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• Membership Provider users in different tables

  - by Mike

  I have an existing database with users and administrators in different tables. I am rewriting an existing website in ASP.net and need to decide - should I merge the two tables into one users table and just have one provider, OR leave the tables separated and have two different providers. Administrators, they need the ability to create, edit and delete users. I am thinking that the membership/profile provider way of editing users (i.e. System.Web.Profile.ProfileBase pro = System.Web.Profile.ProfileBase.Create("User1"); pro.Initialize("User1", true); txtEmail.Text = pro["SecondaryEmail"].ToString(); is the best way to edit users because the provider handles it? You cannot use this if you have two separate providers? (because they are both looking at different tables). Or should I make a whole lot of methods to edit the users for the administrators? UPDATE: Making a custom membership provider look at both tables is fine, but then what about the profile provider? The profile provider GetPropertyValues and SetPropertyValues would be going on the same set of properties for users and admins. Mike

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• Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

  - by awe

  I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

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• Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

  - by Matt Davis

  I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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• Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

  - by Dmitry

  Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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• Are Parameters really enough to prevent Sql injections?

  - by Rune Grimstad

  I've been preaching both to my colleagues and here on SO about the goodness of using parameters in SQL queries, especially in .NET applications. I've even gone so far as to promise them as giving immunity against SQL injection attacks. But I'm starting to wonder if this really is true. Are there any known SQL injection attacks that will be successfull against a parameterized query? Can you for example send a string that causes a buffer overflow on the server? There are of course other considerations to make to ensure that a web application is safe (like sanitizing user input and all that stuff) but now I am thinking of SQL injections. I'm especially interested in attacks against MsSQL 2005 and 2008 since they are my primary databases, but all databases are interesting. Edit: To clarify what I mean by parameters and parameterized queries. By using parameters I mean using "variables" instead of building the sql query in a string. So instead of doing this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = 'a name' We do this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = @Name and then set the value of the @Name parameter on the query / command object.

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• Imap cyrillic mail

  - by atredis

  I use the mailsystem.NET library to put a message in my inbox. This is my code: Imap4Client imap = new Imap4Client(); imap.ConnectSsl("imap.gmail.com", 993); imap.Login(mylogin, mypassword); Mailbox mails; mails = imap.SelectMailbox("INBOX"); Message commomMessage = new Message(); commomMessage.From = new Address("someAddress", "someName"); commomMessage.To.Add(mylogin, "myName"); commomMessage.Subject = "someSubject"; commomMessage.BodyHtml.Text = "?????? ???";//or some cyrillic text commomMessage.Date = DateTime.Now; mails.Append(commomMessage); When I open my gmail inbox, I see this mail, but the body contains ????? ??? rather than "?????? ???". If commomMessage.BodyHtml.Text contains only Latin characters, there is no problem.

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• C# string.Split() Matching Both Slashes?

  - by Sheep Slapper

  I've got a .NET 3.5 web application written in C# doing some URL rewriting that includes a file path, and I'm running into a problem. When I call string.Split('/') it matches both '/' and '\' characters. Is that... supposed to happen? I assumed that it would notice that the ASCII values were different and skip it, but it appears that I'm wrong. // url = 'someserver.com/user/token/files\subdir\file.jpg string[] buffer = url.Split('/'); The above code gives a string[] with 6 elements in it... which seems counter intuitive. Is there a way to force Split() to match ONLY the forward slash? Right now I'm lucky, since the offending slashes are at the end of the URL, I can just concatenate the rest of the elements in the string[], but it's a lot of work for what we're doing, and not a great solution to the underlying problem. Anyone run into this before? Have a simple answer? I appreciate it!

