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• Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

  - by Albert Perrien

  Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

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• gridview column popup window

  - by peter

  i want to implement ajax hover menu and i have a grid gridview1 like this <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" OnRowCommand="ScheduleGridView_RowCommand" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Height="60px" Style="text-align: center" Width="869px" EnableViewState="False"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Topic" DataField="Topic" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Moderator" HeaderText="Moderator" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Expert" HeaderText="Expert" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="StartTime" HeaderText="Start"> <HeaderStyle Width="175px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="EndTime" HeaderText="End"> <HeaderStyle Width="175px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Join" ShowHeader="False"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="JoinBT" runat="server" CommandName="Join" Text="Join" Width="52px" /> </ItemTemplate> <HeaderStyle Height="15px" /> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> so i registered <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="asp" %> and added I added this way in code of gridview columns But i am getting fixed Edit/delete link in a new column rather than Hover menu,,Can any one tell me the solution to get hover menu

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• How to accommodate for the iPhone 4 screen resolution?

  - by dontWatchMyProfile

  This is a programming question! Read on before you vote to close! According to Apple, the iPhone 4 has a new and better screen resolution: 3.5-inch (diagonal) widescreen Multi-Touch display 960-by-640-pixel resolution at 326 ppi This little detail affects our apps in a heavy way. Most of the demo apps on the net have one thing in common: They position views in the believe that the screen has a fixed size of 320 x 480 pixels. So what most -if not all- developers do is: They designed everything in such a way, that a touchable area is -for example- 50 x 50 pixels big. Just enough to tap it. Things have been positioned relative to the upper left, to reach a specific position on screen - let's say the center, or somewhere at the bottom. Edit: It seems Apple has integrated an switch that allows to tell if an app is highRes or not. Nice. When we develop high-resolution apps, they probably won't work on older devices. And if they do, they would suffer a lot from 4-times the size of any image, having to scale them down in memory.

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• Remotely connecting two non-local computers with sockets

  - by Velizar Hristov

  This question seems like something very obvious to ask, and yet I spent more than an hour trying to find an answer. First I host and wait for someone to connect. Then, from another instance of the application, I try to connect with a socket - for the constructor, I use InetAddress, port. The port is always right, and everything works if I use "localhost" for the address. However, if I type my IP, I get an IOException. I even sent the application to someone else, gave him my IP, and it didn't work. The aim of the application is to connect two computers. It's in Java. Here is the relevant code. Server: ServerSocket serverSocket = new ServerSocket(port); Socket clientSocket = serverSocket.accept(); Client: InetAddress a = InetAddress.getByName(ip); Socket s = new Socket(a, port); I don't get past that. Obviously, the values of int port and String ip are taken from text fields. Edit: the purpose of my application is to connect two non-local computers.

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• Custom Alignment and Backgrounds Through Greasemonkey

  - by Jivec

  I'm trying to implement something in greasemonkey and it is giving me a fair bit of trouble as I can't get it to work. I frequently use Wolfram Alpha (http://wolframalpha.com) for a lot of things. They have recently updated the home page with a new style. There are settings that you can edit on this page (http://www.wolframalpha.com/homesettings.html) As you would expect when you clear cookies you loose these settings. What I would like to do is have a greasemonky script that sets the background to what ever I like (which will stay also regardless of the state of your cookies). It would also be cool if this background was displayed the whole way through Wolfram Alpha (ie when you make queries too eg. http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=stack+overflow ) The other thing I'm trying to implement but I'm struggling is to force the results pages to be left aligned so that the browser window can be smaller. If anyone could help me with this it would be appreciated, I have tried to do it my self but I'm unsure how to get it to work.

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• Trying to calculate large numbers in Python with gmpy. Python keeps crashing?

