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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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  • Why doesn't the F# Set implement ISet<T>?

    - by Sean Devlin
    The .NET Framework is adding an ISet<T> interface with the 4.0 release. In the same release, F# is being added as a first-class language. F# provides an immutable Set<'T> class. It would seem logical to me that the immutable set provided would implement the ISet<T> interface, but it doesn't. Does anyone know why? My guess is that they didn't want to implement an interface intended to be mutable, but I don't think this explanation holds up. After all, their Map<'Key, 'Value> class implements IDictionary, which is mutable. And there are examples elsewhere in the framework of classes implementing interfaces that are only partially appropriate. My other thought is that ISet<T> is new, so maybe they didn't get around to it. But that seems kind of thin. Does the fact that ISet<T> is generic (v. IDictionary, which is not) have anything to do with it? Any thoughts on the matter would be appreciated.

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  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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  • how to read http response soap headers from web service response in proxy class

    - by Fabricio
    I'm having some problems with one webservice that i'm working with. I generated a proxy class with wsdl.exe that comes with .net framework. But that webservice return a header that isnt not mapped by the wsdl. I must map the header sop because it contains some properties that i have to read and work with. how can i read the soap's header collection? Ex.: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/ws/2009/01/WBS_Session-2.0.xsd"> <Session> <SessionId>545784545</SessionId> <SequenceNumber>1</SequenceNumber> <SecurityToken>asd7a87sda89sd45as4d5a4</SecurityToken> </Session> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/2009/04/TAM/TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS_2.0"> <statusDoProcesso> <codigoDoStatus>P</codigoDoStatus> </statusDoProcesso> </TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> I need to read the SOAP:HEADER - Session.

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  • Where does IE store the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie?

    - by scherand
    I am a bit baffled here; using IE7, ASP.NET 2.0 and Cassini (the VS built-in web server; although the same thing seems to be true for "real" applications deployed in IIS) I am looking for the session-id-cookie. My test page shows a session id (by printing out Session.SessionId) and Response.Cookies.Keys contains ASP.NET_SessionId. So far so good. But I cannot find the cookie in IEs cookie-store! Nor does "remove all cookies" reset the session (as it does in FF)... So where - I am tempted to write that four letter word - does IE store that bloody cookie? Or am I missing something? By the way there is no hidden field with a session id either, as far as I can see. If I check in FF there is a cookie called ASP.NET_SessionId as I would expect. And as mentioned above deleting that cookie does start a new session; as I would expect. Can anybody imagine what is happening here?

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  • Ultrawingrid - how to display #1/1/1800# as blank ( as if null )

    - by Charles Hankey
    Ultrawingrid 9.2 VS2008 .net 3.5 My wingrid uses a bindingsource. All datetimes which are null in SQL Server are delivered to the bindingsource as #1/1/1800# I would like Ultrawingrid to display this date as blank as it would a null from source. Also, if the date is null in the grid ( i.e. blanked out ) I would like to update the data source to the date #1/1/1800# ( the framework takes care of getting that date back into the backend as a null ) This seems like it should be a trivial matter but I can find no documentation on just where to intervene so the grid will see a particular date as a null and save a null as a particular date. This is the direction I've been headed but I don't think either is the right place and I can't even get the syntax to work in the BeforeRowUpdate as I cannot see how to set a value that is passed to the data binding without setting the value of control itself, which I think has to remain null in order to display as blank Private Sub ugPropMaster_BeforeRowUpdate(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As _ Infragistics.Win.UltraWinGrid.CancelableRowEventArgs) Handles _ ugPropMaster.BeforeRowUpdate If e.Row.Cells.Item("Exdate").Value Is Nothing Then e.Row.Cells("Exdate").Value = CDate(#1/1/1800#) End If End Sub Private Sub ugPropMaster_InitializeRow(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As _ Infragistics.Win.UltraWinGrid.InitializeRowEventArgs) Handles _ ugPropMaster.InitializeRow If CDate(e.Row.Cells.Item("Exdate").Value) = CDate(#1/1/1800#) Then e.Row.Cells.Item("Exdate").Value = Nothing End If End Sub Guidance much appreciated

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  • Posting forms to a 404 + HttpHandler in IIS7: why has all POST data gone missing?

