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• A weird crash...

  - by Nima

  Hi, I have a piece of code that runs in debug mode in VS2008, C++. The problem is that when I am debugging the code line by line, at a very weird point of the code, it crashes and says: debug assertion faild. Expression: _BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead-nBlockUse) The crash point is on the first closed curly bracket (after mesh-edges[e].needsUpdate=false;) I don't understand why on a curly bracket? does that make sense to you guys? Can anybody help me understanding what is going on..? for(int e=0; e<mesh->edges.size(); e++) { if(mesh->edges[e].valid && mesh->edges[e].v[0]>=0 && mesh->edges[e].v[1]>=0 && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[0]].writable && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[1]].writable) { //update v_hat and its corresponding error DecEdge Current = DecEdge(e); pair<Point, float> ppf = computeVhat(e); Current.v_hat = ppf.first; Current.error = ppf.second; edgeSoup.push(Current); mesh->edges[e].needsUpdate=false; } }

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• Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

  - by Jon Swanson

  The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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• Create bookmark into 1st column of MSWord table

  - by MikeD

  Hello All, does anyone have a VBA code to create a bookmark into the first column of an MSWord table? Let's say I have a table looking like this .-----.----------------. . ref . Title . .-----.----------------. . 1 . Title 1 . .-----.----------------. . 2 . Title 2 . .-----.----------------. . foo . Title 3 . .-----.----------------. . bar . Title 4 . .-----.----------------. and I want a VBA code fragment that creates a bookmark named "T1_1" on the string "1" in row 2 / column 1, and bookmarks named "T1_2", "T1_foo" and "T1_bar" on the strings in the other cells of column 1. I don't mind to hardcode the prefix "T1" (and substitute for other tables each time). I don't mind to select tables before running the macro, I don't mind giving those cells a special format, and I don't mind to get a superfluous bookmark "T1_ref" from the first row - so the code doesn't need to distinguish between table title and table row. Thanks a lot in advance

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• jQuery: On form input focus, show div. hide div on blur (with a caveat)

  - by Lyon

  Hi, I am able to make a hidden div show/hide when an input field is in focus/blur using the following code: $('#example').focus(function() { $('div.example').css('display','block'); }).blur(function() { $('div.example').fadeOut('medium'); }); The problem is I want div.example to continue to be visible when the user is interacting within this div. E.g. click, or highlighting the text etc. within div.example. However div.example fades out whenever the input is not in focus and the mouse is interacting with elements within the div. The html code for the input and div elements is as follows: <p> <label for="example">Text:</label> <input id="example" name="example" type="text" maxlength="100" /> <div class="example">Some text...<br /><br />More text...</div> </p> How do I make it such that the div.example only disappears when the user clicks outside the input and/or div.example? I tried experimenting with focusin/focusout to check the focus on <p> but that didn't work either. Would it matter that div.example is positioned directly below the input field #example using jQuery? The code that does that is as follows: var fieldExample = $('#example'); $('div.example').css("position","absolute"); $('div.example').css("left", fieldExample.offset().left); $('div.example').css("top", fieldExample.offset().top + fieldExample.outerHeight()); My apologies if this has been asked before, but the many show/hide div questions I read does not cover this. Thanks for your advice. :)

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• ASP.NET: How to get same validators control to be both client-side and server-side

  - by harrije

  Hello, For the ASP.NET validator controls, I want to use both client-side validation for the user experience and server-side validation to guard against hackers. ASP.NET documentation leads me to believe that if EnableClientScript="True" then there will be no server-side validation if client-side validation is possible for the user agent. To get server-side validation, the documentation says use EnableClientScript="False", which bypasses client-side validation altogether. Am I misunderstanding how the validator controls work? I ask because it seems obvious that many developers would want both client and server side validation together, and I find it hard to believe both together is not possible with one of the standard validation controls. If I am understanding the ASP.NET documentation correctly, then I can find only two options: Use two validator controls exactly the same except for their ID and EnableClientScript properties. Obviously ugly for maintaining two controls almost the same. Write some code behind to check if postback then invoke the Validate method on the validator group. Why write code behind if there a way to be automatic from the control? Is there a way to do so using a single validator control with no code behind? Thanks in advance for your input.

