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• Further filter SQL results

  - by eric

  I've got a query that returns a proper result set, using SQL 2005. It is as follows: select case when convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) = '1969 Q4' then '2009 Q2' else convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) end as [Quarter], bugtypes.bugtypename, count(bug.bugid) as [Total] from bug left outer join bugtypes on bug.crntbugtypeid = bugtypes.bugtypeid and bug.projectid = bugtypes.projectid where (bug.projectid = 44 and bug.currentowner in (-1000000031,-1000000045) and bug.crntplatformid in (42,37,25,14)) or (bug.projectid = 44 and bug.currentowner in (select memberid from groupmembers where projectid = 44 and groupid in (87,88)) and bug.crntplatformid in (42,37,25,14)) group by case when convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) = '1969 Q4' then '2009 Q2' else convert(varchar(4),datepart(yyyy,bug.datecreated),101)+ ' Q' +convert(varchar(2),datepart(qq,bug.datecreated),101) end, bugtypes.bugtypename order by 1,3 desc It produces a nicely grouped list of years and quarters, an associated descriptor, and a count of incidents in descending count order. What I'd like to do is further filter this so it shows only the 10 most submitted incidents per quarter. What I'm struggling with is how to take this result set and achieve that.

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• Unit test approach for generic classes/methods

  - by Greg

  Hi, What's the recommended way to cover off unit testing of generic classes/methods? For example (referring to my example code below). Would it be a case of have 2 or 3 times the tests to cover testing the methods with a few different types of TKey, TNode classes? Or is just one class enough? public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } // Constructors protected TopologyBase() { Nodes = new Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>>(); Relationships = new List<RelationshipBase<TKey>>(); } // Methods public TNode CreateNode(TKey key) { var node = new TNode {Key = key}; Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); return node; } public void CreateRelationship(NodeBase<TKey> parent, NodeBase<TKey> child) { . . .

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• Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

  - by insta

  Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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• Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

  - by Knarf Navillus

  Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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• Newbie - eclipse workflow (PHP development)

  - by engil

  Hi all - this is a bit of a newbie question but hoping I can get some guidance. I've been playing around with Eclipse for a couple months yet I'm still not completely comfortable with my setup and it seems like every time I install it to a new system I end up with different results. What I'm hoping to achieve is (I think) fairly standard. In my environment I'd like SVN (currently using Subclipse), FTP support (currently using Aptana plugin), debugging (going to use XDebug) and all the usual bells and whistles of development (code completion, refactoring, etc.) My biggest current issue is how to set up my environment to support both a 'development' and 'production' server. Optimally I would be able to work directly against the dev server (Eclipse on my Vista desktop against the VM Ubuntu dev server) and then push to production server (shared hosting). I'd prefer to work directly against the dev server (with no local project files, just using the Connections provided by Aptana) but I'm guessing this won't allow for code-completoin or all the other bells and whistles provided for development. Any thoughts? Kind of an open ended question, but maybe this could be an opportunity for some of you with a great deal of experience using Eclipse to describe your setups so people like me can get some insight into good ways to get set up.

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• Error Expected Loop VBScript

  - by Yoko21

  I have a script that opens up an excel file if the password provided is correct. If its wrong, it prompts a message. It works perfectly when I add a loop at the end. However, the problem is whenever the password is wrong the script won't stop asking for the password because of the loop. What I want is the script to quit/close if the password is wrong. I tried to remove the loop and replaced it with "wscript.quit" but it always prompts the message "expected loop". Here is the code I made. password = "pass" do ask=inputbox ("Please enter password:","DProject") select case ask case password answer=true Set xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") xl.Application.Workbooks.Open "C:\Users\test1\Desktop\test.xlsx" xl.Application.Visible = True Set xl = Nothing wscript.quit end select answer=false x=msgbox("Password incorrect... Aborting") loop until answer=true Is it possible to put a message like that counts when aborting. like "Aborting in 3.... 2... 1".