    - by Rahul
    OK, this might sound a bit confusing and complicated, so bear with me. We've written a framework that allows us to define friendly URLs. If you surf to any arbitrary URL, IIS tries to display a 404 error (or, in some cases, 403;14 or 405). However, IIS is set up so that anything directed to those specific errors is sent to an .aspx file. This allows us to implement an HttpHandler to handle the request and do stuff, which involves finding the an associated template and then executing whatever's associated with it. Now, this all works in IIS 5 and 6 and, to an extent, on IIS7 - but for one catch, which happens when you post a form. See, when you post a form to a non-existent URL, IIS says "ah, but that url doesn't exist" and throws a 405 "method not allowed" error. Since we're telling IIS to redirect those errors to our .aspx page and therefore handling it with our HttpHandler, this normally isn't a problem. But as of IIS7, all POST information has gone missing after being redirected to the 405. And so you can no longer do the most trivial of things involving forms. To solve this we've tried using a HttpModule, which preserves POST data but appears to not have an initialized Session at the right time (when it's needed). We also tried using a HttpModule for all requests, not just the missing requests that hit 404/403;14/405, but that means stuff like images, css, js etc are being handled by .NET code, which is terribly inefficient. Which brings me to the actual question: has anyone ever encountered this, and does anyone have any advice or know what to do to get things working again? So far someone has suggested using Microsoft's own URL Rewriting module. Would this help solve our problem? Thanks.

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  • Send document to printer from web page

    - by FiveTools
    I have a webpage that activates a print job on a printer. This works in the localhost environment but does not work when the application is deployed to the webserver. I'm using the PrintDocument class from the .net System.Drawing.Print namespace. I'm now assuming the printer has to be available to the application on the remote server? Any suggestions on how I would get this to work? PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument(); PaperSource ps = new PaperSource(); pd.DefaultPageSettings.PaperSize = new System.Drawing.Printing.PaperSize("Custom", 1180, 850); pd.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler (this.pd_PrintPage); // Set your printer's name. Obtain from // System's Printer Dialog Box. pd.PrinterSettings.PrinterName = "Okidata ML 321 Turbo/D (IBM)"; //PrintPreviewDialog dlgPrintPvw = new PrintPreviewDialog(); //dlgPrintPvw.Document = pd; //dlgPrintPvw.Focus(); //dlgPrintPvw.ShowDialog(); pd.Print();

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  • Microsoft Solver Foundation constraint

    - by emaster70
    Hello, I'm trying to use Microsoft Solver Foundation 2 to solve a fairly complicated situation, however I'm stuck with an UnsupportedModelException even when I dumb down the model as much as possible. Does anyone have an idea of what I'm doing wrong? Following is the least example required to reproduce the problematic behavior. var ctx = SolverContext.GetContext(); var model = ctx.CreateModel(); var someConstant = 1337.0; var decisionA = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionA"); var decisionB = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionB"); var decisionC = new Decision(Domain.Real, "decisionC"); model.AddConstraint("ca", decisionA <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("cb", decisionB <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("cc", decisionC <= someConstant); model.AddConstraint("mainConstraint", Model.Equal(Model.Sum(decisionA, decisionB, decisionC), someConstant)) model.AddGoal("myComplicatedGoal", GoalKind.Minimize, decisionC); var solution = ctx.Solve(); solution.GetReport().WriteTo(Console.Out); Console.ReadKey(); Please consider that my actual model should include, once complete, a few constraints in the form of a*a+b*a <= someValue, so if what I'm willing to do ultimately isn't supported, please let me know in advance. If that's the case I'd also appreciate a suggestion of some other solver with a .NET friendly interface that I could use (only well-known commercial packages, please). Thanks in advance

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  • Need events to execute on timer events, metronome precision.

    - by user295734
    I setup a timer to call an event in my application. The problme is the event execution is being skewed by other windows operations. Ex. openning and window, loading a webpage. I need the event to excute exactly on time, every time. When i first set up the app, used a sound file, like a metronome to listen to the even firing, in a steady state, its firing right on, but as soon do something in the windows environment, the sound fires slower, then sort of sppeds up a bit to catch up. So i added a logging method to the event to ctahc the timer ticks. From that data, it appears that the timer is not being affected by the windows app, but my application event calls are being affected. I figured this out by checking the datetime.now in the event, and if i set it to 250 milliseconds, which is 4 clicks per second. You get data something like below. (sec):(ms) 1:000 1:250 1:500 1:750 2:000 2:250 2:500 2:750 3:000 3:250 3:500 3:750 (lets say i execute some windows event)(time will skew) 4:122 4:388 4:600 4:876 (stop doing what i was doing in windows) (going to shorten the data for simplicit, my list was 30sec long) 5:124 5:268 5:500 5:750 (you would se the time go back the same milliseconds it was at the begining) 6:000 6:250 6:500 6:750 7:000 7:250 7:500 7:750 So i'm thinking the timer continues to fire on the same millisecond every time, but its the event that is being skewed to fire off time by other windows operations. Its not a huge skew, but for what i need to accomplish, its unacceptable. Is there anyhting i can do in .NET, hoping to use XAML/WPF application, thats will correct the skewing of events? thx.