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• using xpath get the correct value in selectName

  - by Sangeeta

  Below I have written the code. I need help to get the right value in selectName. I am new to XPath. Basically with this code I am trying to achieve if employeeName = Chris I need to return 23549 to the calling function. Please help. Part of the code: public static string getEmployeeeID(string employeeName) { Cache cache = HttpContext.Current.Cache; string cacheNameEmployee = employeeName + "Tech"; if (cache[cacheNameEpm] == null) { XPathDocument doc = new XPathDocument(HttpContext.Current.Request.MapPath("inc/xml/" + SiteManager.Site.ToString() + "TechToolTip.xml")); XPathNavigator navigator = doc.CreateNavigator(); string selectName = "/Technologies/Technology[FieldName='" + fieldName + "']/EpmId"; XPathNodeIterator nodes = navigator.Select(selectName); if (nodes.Count > 0) { if (nodes.Current.Name.Equals("FieldName")) //nodes.Current.MoveToParent(); //nodes.Current.MoveToParent(); //nodes.Current.MoveToChild("//EpmId"); cache.Add(cacheNameEpm, nodes.Current.Value, null, DateTime.Now + new TimeSpan(4, 0, 0), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration, CacheItemPriority.Default, null); } } return cache[cacheNameEpm] as string; } XML file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Employees> <Employee> <EName>Chris</EName> <ID>23556</ID> </Employee> <Employee> <EName>CBailey</EName> <ID>22222</ID> </Employee> <Employee> <EName>Meghan</EName> <ID>12345</ID> </Employee> </Employees> PLEASE NOTE:This XML file has 100 nodes. I just put 1 to indicate the structure.

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• LEFT OUTER JOIN with a WHERE clause

  - by Wesley

  I have two tables. indRailType contains a list of the names paired with an ID value that I use in other tables to indicate the rail type. WO_BreakerRail contains a date column and a rail code colume that corresponds to the same code in indRailType and some other data. There's a row in WO_BreakerRail for any activity on each rail type, for every date. So I could have 3 rows dated for 3/19/2010, each row indicates a different rail code, and what happened. When I use the following LEFT OUTER JOIN, I get a table with all the types of rail, with nulls in the rows where nothing happened on the 19th. Now, this is only working because I only have one date represented in my WO_BreakerRail table right now, the 19th. When I add more rows with different dates, things will go haywire. This is my SQL statement, which right now gives me exactly the results I want: SELECT WO_BreakerRail.ID, indRailType.RailType, WO_BreakerRail.CreatedPieces, WO_BreakerRail.OutsideSource, WO_BreakerRail.Charged, WO_BreakerRail.Rejected, WO_BreakerRail.RejectedToCrop FROM indRailType LEFT OUTER JOIN WO_BreakerRail ON indRailType.RailCode = WO_BreakerRail.RailCode Now, when I add in a WHERE WO_BreakerRail.Date = @Date clause I lose all the rows in the JOIN which nothing happened. I don't want that. From reading up, it sounds like a FULL OUTER JOIN is what I want, but SQL Server Compact Edition doesn't support FULL OUTER JOINs. Is there a way around this, or am I looking for something else entirely?

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• cakephp phone number validation

