Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 896/956 | < Previous Page | 892 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900 901 902 903  | Next Page >

  • Error With Sending mail (kSKPSMTPPartMessageKey is nil)

    - by user1553381
    I'm trying to send mail in iPhone using "SKPSMTPMessage" and I added the libraries, In my class I added the following code: - (IBAction)sendMail:(id)sender { // if there are a connection if ([theConnection isEqualToString:@"true"]) { if ([fromEmail.text isEqualToString:@""] || [toEmail.text isEqualToString:@""]) { UIAlertView *warning = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"?????" message:@"?? ??? ????? ???? ????????" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"?????" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [warning show]; }else { SKPSMTPMessage *test_smtp_message = [[SKPSMTPMessage alloc] init]; test_smtp_message.fromEmail = fromEmail.text; test_smtp_message.toEmail = toEmail.text; test_smtp_message.relayHost = @"smtp.gmail.com"; test_smtp_message.requiresAuth = YES; test_smtp_message.login = @"[email protected]"; test_smtp_message.pass = @"myPass"; test_smtp_message.wantsSecure = YES; NSString *subject= @"Suggest a book for you"; test_smtp_message.subject = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ < %@ > ",fromEmail.text, subject]; test_smtp_message.delegate = self; NSMutableArray *parts_to_send = [NSMutableArray array]; NSDictionary *plain_text_part = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"text/plain\r\n\tcharset=UTF-8;\r\n\tformat=flowed", kSKPSMTPPartContentTypeKey, [messageBody.text stringByAppendingString:@"\n"], kSKPSMTPPartMessageKey, @"quoted-printable", kSKPSMTPPartContentTransferEncodingKey, nil]; [parts_to_send addObject:plain_text_part]; // to send attachment NSString *image_path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:BookCover ofType:@"jpg"]; NSData *image_data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:image_path]; NSDictionary *image_part = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"inline;\r\n\tfilename=\"image.png\"",kSKPSMTPPartContentDispositionKey, @"base64",kSKPSMTPPartContentTransferEncodingKey, @"image/png;\r\n\tname=Success.png;\r\n\tx-unix-mode=0666",kSKPSMTPPartContentTypeKey, [image_data encodeWrappedBase64ForData],kSKPSMTPPartMessageKey, nil]; [parts_to_send addObject:image_part]; test_smtp_message.parts = parts_to_send; Spinner.hidden = NO; [Spinner startAnimating]; ProgressBar.hidden = NO; HighestState = 0; [test_smtp_message send]; } }else { UIAlertView *alertNoconnection = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"?????" message:@"?? ???? ???? " delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"?????" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [alertNoconnection show]; } } but when I tried to send it gives me the following Exception: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFString appendString:]: nil argument' and it highlighted this line in SKPSMTPMessage.m [message appendString:[part objectForKey:kSKPSMTPPartMessageKey]]; and I Can't understand what is nil exactly Can Anyone help me in this issue? Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc radio button state

    - by Josh Bush
    I'm trying out asp.net mvc for a new project, and I ran across something odd. When I use the MVC UI helpers for textboxes, the values get persisted between calls. But, when I use a series of radio buttons, the checked state doesn't get persisted. Here's an example from my view. <li> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","1")%><label>Hospital</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","2")%><label>Facility</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","3")%><label>Physician</label> </li> When the form gets posted back, I build up an object with "ProviderType" as one of it's properties. The value on the object is getting set, and then I RedirectToAction with the provider as a argument. All is well, and I end up at a URL like "http://localhost/Provider/List?ProviderType=1" with ProviderType showing. The value gets persisted to the URL, but the UI helper isn't picking up the checked state. I'm having this problem with listbox, dropdownlist, and radiobutton. Textboxes pick up the values just fine. Do you see something I'm doing wrong? I'm assuming that the helpers will do this for me, but maybe I'll just have to take care of this on my own. I'm just feeling my way through this, so your input is appreciated. Edit: I just found the override for the SelectList constructor that takes a selected value. That took care of my dropdown issue I mentioned above. Edit #2: I found something that works, but it pains me to do it this way. I feel like this should be inferred. <li> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType","1",Request["ProviderType"]=="1")%><label>Hospital</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType", "2", Request["ProviderType"] == "2")%><label>Facility</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType", "3", Request["ProviderType"] == "3")%><label>Physician</label> </li> Hopefully someone will come up with another way.