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• How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

  - by drs9222

  I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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• Two different seeds producing the same "random" sequence

  - by Ruud Lenders

  Maybe there is a very logic explanation for this, but I just can't seem to understand why the seeds 0 and 2,147,483,647 produce the same "random" sequence, using .NET's Random Class (System). Quick code example: ushort len = 8; Random r0 = new Random(0), r1 = new Random(1), r2 = new Random(int.MaxValue); //2,147,483,647 byte[] b0 = new byte[len], b1 = new byte[len], b2 = new byte[len]; r0.NextBytes(b0); r1.NextBytes(b1); r2.NextBytes(b2); for (int i = 0; i < len; i++) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("{0}\t\t{1}\t\t{2}", b0[i], b1[i], b2[i]); } Console.ReadLine(); Output: 26 70 26 12 208 12 70 134 76 111 130 111 93 64 93 117 151 115 228 228 228 216 163 216 As you can see, the first and the third sequence are the same. Can someone please explain this to me?

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• Need events to execute on timer events, metronome precision.

  - by user295734

  I setup a timer to call an event in my application. The problme is the event execution is being skewed by other windows operations. Ex. openning and window, loading a webpage. I need the event to excute exactly on time, every time. When i first set up the app, used a sound file, like a metronome to listen to the even firing, in a steady state, its firing right on, but as soon do something in the windows environment, the sound fires slower, then sort of sppeds up a bit to catch up. So i added a logging method to the event to ctahc the timer ticks. From that data, it appears that the timer is not being affected by the windows app, but my application event calls are being affected. I figured this out by checking the datetime.now in the event, and if i set it to 250 milliseconds, which is 4 clicks per second. You get data something like below. (sec):(ms) 1:000 1:250 1:500 1:750 2:000 2:250 2:500 2:750 3:000 3:250 3:500 3:750 (lets say i execute some windows event)(time will skew) 4:122 4:388 4:600 4:876 (stop doing what i was doing in windows) (going to shorten the data for simplicit, my list was 30sec long) 5:124 5:268 5:500 5:750 (you would se the time go back the same milliseconds it was at the begining) 6:000 6:250 6:500 6:750 7:000 7:250 7:500 7:750 So i'm thinking the timer continues to fire on the same millisecond every time, but its the event that is being skewed to fire off time by other windows operations. Its not a huge skew, but for what i need to accomplish, its unacceptable. Is there anyhting i can do in .NET, hoping to use XAML/WPF application, thats will correct the skewing of events? thx.

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• Display gridview in new window

  - by Ricardo Deano

  Hello all. Just a bit of advice needed really in terms of how I should handle my current scenario: I have a web page that searches for products/category information the results of which are at present displayed in a gridview on the same page. However, said gridview is a bit of a beast and as such, I would like to have a page that the user searches for, a button is pressed and the subsequent gridview is displayed in a new window. Ultimately, I would like the user to be able to make multiple searches so that new windows can have multiple gridviews containing different data sets. My current thinking is to create session variables that can be pulled through onto 'the gridview page'. Having said that, I'm not sure that would work if multiple searches are created? I am also thinking I might be able to create said 'gridview window' using javascript but my concern here is the potential loss of functionality of the gridview i.e. paging, sorting, editing, etc. Does anyone have any thoughts or theories on this? What would be "best practise"? Any thoughts greatly appreciated and taken on board. PS: This is being developed in .net, using c# and LINQ. PPS: I'm a noob so be gentle!!

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• NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

  - by Seth Petry-Johnson

  What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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• how to read http response soap headers from web service response in proxy class

  - by Fabricio

  I'm having some problems with one webservice that i'm working with. I generated a proxy class with wsdl.exe that comes with .net framework. But that webservice return a header that isnt not mapped by the wsdl. I must map the header sop because it contains some properties that i have to read and work with. how can i read the soap's header collection? Ex.: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/ws/2009/01/WBS_Session-2.0.xsd"> <Session> <SessionId>545784545</SessionId> <SequenceNumber>1</SequenceNumber> <SecurityToken>asd7a87sda89sd45as4d5a4</SecurityToken> </Session> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/2009/04/TAM/TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS_2.0"> <statusDoProcesso> <codigoDoStatus>P</codigoDoStatus> </statusDoProcesso> </TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> I need to read the SOAP:HEADER - Session.