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• Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

  - by fizzer

  I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

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• Android designing an app to keep me logged into a wifi access point

  - by MrGibbage

  At the gym where I work out, they have an open wifi access point. The way it is set up, once you "connect", you have to navigate to a web page (it is a 1.1.X.X ip address) and click the "I agree" button, after presumably reading the user agreement. The problem is, they have it set up to log you out once an hour, which always happens in the middle of my workout. I have the SSID remembered, so it connects automatically when I come in range, but I get an android notification that further action is needed to fully connect. What I was wondering is if there a work around so that I don't have to click-through every hour? I was thinking of writing an app that could detect when I was in range, or when "half-connected", and then have it somehow complete the registration process. Perhaps this will have to be done by loading the web page in memory and then somehow clicking the "I agree" button. What I would like help with is: 1) what is the terminology involved here? What state is the connection in when I am connected, but I haven't clicked through? What other connection states may apply? If I knew that, I might just be able to research this and come up with a solution. Are these different states "detectable"? It seems like it is since I get a notification that I need to complete the registration process when I am "half-connected". 2) I know there are plugins for desktop browsers that can click buttons (like the keepass plugins, which will log you into a site). How could I replicate this in Android? Ideally I would like to do it internally, in memory, rather than firing up a browser. Possible? Comments? Is my understanding and thought process sound here, or am I overlooking something?

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• How to get a UIAlertView's result??

  - by cocos2dbeginner

  Hi, I implemented the gamekit. All works fine now. But if the user presses on send the data will instantly send to the other iphone/ipod/ipad and it will instantly written. So now i wanted to implemenr a confirm screen for the receiver. In my receiveData method (from the gamekit) i have an array. If the user presses yes the array will be written into a file.if not it wont be written into a file. #pragma mark - #pragma mark - GKreceiveData - (void) receiveData:(NSData *)data fromPeer:(NSString *)peer inSession: (GKSession *)session context:(void *)context { NSDictionary *dict = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithData:data]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Incoming Set" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ wants to send you a Set named: \n\n %@",[session displayNameForPeer:peer], [dict valueForKey:@"SetName"]] delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" otherButtonTitles:@"OK", nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { // the user clicked one of the OK/Cancel buttons if (buttonIndex == 0) { //NSLog(@"ok"); //this should happen if the user presses on ok on the alertview. [dataArray addObject:dict]; //i can't acess "dict" } else { //NSLog(@"cancel"); } } Do you see the problem?? What can I do??

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• ASP.Net MVC and Windows 7 404 error

  - by Paul Rivers

  O.K. Stupid question..... I sepnt nearly a day getting an MVC site working, and then I published it. After that, the hell began. I'm using Windows 7, Visual Studio 2008 and MVC. I published it and first the Default.aspx wouldn't come up. I gave up on playing with that for a few and just did the easy thing a typed in default.aspx. I'll fix that problem later. So, I clicked on one of my navigation buttons which prior to this worked just fine in the internal development IIS, and I get a 404 error. I spent two days surfing the Microsoft support forums and every other support forum I can find. No fix. So, I tried something a little different. Just to see if I screwed up. I created a new TestMVC application. Set the output to a website on the local IIS. Compiled and after typing in the default.aspx (it was set as the startup file in the project) I then clicked on the About button on the base MVC application. And what do I get? 404. I know this is new, folks, but this is crazy. What is it about this process that would take this much effort to get it right, especially since it works on the test server.

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• Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

  - by misaxi

  Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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• How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

  - by Roberto Sebestyen

  I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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• compile c problem in emacs (ubuntu)

  - by user565739

  I wrote a very simple program like: ( sorry, I typed the code in the right way, but the display is wired. How could I fix it?) #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { int i; for ( i = 0; i <= 10; i++ ) { printf( "%d hello!\n", i); } return 0; } Usually, I compile c program in terminal with the command cc -o xxx xxx.c So in Emacs, when I type M-x compile, I change make -k to cc -o. But I got error like cc: argument to '-o' is missing What's the problem? If I use make, then I still got error No targets specified and no makefiles found. Finally, if the above problem is fixed, how could I define a custom hotkey for compile? I have already know how to do something like global-set-key [f8] 'goto-line But I don't know to set a hotkey for an action only for c-mode.

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• create CLLocationCoordinate2D from array

  - by shani

  I have a plist with dictionary of array's with coordinates (stored as strings). I want to create a CLLocationCoordinate2D from every array and crate an overlay for the map. I did that - NSString *thePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Roots" ofType:@"plist"]; NSDictionary *pointsDic = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:thePath]; NSArray *pointsArray = [NSArray arrayWithArray:[pointsDic objectForKey:@"roade1"]]; CLLocationCoordinate2D pointsToUse[256]; for(int i = 0; i < 256; i++) { CGPoint p = CGPointFromString([pointsArray objectAtIndex:i]); pointsToUse[i] = CLLocationCoordinate2DMake(p.x,p.y); NSLog(@"coord %f",pointsToUse [i].longitude); NSLog(@"coord %f",pointsToUse [i].latitude); } MKPolyline *myPolyline = [MKPolyline polylineWithCoordinates:pointsToUse count:256]; [[self mv] addOverlay:myPolyline]; but the app is crashing without any error. (BTW when i remove the addOverLay method the app does not crash). I have 2 questions- What am i doing wrong? I have tried to set the pointsArray count as the argument for the CLLocationCoordinate2D like that - CLLocationCoordinate2D pointsToUse[pointsArray count]; And i am getting an error. How can i set the CLLocationCoordinate2D dynamically ? Thanks for any help. Shani