    Read the article

  • Why wont my while loop wont take new input (c++)

    - by Van
    I've written a program to get a string input from a user and parse it into tokens and move a robot according to the input. My problem is trying to issue more than one command. The code looks like: void Navigator::manualDrive() { const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; while(true) { Navigator::parseInstruction(uinput); } } /* parseInstruction(char *c) -- parses cstring instructions received * and moves robot accordingly */ void Navigator::parseInstruction(char * c) { const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; cout << "Enter your directions below: \n"; cin.ignore(); cin.getline (uinput, bufSize); token=strtok(uinput, delim); if(strcmp("forward", token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); Navigator::travel(inches); } if(strcmp("back",token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0735 * fabs(inches) - 0.0550); myRobot.backward(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("left",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0041 * degrees - 0.0523); myRobot.turnLeft(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("right",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0041 * degrees - 0.0523); myRobot.turnRight(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } if(strcmp("stop",token) == 0) { myRobot.motors(0,0); } } In the function manualDrive I have a while loop calling the function parseInstruction infinitely. The program outputs "Enter your directions below: " When I give the program instructions it executes them, and then it outputs "enter your directions below: " again and when I input my directions again it does not execute them and outputs "Enter your directions below: " instead. I'm sure this is a very simple fix I'm just very new to c++. So if you could please help me out and tell me why the program only takes the first set of directions. thanks

    Read the article

  • How to resize the UIView when CGAffineTransformIdentity

    - by Gowtham
    I am doing an app which has a feature to rotate and re size a view. i have implemented this feature but i do face an issue. My problem The View wil be resized when dragging its four corners, after resizing it i can rotate the view in both directions. Once the rotation is done, if i try again to resize the view by dragging its corner, the view's size gone to unpredictable value and its moving all around the screen. I googled lot finally i got the following solution The frame property is undefined when transform != CGAffineTransformIdentity, as per the docs on UIView I saw one app which has implemented the feature exactly what i wish to implement. How can i resize the UIView after rotation of UIView My code for resize the view Touches Began - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch *touch = [[event allTouches] anyObject]; NSLog(@"[touch view]:::%@",[touch view]); touchStart = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:testVw]; isResizingLR = (testVw.bounds.size.width - touchStart.x < kResizeThumbSize && testVw.bounds.size.height - touchStart.y < kResizeThumbSize); isResizingUL = (touchStart.x <kResizeThumbSize && touchStart.y <kResizeThumbSize); isResizingUR = (testVw.bounds.size.width-touchStart.x < kResizeThumbSize && touchStart.y<kResizeThumbSize); isResizingLL = (touchStart.x <kResizeThumbSize && testVw.bounds.size.height -touchStart.y <kResizeThumbSize); } Touches Moved - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ CGPoint touchPoint = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:testVw]; CGPoint previous=[[touches anyObject]previousLocationInView:testVw]; float deltaWidth = touchPoint.x-previous.x; float deltaHeight = touchPoint.y-previous.y; NSLog(@"CVTM:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(testVw.frame)); if (isResizingLR) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x, testVw.frame.origin.y,touchPoint.x + deltaWidth, touchPoint.y + deltaWidth); } if (isResizingUL) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x + deltaWidth, testVw.frame.origin.y + deltaHeight, testVw.frame.size.width - deltaWidth, testVw.frame.size.height - deltaHeight); } if (isResizingUR) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x ,testVw.frame.origin.y + deltaHeight, testVw.frame.size.width + deltaWidth, testVw.frame.size.height - deltaHeight); } if (isResizingLL) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x + deltaWidth ,testVw.frame.origin.y , testVw.frame.size.width - deltaWidth, testVw.frame.size.height + deltaHeight); } if (!isResizingUL && !isResizingLR && !isResizingUR && !isResizingLL) { testVw.center = CGPointMake(testVw.center.x + touchPoint.x - touchStart.x,testVw.center.y + touchPoint.y - touchStart.y); } }