  - by Ryan Peschel

  I was recommended to use gmpy to assist with calculating large numbers efficiently. Before I was just using python and my script ran for a day or two and then ran out of memory (not sure how that happened because my program's memory usage should basically be constant throughout.. maybe a memory leak?) Anyways, I keep getting this weird error after running my program for a couple seconds: mp_allocate< 545275904->545275904 > Fatal Python error: mp_allocate failure This application has requested the Runtime to terminate it in an unusual way. Please contact the application's support team for more information. Also, python crashes and Windows 7 gives me the generic python.exe has stopped working dialog. This wasn't happening with using standard python integers. Now that I switch to gmpy I am getting this error just seconds in to running my script. I thought gmpy was specialized in dealing with large number arithmetic? For reference, here is a sample program that produces the error: import gmpy2 p = gmpy2.xmpz(3000000000) s = gmpy2.xmpz(2) M = s**p for x in range(p): s = (s * s) % M I have 10 gigs of RAM and without gmpy this script ran for days without running out of memory (still not sure how that happened considering s never really gets larger.. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT: Forgot to mention I am using Python 3.2

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• Getting the data inside the C# web service from Jsonified string

  - by gnomixa

  In my JS I use Jquery's $ajax functions to call the web service and send the jsonified data to it. The data is in the following format: var countries = { "1A": { id: "1A", name: "Andorra" }, "2B": { id: 2B name: "Belgium" }, ..etc }; var jsonData = JSON.stringify({ data: data }); //then $ajax is called and it makes the call to the c# web service On the c# side the web service needs to unpack this data, currently it comes in as string[][] data type. How do I convert it to the format so I can refer to the properties such as .id and .name? Assuming I have a class called Sample with these properties? Thanks! EDIT: Here is my JS code: var jsonData = JSON.stringify(countries); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/MyService.asmx/Foo', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: jsonData, success: function (msg) { alert(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, status) { switch (status) { case 404: alert('File not found'); break; case 500: alert('Server error'); break; case 0: alert('Request aborted'); break; default: alert('Unknown error ' + status); } } }); inside c# web service I have: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Data; using System.Collections; using System.IO; using System.Web.Script.Services; [WebMethod] [ScriptMethod] public string Foo(IDictionary<string, Country> countries) { return "success"; }

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• Cannot set property X of undefined - programatically created element

  - by Dave

  I am working on a class to create a fairly complex custom element. I want to be able to define element attributes (mainly CSS) as I am creating the elements. I came up with the below function to quickly set attrs for me given an input array: // Sample array structure of apply_settings //var _button_div = { // syle : { // position: 'absolute', // padding : '2px', // right : 0, // top : 0 // } //}; function __apply_settings(__el,apply_settings){ try{ for(settingKey in apply_settings){ __setting = apply_settings[settingKey]; if(typeof(__setting)=='string'){ __el[settingKey] = __setting; }else{ for(i in __setting){ __el[settingKey][i] = apply_settings[settingKey][i]; } } } }catch(ex){ alert(ex + " " + __el); } } The function works fine except here: function __draw_top(){ var containerDiv = document.createElement('div'); var buttonDiv = document.createElement('div'); __apply_settings(containerDiv,this.settings.top_bar); if(global_settings.show_x) buttonDiv.appendChild(__create_img(global_settings.images.close)); containerDiv.appendChild(buttonDiv); __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); return containerDiv; } The specific section that is failing is __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); with the error "Cannot set property 'position' of undefined". So naturally, I am assuming that buttonDiv is undefined.. I put alert(ex + " " + __el); in __apply_settings() to verify what I was working with. Surprisingly enough, the element is a div. Is there any reason why this function would be working for containerDiv and not buttonDiv? Any help would be greatly appreciated :) {EDIT} http://jsfiddle.net/Us8Zw/2/

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• Creating AST for shared and local variables