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• Using Rx to synchronize asynchronous events

  - by Martin Liversage

  I want to put Reactive Extensions for .NET (Rx) to good use and would like to get some input on doing some basic tasks. To illustrate what I'm trying to do I have a contrived example where I have an external component with asyncronous events: class Component { public void BeginStart() { ... } public event EventHandler Started; } The component is started by calling BeginStart(). This method returns immediately, and later, when the component has completed startup, the Started event fires. I want to create a synchronous start method by wrapping the component and wait until the Started event is fired. This is what I've come up with so far: class ComponentWrapper { readonly Component component = new Component(); void StartComponent() { var componentStarted = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>(this.component, "Started"); using (var startedEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false)) using (componentStarted.Take(1).Subscribe(e => { startedEvent.Set(); })) { this.componenet.BeginStart(); startedEvent.WaitOne(); } } } I would like to get rid of the ManualResetEvent, and I expect that Rx has a solution. But how?

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• Sharing session variables from http and https versio

  - by tangurena

  I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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• Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

  - by manu08

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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• Why doesn't my Unity DependencyResolver work on shared hosting but works locally?

  - by frennky

  I'm trying to deploy ASP.NET MVC 3 application wich uses Unity as a IoC container. Application works fine on local server, but when deployed it throws an exception: No parameterless constructor defined for this object. And this is thrown for a controller that should get some repository injected by my Unity DependencyResolver. I've installed Unity with NuGet so it should be referenced directly, and I've checked that it gets copied to bin folder. Edit: Here's the stack trace: [MissingMethodException: No parameterless constructor defined for this object.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +98 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +241 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +69 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerActivator.Create(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +67 [InvalidOperationException: An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'nBlog.Controllers.HomeController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerActivator.Create(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +182 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +80 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +74 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +196 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClass6.<BeginProcessRequest>b__2() +49 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClassb`1.<ProcessInApplicationTrust>b__a() +13 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.<GetCallInAppTrustThunk>b__0(Action f) +7 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.ProcessInApplicationTrust(Action action) +22 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.ProcessInApplicationTrust(Func`1 func) +124 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +98 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +50 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, Object extraData) +16 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8841400 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +18 Anyone have an idea what might be the problem?

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• Send document to printer from web page

  - by FiveTools

  I have a webpage that activates a print job on a printer. This works in the localhost environment but does not work when the application is deployed to the webserver. I'm using the PrintDocument class from the .net System.Drawing.Print namespace. I'm now assuming the printer has to be available to the application on the remote server? Any suggestions on how I would get this to work? PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument(); PaperSource ps = new PaperSource(); pd.DefaultPageSettings.PaperSize = new System.Drawing.Printing.PaperSize("Custom", 1180, 850); pd.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler (this.pd_PrintPage); // Set your printer's name. Obtain from // System's Printer Dialog Box. pd.PrinterSettings.PrinterName = "Okidata ML 321 Turbo/D (IBM)"; //PrintPreviewDialog dlgPrintPvw = new PrintPreviewDialog(); //dlgPrintPvw.Document = pd; //dlgPrintPvw.Focus(); //dlgPrintPvw.ShowDialog(); pd.Print();

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• Flex HttpService POST limited to 543 Byte per Form field?