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• Problem Binding to a Brush Property in WPF

  - by Krisc

  Working in WPF, writing a custom user control. I am trying to change the background property of the Border element when I change the value of a property of the class. Right now I am working on simply binding it to a DP, though if there is a better way I am open to suggestions. Here is the XAML for the UserControl <UserControl x:Class="MyProject.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:js="clr-namespace:MyProject" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Name="MyControlRootLayout" Background="Transparent" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" Cursor="Hand"> <Border x:Name="RootBorder" Background="{Binding Path=CoreBackground, ElementName=MyControlRootLayout}" > </Border> </UserControl> And the code... public partial class MyControl : UserControl { public static DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(MyControl)); public static DependencyProperty CoreBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CoreBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(MyControl)); public MyControl() { CoreBackground = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 255, 245, 104)); InitializeComponent(); Margin = new Thickness(5); } public Brush CoreBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty, value); } } public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } private set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } } Instead, the background comes out as transparent.

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• android listview order changed when called notifyDataSetChanged

  - by 9nix00

  hi,all. when I use notifyDataSetChanged(), the listview display order will be change . like this 3 2 1 when current activy was created. but when I change the data. it will be 1 2 3 I don't want the order changed and i dont understand why its happening. This is a piece of code from my adapter class public static class ItemAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private String[] mData; private LayoutInflater mInflater; // I called this method to change data public void setEditText(int position, final String item) { mData[position] = item; notifyDataSetChanged(); } } I change data at some dialog like this builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(ct); builder.setTitle(R.string.pickStatus) .setView(edBuffer) .setPositiveButton(R.string.save, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick( DialogInterface dialog, int id) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub canPop = true; final String tmp = edBuffer.getText().toString(); KbonezLog.e(String.format( "set into key %d", key)); //use mData key to set value setEditText(key, tmp); dialog.dismiss(); }})

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• Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

  - by Kevin Buchan

  Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

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• Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

  - by Rob

  I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

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• Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

  - by user635524

  My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

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• Android - How to circular zoom/magnify part of image?

  - by IZI_Shadow_IZI

  I am trying to allow the user to touch the image and then basically a cirular magnifier will show that will allow the user to better select a certain area on the image. When the user releases the touch the magnified portion will dissapear. This is used on several photo editing apps and I am trying to implement my own version of it. The code I have below does magnify a circular portion of the imageview but does not delete or clear the zoom once I release my finger. I currently set a bitmap to a canvas using canvas = new Canvas(bitMap); and then set the imageview using takenPhoto.setImageBitmap(bitMap); I am not sure if I am going about it the right way. The onTouch code is below: zoomPos = new PointF(0,0); takenPhoto.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener() { @Override public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { int action = event.getAction(); switch (action) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: zoomPos.x = event.getX(); zoomPos.y = event.getY(); matrix.reset(); matrix.postScale(2f, 2f, zoomPos.x, zoomPos.y); shader.setLocalMatrix(matrix); canvas.drawCircle(zoomPos.x, zoomPos.y, 20, shaderPaint); takenPhoto.invalidate(); break; case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: zoomPos.x = event.getX(); zoomPos.y = event.getY(); matrix.reset(); matrix.postScale(2f, 2f, zoomPos.x, zoomPos.y); canvas.drawCircle(zoomPos.x, zoomPos.y, 20, shaderPaint); takenPhoto.invalidate(); break; case MotionEvent.ACTION_UP: //clear zoom here? break; case MotionEvent.ACTION_CANCEL: break; default: break; } return true; } });

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• How would you update 100+ variables if something is changed in a different class?