  - by Rizwan Abbasi

  Here is my grammar grammar simulator; options { language = Java; output = AST; ASTLabelType=CommonTree; } //imaginary tokens tokens{ SHARED; LOCALS; BOOL; RANGE; ARRAY; } parse : declaration+ ; declaration :variables ; variables : locals ; locals : (bool | range | array) ; bool :ID 'in' '[' ID ',' ID ']' ('init' ID)? -> ^(BOOL ID ID ID ID?) ; range : ID 'in' '[' INT '..' INT ']' ('init' INT)? -> ^(RANGE ID INT INT INT?) ; array :ID 'in' 'array' 'of' '[' INT '..' INT ']' ('init' INT)? -> ^(ARRAY ID INT INT INT?) ; ID : (('a'..'z' | 'A'..'Z'|'_')('a'..'z' | 'A'..'Z'|'0'..'9'|'_'))* ; INT : ('0'..'9')+ ; WHITESPACE : ('\t' | ' ' | '\r' | '\n' | '\u000C')+ {$channel = HIDDEN;} ; INPUT flag in [down, up] init down pc in [0..7] init 0 CA in array of [0..5] init 0 AST It is having a small problem. Variables (bool, range or array) can be of two abstract types 1. locals (each object will have it's own variable) 2. shared (think of static in java, same for all object) Now the requirements are changed. I want the user to input like this NEW INPUT domains: upDown [up,down] possibleStates [0-7] booleans [true,false] locals: pc in possibleStates init 0 flag in upDown init down flag1 in upDown init down map in array of booleans init false shared: pcs in possibleStates init 0 flag in upDown init down flag1 in upDown init down maps in array of booleans init false Again, all the variables can be of two types (of any domain sepecified) 1. Local 2. Shared In Domains: upDown [up,down] possibleStates [0-7] upDown, up, down and possibleStates are of type ID (ID is defined in my above grammar), 0 and 7 are of type INT Can any body help me how to convert my current grammar to meet new specifications.

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• Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

  - by aaronls

  I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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• JSF don't find component in view root with the form id

  - by kenzokujpn

  I have a t:inputFileUpload inside the form, in the html of the display page the id of this component is form:inputFile but when I tried to get the component from the view root using "form:inputFile" the return is null, but when the "form:" is removed the return is the component. The component don't set the value in my managed bean, someone have this problem? EDIT: <h:form id="form" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <t:inputFileUpload id="inputFile" size="40" value="#{managedBean.inputFile}"/> </h:form> In the managed bean: private UploadedFile inputFile; with the gets and sets provided by Eclipse. //This method scans the view root and returns the component with the id passed as parameter findComponentInRoot("form:inputFile"); This returns null, but when I use: //This method scans the view root and returns the component with the id passed as parameter findComponentInRoot("inputFile"); The return is the component I'm looking for, but when I use the View Source in Internet Explorer the id of this component is "form:inputFile". I don't know if this is related, but the component don't set the value in my managed bean and it's strange the fact that the id of the component is different from the HTML source. I'm using JSF 1.2 Mojarra. Someone else has this problem? Or know why this happens?

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• Saving owned/child objects in Hibernate

  - by maxdj

  I'm having a hard time wrapping my head around the way hibernate objects work. Here's a little chunk of what my model looks like: JobOpening: @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.EAGER,cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name="jobOpening_questionSet", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="jobOpenings_id"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="questionSets_id") ) @IndexColumn(name="question_sets_idx",base=0,nullable=false) public List<QuestionSet> getQuestionSets() { return questionSets; } QuestionSet: @ManyToMany(mappedBy="questionSets",fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<JobOpening> getJobOpenings() { return jobOpenings; } @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @IndexColumn(name="questions_idx",base=0) @JoinColumn(name="questionset_id",nullable=false) public List<FormQuestion> getQuestions() { return questions; } FormQuestion: @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="questionset_id", insertable=false, updatable=false, nullable=false) @OnDelete(action=OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) public QuestionSet getQuestionSet() { return questionSet; } Now how would I go about, say, modifying a question in the question set, or changing which jobs a questionset is associated with? For example, to edit a question in a questionset, I imagine I should be able to just get the question via its id, change some values, and merge() it back in, but this doesn't work. I'm using Hibernate from Spring (appfuse), usually as detached objects.