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  • Using Rx to synchronize asynchronous events

    - by Martin Liversage
    I want to put Reactive Extensions for .NET (Rx) to good use and would like to get some input on doing some basic tasks. To illustrate what I'm trying to do I have a contrived example where I have an external component with asyncronous events: class Component { public void BeginStart() { ... } public event EventHandler Started; } The component is started by calling BeginStart(). This method returns immediately, and later, when the component has completed startup, the Started event fires. I want to create a synchronous start method by wrapping the component and wait until the Started event is fired. This is what I've come up with so far: class ComponentWrapper { readonly Component component = new Component(); void StartComponent() { var componentStarted = Observable.FromEvent<EventArgs>(this.component, "Started"); using (var startedEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false)) using (componentStarted.Take(1).Subscribe(e => { startedEvent.Set(); })) { this.componenet.BeginStart(); startedEvent.WaitOne(); } } } I would like to get rid of the ManualResetEvent, and I expect that Rx has a solution. But how?

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  • Why doesn't my Unity DependencyResolver work on shared hosting but works locally?

    - by frennky
    I'm trying to deploy ASP.NET MVC 3 application wich uses Unity as a IoC container. Application works fine on local server, but when deployed it throws an exception: No parameterless constructor defined for this object. And this is thrown for a controller that should get some repository injected by my Unity DependencyResolver. I've installed Unity with NuGet so it should be referenced directly, and I've checked that it gets copied to bin folder. Edit: Here's the stack trace: [MissingMethodException: No parameterless constructor defined for this object.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +98 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +241 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +69 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerActivator.Create(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +67 [InvalidOperationException: An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'nBlog.Controllers.HomeController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerActivator.Create(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +182 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +80 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +74 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +196 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClass6.<BeginProcessRequest>b__2() +49 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClassb`1.<ProcessInApplicationTrust>b__a() +13 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.<GetCallInAppTrustThunk>b__0(Action f) +7 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.ProcessInApplicationTrust(Action action) +22 System.Web.Mvc.SecurityUtil.ProcessInApplicationTrust(Func`1 func) +124 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +98 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +50 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, Object extraData) +16 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8841400 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +18 Anyone have an idea what might be the problem?

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • Are Parameters really enough to prevent Sql injections?

    - by Rune Grimstad
    I've been preaching both to my colleagues and here on SO about the goodness of using parameters in SQL queries, especially in .NET applications. I've even gone so far as to promise them as giving immunity against SQL injection attacks. But I'm starting to wonder if this really is true. Are there any known SQL injection attacks that will be successfull against a parameterized query? Can you for example send a string that causes a buffer overflow on the server? There are of course other considerations to make to ensure that a web application is safe (like sanitizing user input and all that stuff) but now I am thinking of SQL injections. I'm especially interested in attacks against MsSQL 2005 and 2008 since they are my primary databases, but all databases are interesting. Edit: To clarify what I mean by parameters and parameterized queries. By using parameters I mean using "variables" instead of building the sql query in a string. So instead of doing this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = 'a name' We do this: SELECT * FROM Table WHERE Name = @Name and then set the value of the @Name parameter on the query / command object.

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  • From ASPX to WCF

    - by Barguast
    I'm hoping someone can advise me on how to solve my networking scenario. Both the client and server are to be C# / .NET based. I basically want to invoke some kind of web service from my client in order to retrieve both binary data (e.g. files) and serialised objects and lists of objects (e.g. database query results). At the moment, I'm using ASPX pages, using the query string to provide parameters and I get back either the binary data, or the binary data of the serialised messages. This affords me a lot of flexbility, and I can choose how to transmit the data, perform simulatanous requests, cancel ongoing requests, etc. Since I can control the serialised format, I can also deserialise lists of objects as they are received which is crucial. My problem isn't a problem as such, but this feels a little hack-ish and I can't help but wonder if there are better ways to go about it. I'm considering moving on to WCF or perhaps another technology to see if it helps. However, I need to know if it helps with my scenarios above that is; Can a WCF method return a list of objects, and can the client receive the items of this list as they arrive as opposed to getting the entire list on completion (i.e. streaming). Does anyone know of any examples of this? Am I likely to get any performance benefits from this? I don't know how well ASPX pages are tuned for this, as it surely isn't their primary purpose. Are there any other approaches I should consider? Thanks for your time spent reading this. I hope you can help.

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  • C# string.Split() Matching Both Slashes?