  - by motto

  Hi, I am getting a FaultEvent when trying to send form fields through HTTPService that contain more than 542 chars. Initializing the HttpService: httpServ = new HTTPService(); httpServ.method = 'POST'; httpServ.url = ENDPOINT_URL; //http://localhost:3001/ReportError.aspx httpServ.resultFormat = HTTPService.RESULT_FORMAT_TEXT; httpServ.contentType = HTTPService.CONTENT_TYPE_FORM; httpServ.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, OnErrorSent); httpServ.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, OnFault); Sending the request: var params:Object = {}; //params["stack"] = e.stackTrace.slice(0, 542); //length 542 = works //params["stack2"] = e.stackTrace.slice(1, 543); //length 542 = works (just to show that it's not about the content itself) params["stack3"] = e.stackTrace.slice(0, 543); //length 543 = fails I also seem to be able to create many form fields (with 542 length) so that it's not a limit of the request itself but of the form field: var params:Object = {}; params["stack"] = e.stackTrace.slice(0, 542); //length 542 params["stack2"] = e.stackTrace.slice(1, 543); //length 542 params["stack3"] = e.stackTrace.slice(2, 544); //length 542 // Length > 1600 chars The receiving party is an ASP.NET 4 site on the same domain and port. I hope someone already came across a similar restrictions or has some general advice on how to trace this problem down further. Thanks in advance.

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• NHibernate Oracle stored procedure problem

  - by Mr. Flint

  ------Using VS2008, ASP.Net with C#, Oracle, NHibernate---- I have tested my stored procedure. It's working but not with NHibernate. Here are the codes: Procedure : create or replace procedure ThanaDelete (id number) as begin delete from thana_tbl where thana_code = id; end Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DataTransfer" namespace="DataTransfer"> <class name="DataTransfer.Models.Thana, DataTransfer" table="THANA_TBL"> <id name="THANA_CODE" column="THANA_CODE" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"> <param name="sequence"> SEQ_TEST </param> </generator> </id> <property name="THANA_NAME" column="THANA_NAME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="DISTRICT_CODE" column="DISTRICT_CODE" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="USER_ID" column="USER_ID" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_DATE" column="TRANSACTION_DATE" type="Date" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_TIME" column="TRANSACTION_TIME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <sql-delete>exec THANADELETE ? </sql-delete> </class> </hibernate-mapping> error: Message: could not delete: [DataTransfer.Models.Thana#10][SQL: exec THANADELETE ?] Source: NHibernate Inner Exception System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException Message: ORA-00900: invalid SQL statement

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• Microsoft Solver Foundation constraint

  - by emaster70

  Hello, I'm trying to use Microsoft Solver Foundation 2 to solve a fairly complicated situation, however I'm stuck with an UnsupportedModelException even when I dumb down the model as much as possible. Does anyone have an idea of what I'm doing wrong? Following is the least example required to reproduce the problematic behavior. var ctx = SolverContext.GetContext(); var model = ctx.CreateModel(); var someConstant = 1337.0; var decisionA = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionA"); var decisionB = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionB"); var decisionC = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionC"); model.AddConstraint("ca", decisionA <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("cb", decisionB <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("cc", decisionC <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("mainConstraint", Model.Equal(Model.Sum(decisionA, decisionB, decisionC), someConstant)) model.AddGoal("myComplicatedGoal", GoalKind.Minimize, decisionC); var solution = ctx.Solve(); solution.GetReport().WriteTo(Console.Out); Console.ReadKey(); Please consider that my actual model should include, once complete, a few constraints in the form of a*a+b*a <= someValue, so if what I'm willing to do ultimately isn't supported, please let me know in advance. If that's the case I'd also appreciate a suggestion of some other solver with a .NET friendly interface that I could use (only well-known commercial packages, please). Thanks in advance

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• MVC2 Areas not Registering Correctly

  - by Geoffrey

  I believe I have my Areas setup correctly (they were working in MVC1 fine). I followed the guide here: http://odetocode.com/Blogs/scott/archive/2009/10/13/asp-net-mvc2-preview-2-areas-and-routes.aspx I've also used Haacked's Route Debugger. Which shows the correct Area/Controller registration when I run it. However when I try to go to my (AreaName)/(Controller) I get this error: "The resource cannot be found." I believe this indicates there's a problem with the routing, but I'm having trouble debugging this. Where should I set my breakpoints to catch routing errors in MVC2? I'm also using SparkViewEngine compiled against MVC2 references. Could this possibly be causing this error? I've set breakpoints on the controller in the area and it never fires off, I assumed the view engine doesn't kick in until after the controller has been initiated, but I could be wrong. The non-area landing page works fine, and I've stripped my project of all areas except one, to avoid any sort of naming conflicts. Any ideas where I can try to look next?