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• Consecutive Tables in Latex

  - by Tim

  Hi, I wonder how to place several tables consecutively in Latex? The page with the text right before the first table has a little space but not enough for the first table, so the first table is to be placed on the top of the next page, although I use "\begin{table}[!h]" for it. The second table does not fit into the place in the rest of the page of the first table, so I think I might use longtable for it to span the rest of the page and the top of the next page. Similarly, I use longtable for the third table. The latex code is as follows: ... % some text \begin{table}[!h] \caption{Table 1. \label{tab:1}} \begin{center} \begin{tabular}{c c} ... \end{tabular} \end{center} \end{table} \begin{center} \begin{longtable}{ c c } \caption{Table 2. \label{tab:2}}\\ ... \end{longtable} \end{center} \begin{center} \begin{longtable}{ c c } \caption{Table 3. \label{tab:3}}\\ ... \end{longtable} \end{center} ... % some text In the compiled pdf file it turns out that the order of the tables is messed up. The first table is placed behind the second and third one, and the second one spans the page with text before the tables and the next page with the third one following it. I would like to know how I can make the three tables appear consecutively in order, and there are no space left blank between them and between the text and the tables? Or if what I hope is not possible, what is the best strategy then? Thanks and regards! EDIT: Removing [!h] does not make improvement, the first table is still behind the second and the third.

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• ASP.NET web setup class is not defined

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I've got an ASP.NET application that I installed by creating a web setup. I ran into a problem where ASP.NET wasn't registered with IIS so it gave me a "installation was interrupted" message that told me exactly nothing. Anyhow, I finally got it installed, and I can access the main page, but it's telling me that my class isn't defined. The dll is in the same directory as the Default.aspx page Here's the main error information Compiler Error Message: BC30002: Type 'SIValidator.SIValidator' is not defined. Source Error: Line 4: Line 5: <script runat="server"> Line 6: Dim validator As New SIValidator.SIValidator() Line 7: Protected table As New arrayList() Line 8: Protected countyByDistrict As New Hashtable() Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.1873; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.1433 Am I doing it wrong? Is there some obscure setting that may not be set? I'm completely new to this VS deployment deal, so I'm trying to learn the right terms to ask the right questions... Thanks for any help edit: As an aside, when I searched google 5 minutes later, this entry came up as the first result. Would have been awesome if there was an answer for me then :P

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• Why this code generates different numbers?

  - by frbry

  Hello, I have this function that creates a unique number for hard-disk and CPU combination. DWORD hw_hash() { char drv[4]; char szNameBuffer[256]; DWORD dwHddUnique; DWORD dwProcessorUnique; DWORD dwUniqueKey; char *sysDrive = getenv ("SystemDrive"); strcpy(drv, sysDrive); drv[2] = '\\'; drv[3] = 0; GetVolumeInformation(drv, szNameBuffer, 256, &dwHddUnique, NULL, NULL, NULL, NULL); SYSTEM_INFO si; GetSystemInfo(&si); dwProcessorUnique = si.dwProcessorType + si.wProcessorArchitecture + si.wProcessorRevision; dwUniqueKey = dwProcessorUnique + dwHddUnique; return dwUniqueKey; } It returns different numbers if I format my hard-disk and install a new Windows. Any ideas, why? Thank you. Edit: OK, Got it: This function returns the volume serial number that the operating system assigns when a hard disk is formatted. To programmatically obtain the hard disk's serial number that the manufacturer assigns, use the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) Win32_PhysicalMedia property SerialNumber. I should do more research before posting my problems online. Sorry to bother you, let's keep this here in case anybody else can need it.

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• Two column layout, navigation div on the right, solution from previous thread didn't seem to work

  - by Tom

  I tried the solution from this thread, but I must be missing something because it doesn't work: <div style="float:left;margin-right:200px"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum.</p> </div> <div style="float:right;width:200px"> <p>navigation</p> </div> It works when the text in the content div (the left one) is short, but when it's long then the div takes up the whole width of the browser and the margin is there, but the right div is pushed below the first one nevertheless. What am I missing? Edit: The goal is to have a fix sized navigation column on the right of the browser window and the left div should get all the space left by the right navigation column (liquid layout).