  - by hellosheikh

  i am new to cakephp 2.x so i dont know how to do this .. i want to login the user from his email address and phone number..what my intention is if the number in database is this "12345" and the user is trying to login through this number "+12345" he can be login into the system.. i have written a code but i dont know how can i use this or to adjust my code within the auth component as the auth component is autometically logging the user .. here is my controller public function beforeFilter() { parent::beforeFilter(); $this->Auth->authenticate = array( 'Authenticate.Cookie' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'userModel' => 'User', 'scope' => array('User.active' => 1) ), 'Authenticate.MultiColumn' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'columns' => array('email', 'mobileNo'), 'userModel' => 'User', ) ); } public function login() { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); }else{ $this->layout='logindefault'; $this->set('title_for_layout', 'Account Login'); /*$this->Auth->logout(); $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('Auth.User'); */ if ($this->request->is('post')) { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { if ($this->Session->check('Auth.User')){ $this->_setCookie($this->Auth->user('idUser')); $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); } }else { $this->Session->setFlash('Incorrect Email/Password Combination'); } }} } here is the code which i am trying to add .. $mobileNo='+123456789'; if (strpos($mobileNo,'+') !== false) { $mobileNo=str_replace("+", "",$mobileNo); } ?

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• Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

  - by Alex Worden

  Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

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• Why does my Perl CGI script cause a 500 internal server error?

  - by Nitish

  I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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• Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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• how to multithread on a python server

  - by user3732790

  HELP please i have this code import socket from threading import * import time HOST = '' # Symbolic name meaning all available interfaces PORT = 8888 # Arbitrary non-privileged port s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) print ('Socket created') s.bind((HOST, PORT)) print ('Socket bind complete') s.listen(10) print ('Socket now listening') def listen(conn): odata = "" end = 'end' while end == 'end': data = conn.recv(1024) if data != odata: odata = data print(data) if data == b'end': end = "" print("conection ended") conn.close() while True: time.sleep(1) conn, addr = s.accept() print ('Connected with ' + addr[0] + ':' + str(addr[1])) Thread.start_new_thread(listen,(conn)) and i would like it so that when ever a person comes onto the server it has its own thread. but i can't get it to work please someone help me. :_( here is the error code: Socket created Socket bind complete Socket now listening Connected with 127.0.0.1:61475 Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Users\Myles\Desktop\test recever - Copy.py", line 29, in <module> Thread.start_new_thread(listen,(conn)) AttributeError: type object 'Thread' has no attribute 'start_new_thread' i am on python version 3.4.0 and here is the users code: import socket #for sockets import time s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) print('Socket Created') host = 'localhost' port = 8888 remote_ip = socket.gethostbyname( host ) print('Ip address of ' + host + ' is ' + remote_ip) #Connect to remote server s.connect((remote_ip , port)) print ('Socket Connected to ' + host + ' on ip ' + remote_ip) while True: message = input("> ") #Set the whole string s.send(message.encode('utf-8')) print ('Message send successfully') data = s.recv(1024) print(data) s.close

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• Dynamically add items to Tkinter Canvas

  - by nick369

  I'm attempting to learn Tkinter with the goal of being able to create a 'real-time' scope to plot data. As a test, I'm trying to draw a polygon on the canvas every time the 'draw' button is pressed. The triangle position is randomized. I have two problems: There is a triangle on the canvas as soon as the program starts, why and how do I fix this? It doesn't draw any triangles when I press the button, at least none that I can see. CODE from Tkinter import * from random import randint class App: def __init__(self,master): #frame = Frame(master) #frame.pack(side = LEFT) self.plotspc = Canvas(master,height = 100, width = 200, bg = "white") self.plotspc.grid(row=0,column = 2, rowspan = 5) self.button = Button(master, text = "Quit", fg = "red", \ command = master.quit) self.button.grid(row=0,column=0) self.drawbutton = Button(master, text = "Draw", command = \ self.pt([50,50])) self.drawbutton.grid(row = 0, column = 1) def pt(self, coords): coords[0] = coords[0] + randint(-20,20) coords[1] = coords[1] + randint(-20,20) x = (0,5,10) y = (0,10,0) xp = [coords[0] + xv for xv in x] yp = [coords[1] + yv for yv in y] ptf = zip(xp,yp) self.plotspc.create_polygon(*ptf) if _name_ == "_main_": root = Tk() app = App(root) root.mainloop() The code is formatting strangely within the code tags, I have no idea how to fix this.