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• Storing User Information in Session with aspNetMembershipProvider

  - by Muhammad Adeel Zahid

  Hi Everyone, i m developing an application in .NET mvc2. i m using aspnetMembershipProvider for User registration and related activities. i need some custom information about user that i stored in a separate table (sysUser for example) and linked it to aspnetUser table through foreign key. after Login i need to fetch user's credentials from sysUser table and push it to the session. For this Account controller's Logon method seemed best to me and i pasted following code in my Logon ActionResult if (!ValidateLogOn(userName, password)) { return View(); } FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, rememberMe); ApplicationRepository _ApplicationRepository = new ApplicationRepository(); MembershipUser aspUser = Membership.GetUser(userName); SessionUser CurrentUser = _ApplicationRepository.GetUserCredentials(aspUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString()); //Session["CurrentUser"] = CurrentUser; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) { return Redirect(returnUrl); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } The code is working perfectly for me and put my desired information in the session but the thing is that if a user selects Remember me and on his next visit he won't have to Log in and i would not find my desired information in the Session. Can anyone guide me where should i put my code that stores the user information in the session. any Help is Highly appreciated Regards Adeel

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• IIS 7.5 can't access file from managed code

  - by Bob

  I am working on a project that is click-once deployed from an IIS 7.5 web server. After installing the parent application (i.e. setting up the IIS site) I am able to hit the url for the click-once app's config file from a remote box. HOWEVER, when I attempt to do the same thing from my app (and the stub app below), I get a 401 Unauthorized. What is the difference between hitting the URL from IE, and from a .NET app? The file and directory itself have full control granted to everyone on the webserver at the moment, and I am an admin on the box. We are using Windows Authentication with NTLM only. Thanks, -Bob Here is the stub app that produces the 401 - Unauthorized when on the doc.Load() line. I can hit the same URL successfully from IE and open the file... static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Config Test"); string filename = "http://dev-rs/myClient/myClickOnce/myApp.config.xml"; Console.WriteLine(filename); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(filename); Console.WriteLine("Loaded"); Console.WriteLine("Inner Text : " + doc.InnerText); }

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• Generating JavaScript in C# and subsequent testing

  - by Codebrain

  We are currently developing an ASP.NET MVC application which makes heavy use of attribute-based metadata to drive the generation of JavaScript. Below is a sample of the type of methods we are writing: function string GetJavascript<T>(string javascriptPresentationFunctionName, string inputId, T model) { return @"function updateFormInputs(value){ $('#" + inputId + @"_SelectedItemState').val(value); $('#" + inputId + @"_Presentation').val(value); } function clearInputs(){ " + helper.ClearHiddenInputs<T>(model) + @" updateFormInputs(''); } function handleJson(json){ clearInputs(); " + helper.UpdateHiddenInputsWithJson<T>("json", model) + @" updateFormInputs(" + javascriptPresentationFunctionName + @"()); " + model.GetCallBackFunctionForJavascript("json") + @" }"; } This method generates some boilerplace and hands off to various other methods which return strings. The whole lot is then returned as a string and written to the output. The question(s) I have are: 1) Is there a nicer way to do this other than using large string blocks? We've considered using a StringBuilder or the Response Stream but it seems quite 'noisy'. Using string.format starts to become difficult to comprehend. 2) How would you go about unit testing this code? It seems a little amateur just doing a string comparison looking for particular output in the string. 3) What about actually testing the eventual JavaScript output? Thanks for your input!

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