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• Any teams out there using TypeMock? Is it worth the hefty price tag?

  - by dferraro

  Hi, I hope this question is not 'controversial' - I'm just basically asking - has anyone here purchased TypeMock and been happy (or unhappy) with the results? We are a small dev shop of only 12 developers including the 2 dev managers. We've been using NMock so far but there are limitations. I have done research and started playing with TypeMock and I love it. It's super clean syntax and lets you basically mock everything, which is great for legacy code. The problem is - how do I justify to my boss spending 800-1200$ per license for an API which has 4-5 competitors that are completly free? 800-1200$ is how much Infragistrics or Telerik cost per license - and there sure as hell isn't 4-5 open source comparable UI frameworks... Which is why I find it a bit overpriced, albeit an awesome library... Any opinions / experiences are greatly appreciated. EDIT: after finding MOQ I thought I fell in love - until I found out that it's not fully supported in VB.NET because VB lacks lambda sub routines =(. Is anyone using MOQ for VB.NET? The problem is we are a mixed shop - we use C# for our CRM development and VB for everything else. Any guidence is greatly appreciated again

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• 2D Histogram in R: Converting from Count to Frequency within a Column

  - by Jac

  Would appreciate help with generating a 2D histogram of frequencies, where frequencies are calculated within a column. My main issue: converting from counts to column based frequency. Here's my starting code: # expected packages library(ggplot2) library(plyr) # generate example data corresponding to expected data input x_data = sample(101:200,10000, replace = TRUE) y_data = sample(1:100,10000, replace = TRUE) my_set = data.frame(x_data,y_data) # define x and y interval cut points x_seq = seq(100,200,10) y_seq = seq(0,100,10) # label samples as belonging within x and y intervals my_set$x_interval = cut(my_set$x_data,x_seq) my_set$y_interval = cut(my_set$y_data,y_seq) # determine count for each x,y block xy_df = ddply(my_set, c("x_interval","y_interval"),"nrow") # still need to convert for use with dplyr # convert from count to frequency based on formula: freq = count/sum(count in given x interval) ################ TRYING TO FIGURE OUT ################# # plot results fig_count <- ggplot(xy_df, aes(x = x_interval, y = y_interval)) + geom_tile(aes(fill = nrow)) # count fig_freq <- ggplot(xy_df, aes(x = x_interval, y = y_interval)) + geom_tile(aes(fill = freq)) # frequency I would appreciate any help in how to calculate the frequency within a column. Thanks! jac EDIT: I think the solution will require the following steps 1) Calculate and store overall counts for each x-interval factor 2) Divide the individual bin count by its corresponding x-interval factor count to obtain frequency. Not sure how to carry this out though. .

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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• LINQ to Sql: Insert instead of Update

  - by Christina Mayers

  I am stuck with this problems for a long time now. Everything I try to do is insert a row in my DB if it's new information - if not update the existing one. I've updated many entities in my life before - but what's wrong with this code is beyond me (probably something pretty basic) I guess I can't see the wood for the trees... private Models.databaseDataContext db = new Models.databaseDataContext(); internal void StoreInformations(IEnumerable<EntityType> iEnumerable) { foreach (EntityType item in iEnumerable) { EntityType type = db.EntityType.Where(t => t.Room == item.Room).FirstOrDefault(); if (type == null) { db.EntityType.InsertOnSubmit(item); } else { type.Date = item.Date; type.LastUpdate = DateTime.Now(); type.End = item.End; } } } internal void Save() { db.SubmitChanges(); } Edit: just checked the ChangeSet, there are no updates only inserts. For now I've settled with foreach (EntityType item in iEnumerable) { EntityType type = db.EntityType.Where(t => t.Room == item.Room).FirstOrDefault(); if (type != null) { db.Exams.DeleteOnSubmit(type); } db.EntityType.InsertOnSubmit(item); } but I'd love to do updates and lose these unnecessary delete statements.