    - by Sheep Slapper
    I've got a .NET 3.5 web application written in C# doing some URL rewriting that includes a file path, and I'm running into a problem. When I call string.Split('/') it matches both '/' and '\' characters. Is that... supposed to happen? I assumed that it would notice that the ASCII values were different and skip it, but it appears that I'm wrong. // url = 'someserver.com/user/token/files\subdir\file.jpg string[] buffer = url.Split('/'); The above code gives a string[] with 6 elements in it... which seems counter intuitive. Is there a way to force Split() to match ONLY the forward slash? Right now I'm lucky, since the offending slashes are at the end of the URL, I can just concatenate the rest of the elements in the string[], but it's a lot of work for what we're doing, and not a great solution to the underlying problem. Anyone run into this before? Have a simple answer? I appreciate it!

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  • How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

    - by drs9222
    I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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  • Why is OpenSubKey() returning null on my Win 7 64 bit system?

    - by BrMcMullin
    Has anyone seen OpenSubKey() and other Microsoft.Win32 registry functions return null on 64 bit systems when 32 bit registry keys are under Wow6432node in the registry? I'm working on a unit testing framework that makes a call to OpenSubKey() from the .net library. My dev system is a Win 7 64 bit environment with VS 2008 SP1 and the Win 7 SDK installed. The application we're unit testing is a 32 bit application, so the registry is virtualized under HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. When we call: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); Null is returned, however explicitly stating to look here works: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\Wow6432node\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); From what I understand this function should be agnostic to 32 bit or 64 bit environments and should know to jump to the virtual node. Even stranger is the fact that the exact same call inside a compiled and installed version of our application is running just fine on the same system and is getting the registry keys necessary to run; which are also being placed in HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • max file upload size change in web.config

    - by Christopher Johnson
    using .net mvc 3 and trying to increase the allowable file upload size. This is what I've added to web.config: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah" preCondition="managedHandler" /> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah" preCondition="managedHandler" /> <add name="ErrorFilter" type="Elmah.ErrorFilterModule, Elmah" preCondition="managedHandler" /> </modules> <handlers> <add name="Elmah" path="elmah.axd" verb="POST,GET,HEAD" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> <security> <requestFiltering> <requestLimits maxAllowedContentLength="104857600"/> </requestFiltering> </security> *ignore the elmah stuff. it's still not allowing file sizes larger than 50MB and this should allow up to 100MB no? any ideas?

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  • Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

    - by awe
    I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

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  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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  • Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

    - by manu08
    I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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  • HtmlAgilityPack - Vs 2010 - c# ASP - File Not found

    - by Janosch Geigowskoskilu
    First, I've already searched the web & StackOverflow for hours, and i did find a lot about troubleshooting HtmlAgilityPack and tried most of these but nothing worked. The Situation: I'm developing a C# ASP .NET WebPart in SharePoint Foundation. Everything works fine, now I want to Parse a HTML Page to get all ImagePaths and save the Images on HD/Temp. To do that I was downloading HtmlAgilityPack, current version, add reference to Project, everything looks OK, IntelliSense works fine. The Exception: But when I want to run the section where HtmlAgilityPack should be used my Browser shows me a FileNotFoundException - The File or Assembly could not be found. What I tried: After first searches i tried to include v1.4.0 of HtmlAgilityPack cause I read that the current version in some case is not really stable. This works fine to until the point I want to use HtmlAgilityPack, the same Exception. I also tried moving the HtmlAgilityPack direct to the Solution directory, nothing changed. I tried to insert HtmlAgilityPack via using and I tried direct call e.g. HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlDocument. Conclusion : When I compile no error occurs, the reference is set correct. When I trace the HtmlAgilityPack.dll with ProcMon the Path is shown correct, but sometimes the Result is 'File Locked with only Readers' but I don't know enough about ProcMon to Know what this means or if this is critical. It couldn't have something to do with File Permissions because if I check the DLL the permissions are all given.

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  • XML Parseing Error when serving a PDF

    - by Andy
    I'm trying to serve a pdf file from a database in ASP.NET using an Http Handler, but every time I go to the page I get an error XML Parsing Error: no element found Location: https://ucc489/rc/NoteFileHandler.ashx?noteId=1,msdsId=3 Line Number 1, Column 1: ^ Here is my HttpHandler code: public class NoteFileHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { if (context.Request.QueryString.HasKeys()) { if (context.Request.QueryString["noteId"] != null && context.Request.QueryString["msdsId"] != null) { string nId = context.Request.QueryString["noteId"]; string mId = context.Request.QueryString["msdsId"]; DataTable noteFileDt = App_Models.Notes.GetNoteFile(nId, mId); if (noteFileDt.Rows.Count > 0) { try { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + noteFileDt.Rows[0][0] + ".pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] file = (byte[])noteFileDt.Rows[0][1]; context.Response.BinaryWrite(file); context.Response.End(); } catch { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write("File Not Found"); context.Response.StatusCode = 404; } } } } } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } Is there anything else I need to do (server configuration/whatever) to get my pdf file to load?

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