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• Android: Error trying to edit button text after thread sleep

  - by Vass

  (programming Android in Eclipse) I am trying to set up a delay in changing the text in a button. I am getting errors only after there is a delay and the text needs to be changed. Here is the simplified code without a while loop: final Button button_target = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button_target); Thread textChange = new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run(){ button_target.setText("fog"); try{ Thread.sleep(3000); }catch(InterruptedException e){} } }); textChange.start(); And now here is the code where a change of text on the button is required after the sleep which now causes and error and exit (forced): final Button button_target = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button_target); Thread textChange = new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run(){ button_target.setText("cat"); try{ Thread.sleep(3000); }catch(InterruptedException e){} button_target.setText("dog"); } }); textChange.start(); what am I doing to cause the error? Is there another method that I should do to be able to invoke a sleep or delay to the thread so that a text change operation can be performed? (the actual code has a while loop but I believe this form puts the error in highlight)

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• Javascript problem with location.href.

  - by Patrick

  Hello! I have a textbox and whenever the user presses a key it's checked to see if the user pressed enter. If the enter key is pressed, i want to add all the info in the textbox and transfer the user to a different url. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function checkEnter(e){ //e is event object passed from function invocation var characterCode; if(e && e.which){ //if which property of event object is supported (NN4) e = e; characterCode = e.which; //character code is contained in NN4's which property } else{ e = event; characterCode = e.keyCode; //character code is contained in IE's keyCode property } if (characterCode == 13) { //if generated character code is equal to ascii 13 (if enter key) var searchLink = '/Search/?Keywords=' + document.getElementById('<%= searchBox.ClientID %>').value; transferUser(searchLink); return false; } else{ return true; } } function transferUser(url) { window.location.href = url; window.location.replace(url); } </script> Search: <input name="ctl00$searchBox" type="text" id="ctl00_searchBox" class="header_line_search_box_textbox" onKeyPress="checkEnter(event);" /> I have tried every possible combination, but nothing happens. The site just refreshes itself. I also need somehow to convert the text from the user to html safe, must like the HttpUtility.EncodeUrl in aspx.

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• Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

  - by Acoustic

  I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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• Getting a UDP socket program in Python to accept messages from a Syslog client?

  - by Elvar

  I'm trying to write a Syslog listener and so far so good on getting it to accept incoming messages through TCP but I also want UDP to function. This is the UDP server code I'm using, which works using a python client app. I also have another app which also works just using the python client app. # Server program # UDP VERSION from socket import * # Set the socket parameters host = "localhost" port = 514 buf = 1024 addr = (host,port) # Create socket and bind to address UDPSock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM) UDPSock.bind(addr) # Receive messages while 1: data,addr = UDPSock.recvfrom(buf) if not data: print "Client has exited!" break else: print "\nReceived message '", data,"'" # Close socket UDPSock.close() Using this code I can send to the server and have it display the code. # Client program from socket import * # Set the socket parameters host = "localhost" port = 514 buf = 1024 addr = (host,port) # Create socket UDPSock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM) def_msg = "===Enter message to send to server==="; print "\n",def_msg # Send messages while (1): data = raw_input('>> ') if not data: break else: if(UDPSock.sendto(data,addr)): print "Sending message '",data,"'....." # Close socket UDPSock.close() I have tried the Kiwi Syslog Message Generator and Snare to send syslog messages to the UDP server and nothing comes up. Could someone help me understand?

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• One big executable or many small DLL's?

  - by Patrick

  Over the years my application has grown from 1MB to 25MB and I expect it to grow further to 40, 50 MB. I don't use DLL's, but put everything in this one big executable. Having one big executable has certain advantages: Installing my application at the customer is really: copy and run. Upgrades can be easily zipped and sent to the customer There is no risk of having conflicting DLL's (where the customer has version X of the EXE, but version Y of the DLL) The big disadvantage of the big EXE is that linking times seem to grow exponentially. Additional problem is that a part of the code (let's say about 40%) is shared with another application. Again, the advantages are that: There is no risk on having a mix of incorrect DLL versions Every developer can make changes on the common code which speeds up developments. But again, this has a serious impact on compilation times (everyone compiles the common code again on his PC) and on linking times. The question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2387908/grouping-dlls-for-use-in-executable mentions the possibility of mixing DLL's in one executable, but it looks like this still requires you to link all functions manually in your application (using LoadLibrary, GetProcAddress, ...). What is your opinion on executable sizes, the use of DLL's and the best 'balance' between easy deployment and easy/fast development?

