate with 'dictionaryWithDictionary' method? That just seems so inefficient. Are there perferred designs?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880 881 882 883  | Next Page >