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• Rails: generating URLs for actions in JSON response

  - by Chris Butler

  In a view I am generating an HTML canvas of figures based on model data in an app. In the view I am preloading JSON model data in the page like this (to avoid an initial request back): <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> <% ActiveRecord::Base.include_root_in_json = false -%> var objects = <%= @objects.to_json(:include => :other_objects) %>; ... Based on mouse (or touch) interaction I want to redirect to other parts of my app that are model specific (such as view, edit, delete, etc.). Rather than hard code the URLs in my JavaScript I want to generate them from Rails (which means it always adapts the latest routes). It seems like I have one of three options: Add an empty attr to the model that the controller fills in with the appropriate URL (we don't want to use routes in the model) before the JSON is generated Generate custom JSON where I add the different URLs manually Generate the URL as a template from Rails and replace the IDs in JavaScript as appropriate I am starting to lean towards #1 for ease of implementation and maintainability. Are there any other options that I am missing? Is #1 not the best? Thanks! Chris

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

  - by Slightly Frustrated

  Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

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• How to show a form field ONLY if another is selected in JavaScript or jQuery?

  - by Sam

  I have a form, like so: <form action="" method="post"> <select name="pageType"> <option value="main">Main Page</option> <option value="sub">Sub Page</option> <option value="sub-sub">Sub-Sub Page</option> </select> <br /> <label>Choose Sub Sub Name:</label> <input type="text" name="sub-sub-name" /> <br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="GO!" /> </form> What I would like to achive is for this text field (and it's label): <label>Choose Sub Sub Name:</label> <input type="text" name="sub-sub-name" /> to only appear if the 3rd option (sub sub page) is selected from the drop down and not show up otherwise. How can this be done with either javascript or the jquery framework? EDIT by the way, it would be nice if this can be achieved without the page needing to refresh and losing previously submitted form data. I know form data can still be kept using variables that store the values even on page refresh, but I was hoping for that effect that I see on a lot of sites where the additional text area (or other form element) just appears without page refresh.

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• User Management: Managing users in user-defined "groups", database schema and logistics

  - by Kevin Brown

  I'm a noob, development wise and logistically-wise. I'm developing a site that lets people take a test... My client wants the ability for a user with the roll/privledge "admin" (a step below a super-admin) to be allowed to create users and only see/edit the users that they create... The users created in that "category" or group need some information that their superior provides. For example, I log in as a "manager", I have the ability to invite people to take the test, and manage those people. Before adding those people, I will have filled out a short survey about myself... Right now, the users that are invited will be asked some of the same questions as the manager. I'd like to cut down the redundancy by using the information put into the database by the manager and apply it to the invited users. How do I set up my database to work with this criterion? I'm a little confused about how to do this! Let me know if I can add more details... (This is a mysql and php app)

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• Packet fragmentation when sending data via SSLStream

  - by Ive

  When using an SSLStream to send a 'large' chunk of data (1 meg) to a (already authenticated) client, the packet fragmentation / dissasembly I'm seeing is FAR greater than when using a normal NetworkStream. Using an async read on the client (i.e. BeginRead()), the ReadCallback is repeatedly called with exactly the same size chunk of data up until the final packet (the remainder of the data). With the data I'm sending (it's a zip file), the segments happen to be 16363 bytes long. Note: My receive buffer is much bigger than this and changing it's size has no effect I understand that SSL encrypts data in chunks no bigger than 18Kb, but since SSL sits on top of TCP, I wouldn't think that the number of SSL chunks would have any relevance to the TCP packet fragmentation? Essentially, the data is taking about 20 times longer to be fully read by the client than with a standard NetworkStream (both on localhost!) What am I missing? EDIT: I'm beginning to suspect that the receive (or send) buffer size of an SSLStream is limited. Even if I use synchronous reads (i.e. SSLStream.Read()), no more data ever becomes available, regardless of how long I wait before attempting to read. This would be the same behavior as if I were to limit the receive buffer to 16363 bytes. Setting the Underlying NetworkStream's SendBufferSize (on the server), and ReceiveBufferSize (on the client) has no effect.

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