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• Php index page utitlizing an idea for a superswitch...

  - by Matt

  I dont know if this is a great idea...or a crap one. But I was thinking I may use one page to display all my pages using includes. Here is what my index.php would look like...on the functions include there is a function called "superSwitch" which will determine what requested page will be included....for instance if I do a get ?a=a it will goto the function superSwitch(a) superSwitch will take it and associate it with (login.php) then respond with such... here is the code for the index.php...please let me know if this makes sense and might work, or should I just stick to long blocks of code (which is why I am trying this because I hate long pages full of code...) of course as you can tell it is not actually including anything yet...the print is for debugging purposes. :) Thanks, Matt <?php //includes Functions include_once('inc/func.inc.php'); //set superget variable $superget = @$_GET['a']; //check if superget is set or null if (!$superget) { echo "Nothing Requested :)"; } else { //sanitizes the superget request $supergetr = supergetSanitize($superget) //uses the result "good" or "nogood" to determine what happens if ( $supergetr == "good" ) { //pulls superSwitch value of the request $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } //if the sanitize is nogood else { //the superSwitch is instructed to respond with a 404 page $superget = "404" $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } } ?>

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• Project euler problem 45

  - by Peter

  Hi, I'm not yet a skilled programmer but I thought this was an interesting problem and I thought I'd give it a go. Triangle, pentagonal, and hexagonal numbers are generated by the following formulae: Triangle T_(n)=n(n+1)/2 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ... Pentagonal P_(n)=n(3n-1)/2 1, 5, 12, 22, 35, ... Hexagonal H_(n)=n(2n-1) 1, 6, 15, 28, 45, ... It can be verified that T_(285) = P_(165) = H_(143) = 40755. Find the next triangle number that is also pentagonal and hexagonal. Is the task description. I know that Hexagonal numbers are a subset of triangle numbers which means that you only have to find a number where Hn=Pn. But I can't seem to get my code to work. I only know java language which is why I'm having trouble finding a solution on the net womewhere. Anyway hope someone can help. Here's my code public class NextNumber { public NextNumber() { next(); } public void next() { int n = 144; int i = 165; int p = i * (3 * i - 1) / 2; int h = n * (2 * n - 1); while(p!=h) { n++; h = n * (2 * n - 1); if (h == p) { System.out.println("the next triangular number is" + h); } else { while (h > p) { i++; p = i * (3 * i - 1) / 2; } if (h == p) { System.out.println("the next triangular number is" + h); break; } else if (p > h) { System.out.println("bummer"); } } } } } I realize it's probably a very slow and ineffecient code but that doesn't concern me much at this point I only care about finding the next number even if it would take my computer years :) . Peter

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• create an independent hidden process

  - by Jessica

  I'm creating an application with its main window hidden by using the following code: STARTUPINFO siStartupInfo; PROCESS_INFORMATION piProcessInfo; memset(&siStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(siStartupInfo)); memset(&piProcessInfo, 0, sizeof(piProcessInfo)); siStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(siStartupInfo); siStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW | STARTF_FORCEOFFFEEDBACK | STARTF_USESTDHANDLES; siStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; if(CreateProcess(MyApplication, "", 0, 0, FALSE, 0, 0, 0, &siStartupInfo, &piProcessInfo) == FALSE) { // blah return 0; } Everything works correctly except my main application (the one calling this code) window loses focus when I open the new program. I tried lowering the priority of the new process but the focus problem is still there. Is there anyway to avoid this? furthermore, is there any way to create another process without using CreateProcess (or any of the API's that call CreateProcess like ShellExecute)? My guess is that my app is losing focus because it was given to the new process, even when it's hidden. To those of you curious out there that will certainly ask the usual "why do you want to do this", my answer is because I have a watchdog process that cannot be a service and it gets started whenever I open my main application. Satisfied? Thanks for the help. Code will be appreciated. Jess.