  - by N. Lucas

  I have a class Grid which produces a graph paper like grid on in the drawing area. I then have 5 other classes for different shapes to draw with; Line, Polygon, Ellipse, Curve, Arc Now, these 5 classes use an instance of Grid because Grid has a resolution and a scale. Inside Grid I have: public function set resolution(x:Number):void { _gap = (modBy10(x) / 10); _scale = (modBy10(x) / (this.resolution * _scale)); draw(); } public function get resolution():Number { return (_gap * 10); } public function set scale(x:Number):void { _scale = (this.resolution / x); } public function get scale():Number { return _scale; } /**/ public function scaleLength(x:Number):Number { return (x * this.scale); } public function scaleLengthDown(x:Number):Number { return (x / this.scale); } public function scaleArea(x:Number):Number { return (x / Math.pow(this.scale, 2)); } I'm just lost for a solution on how to update every instance of my 5 drawing classes when Grid is changed. For instance, Polygon is made up of multiple instances of Line, Line(length, angle) where "length" is in either in, ft, cm, or m. If the user wishes to change the scale from say 10ft per 100px resolution.. Is there an easier way than re-drawing every Line inside Polygon?

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• Cannot serialize this List<T> extension

  - by Jaxidian

  I'm trying to push a subset of a collection of data through WCF to be consumed by WCF - think paged data. As such, I want this collection to have one page's worth of data as well as a total number of results. I figured this should be trivial by creating a custom object that extends List. However, everything I do results in my TotalNumber property coming across as 0. All of the data gets serialized/deserialized just fine but that single integer won't come across at all. Here's my first attempt that failed: [Serializable] public class PartialList<T> : List<T> { public PartialList() { } public PartialList(IEnumerable<T> collection) : base(collection) { } [DataMember] public int UnpartialTotalCount { get; set; } And here's my second attempt that failed in the exact same way: [Serializable] public class PartialList<T> : List<T>, ISerializable { public PartialList() { } public PartialList(IEnumerable<T> collection) : base(collection) { } [DataMember] public int UnpartialTotalCount { get; set; } protected PartialList(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { UnpartialTotalCount = info.GetInt32("UnpartialTotalCount"); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("UnpartialTotalCount", UnpartialTotalCount); } } What's the deal here??

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• C++ STL question related to insert iterators and sets

  - by rshepherd

  #include #include #include #include using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In typical STL style the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

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• Python server open all ports

  - by user1670178

  I am trying to open all ports using this code, why can I not create a loop to perform this function? http://www.kellbot.com/2010/02/tutorial-writing-a-tcp-server-in-python/ #!/usr/bin/python # This is server.py file ##server.py from socket import * #import the socket library n=1025 while n<1050: ##let's set up some constants HOST = '' #we are the host PORT = n #arbitrary port not currently in use ADDR = (HOST,PORT) #we need a tuple for the address BUFSIZE = 4096 #reasonably sized buffer for data ## now we create a new socket object (serv) ## see the python docs for more information on the socket types/flags serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) ##bind our socket to the address serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) ##bind our socket to the address serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow print 'listening...' n=n+1 conn,addr = serv.accept() #accept the connection print '...connected!' conn.send('TEST') conn.close() How do I make this work so that I can specify input range and have the server open all ports up to 65535? #!/usr/bin/python # This is server.py file from socket import * #import the socket library startingPort=input("\nPlease enter starting port: ") startingPort=int(startingPort) #print startingPort def connection(): ## let's set up some constants HOST = '' #we are the host PORT = startingPort #arbitrary port not currently in use ADDR = (HOST,PORT) #we need a tuple for the address BUFSIZE = 4096 #reasonably sized buffer for data def socketObject(): ## now we create a new socket object (serv) serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) def bind(): ## bind our socket to the address serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) serv.bind((ADDR)) #the double parens are to create a tuple with one element serv.listen(5) #5 is the maximum number of queued connections we'll allow serv = socket( AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM) print 'listening...' def accept(): conn,addr = serv.accept() #accept the connection print '...connected!' conn.send('TEST') def close(): conn.close() ## Main while startingPort<65535: connection() socketObject() bind() accept() startingPort=startingPort+1

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• Retrieve POST data without knowing exact number of fields

  - by James

  Hi all! I'm creating an online poll from scratch which will be held in a database. I'm working on getting a system set up so someone can create a new poll. I will be having the user fill out a simple HTML form with the Questions and Answers (there may be several answers). The user will be able to add multiple questions and multiple answers for each question. As the total number of questions and answers will be decided by the user, I need to create some clever PHP to cater for this - however many there are. When dealing with a static number of questions, it's simple. But I'm having trouble thinking of a way to get all the POST data into individual PHP variables so I can process them. I was thinking of using a foreach loop, anyone got any ideas? Sorry for the long winded description! If anyone needs anything clarified, I'd be happy to do so. My problem is that I can't get my head around how to deal with the POST values when I don't know exactly which element of the array will contain what. If things were static with a set number of questions and answers, I'd know $_POST[0] was Question1, etc Thank you! =)

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