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• Java enums in generic type

  - by Marcin Cylke

  Hi, I'd like to create a generic enum-based mapper for IBatis. I'm doing this with the below code. This does have compile time errors, which I don't know how to fix. Maybe my solution is just plain wrong (keep in mind the use of IBatis), in such case please suggest something better. Any help appreciated. What I want to achieve is to define subsequent mappers as: public class XEnumTypeHandler extends CommonEnumTypeHandler<X> { } The current code: public class CommonEnumTypeHandler<T extends Enum> implements TypeHandlerCallback { public void setParameter(ParameterSetter ps, Object o) throws SQLException { if (o.getClass().isAssignableFrom(**T**)) { ps.setString(((**T**) o).value().toUpperCase()); } else throw new SQLException("Excpected ParameterType object than: " + o); } public Object getResult(ResultGetter rs) throws SQLException { Object o = valueOf(rs.getString()); if (o == null) throw new SQLException("Unknown parameter type: " + rs.getString()); return o; } public Object valueOf(String s) { for (T pt : T.**values()**) { if (pt.**value()**.equalsIgnoreCase(s)) return pt; } return null; } } I've added error markings to the above code, the error messages are in order: T cannot be resolved The method value() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T

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• Downloading a file from a PHP page in C#

  - by FoxyShadoww

  Okay, we have a PHP script that creates an download link from a file and we want to download that file via C#. This works fine with progress etc but when the PHP page gives an error the program downloads the error page and saves it as the requested file. Here is the code we have atm: PHP Code: <?php $path = 'upload/test.rar'; if (file_exists($path)) { $mm_type="application/octet-stream"; header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Cache-Control: public"); header("Content-Description: File Transfer"); header("Content-Type: " . $mm_type); header("Content-Length: " .(string)(filesize($path)) ); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.basename($path).'"'); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); readfile($path); exit(); } else { print 'Sorry, we could not find requested download file.'; } ?> C# Code: private void btnDownload_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string url = "http://***.com/download.php"; WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.DownloadFileCompleted += new AsyncCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadFileCompleted); client.DownloadProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(ProgressChanged); client.DownloadFileAsync(new Uri(url), @"c:\temp\test.rar"); } private void ProgressChanged(object sender, DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { progressBar.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; } void client_DownloadFileCompleted(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(print); }

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• Linq is returning too many results when joined

  - by KallDrexx

  In my schema I have two database tables. relationships and relationship_memberships. I am attempting to retrieve all the entries from the relationship table that have a specific member in it, thus having to join it with the relationship_memberships table. I have the following method in my business object: public IList<DBMappings.relationships> GetRelationshipsByObjectId(int objId) { var results = from r in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() join m in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() on r.rel_id equals m.rel_id where m.obj_id == objId select r; return results.ToList<DBMappings.relationships>(); } _Context is my generic repository using code based on the code outlined here. The problem is I have 3 records in the relationships table, and 3 records in the memberships table, each membership tied to a different relationship. 2 membership records have an obj_id value of 2 and the other is 3. I am trying to retrieve a list of all relationships related to object #2. When this linq runs, _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() returns the correct 3 records and _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() returns 3 records. However, when the results.ToList() executes, the resulting list has 2 issues: 1) The resulting list contains 6 records, all of type DBMappings.relationships(). Upon further inspection there are 2 for each real relationship record, both are an exact copy of each other. 2) All relationships are returned, even if m.obj_id == 3, even though objId variable is correctly passed in as 2. Can anyone see what's going on because I've spent 2 days looking at this code and I am unable to understand what is wrong. I have joins in other linq queries that seem to be working great, and my unit tests show that they are still working, so I must be doing something wrong with this. It seems like I need an extra pair of eyes on this one :)

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• Apply CSS style to anchor problem

  - by Jake

  Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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