    Read the article

  • App losing db connection

    - by DaveKub
    I'm having a weird issue with an old Delphi app losing it's database connection. Actually, I think it's losing something else that then makes the connection either drop or be unusable. The app is written in Delphi 6 and uses the Direct Oracle Access component (v4.0.7.1) to connect to an Oracle 9i database. The app runs as a service and periodically queries the db using a TOracleQuery object (qryAlarmList). The method that is called to do this looks like this: procedure TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList; begin try qryAlarmList.Execute; except on E: Exception do begin FStatus := ssError; EventLog.LogError(-1, 'TdmMain.RefreshAlarmList', 'Message: ' + E.Message); end; end; end; It had been running fine for years, until a couple of Perl scripts were added to this machine. These scripts run every 15 minutes and look for datafiles to import into the db, and then they do a some calculations and a bunch of reads/writes to/from the db. For some reason, when they are processing large amounts of data, and then the Delphi app tries to query the db, the Delphi app throws an exception at the "qryAlarmList.Execute" line in the above code listing. The exception is always: Access violation at address 00000000. read of address 00000000 HOW can something that the Perl scripts are doing cause this?? There are other Perl scripts on this machine that load data using the same modules and method calls and we didn't have problems. To make it even weirder, there are two other apps that will also suddenly lose their ability to talk to the database at the same time as the Perl stuff is running. Neither of those apps run on this machine, but both are Delphi 6 apps that use the same DOA component to connect to the same database. We have other apps that connect to the same db, written in Java or C# and they don't seem to have any problems. I've tried adding code before the '.Execute' method is called to: check the session's connection (session.CheckConnection(true); always comes back as 'ccOK'). see whether I can access a field of the qryAlarmList object to see if maybe it's become null; can access it fine. check the state of the qryAlarmList; always says it's qsIdle. Does anyone have any suggestions of something to try? This is driving me nuts! Dave

    Read the article

  • extra white line under li items that have no border

    - by isabel018
    I have a problem with extra white lines showing up under my list items. It's not a border as I haven't set any borders, except the one under My Account, it's just to show that the white line is not a border. The one under it is -- a 4px border the same color as the background. This problem occurred after I had resolved a conflict between my Nivo Slider and the Woocommerce plugin on my WP site. I got both of them to work together, but then this other issue with the list cropped up. Any ideas as to what caused this and how to fix it? Here's my CSS if that helps: #header #navigation ul.nav > li.current_page_item > a { color: #D4145A;} #header #navigation ul.nav > li:hover a { border-width: 0px 0px 4px; border-style: none none solid; border-color: -moz-use-text-color -moz-use-text-color rgb(212, 20, 90); -moz-border-top-colors: none; -moz-border-right-colors: none; -moz-border-bottom-colors: none; -moz-border-left-colors: none; border-image: none; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% rgb(212, 20, 90);} and the HTML for it too: <nav id="navigation" class="col-full parent" role="navigation"> <ul id="main-nav" class="nav fl parent"> <li class="page_item"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-11"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-12"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-13 parent"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-15 current_page_item parent"> <a href=""></a> <ul class="children"></ul></li> </ul> </nav> Help please! I'm at my wits' end! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C#/.NET Project - Am I setting things up correctly?

    - by JustLooking
    1st solution located: \Common\Controls\Controls.sln and its project: \Common\Controls\Common.Controls\Common.Controls.csproj Description: This is a library that contains this class: public abstract class OurUserControl : UserControl { // Variables and other getters/setters common to our UserControls } 2nd solution located: \AControl\AControl.sln and its project: \AControl\AControl\AControl.csproj Description: Of the many forms/classes, it will contain this class: using Common.Controls; namespace AControl { public partial class AControl : OurUserControl { // The implementation } } A note about adding references (not sure if this is relevant): When I add references (for projects I create), using the names above: 1. I add Common.Controls.csproj to AControl.sln 2. In AControl.sln I turn off the build of Common.Controls.csproj 3. I add the reference to Common.Controls (by project) to AControl.csproj. This is the (easiest) way I know how to get Debug versions to match Debug References, and Release versions to match Release References. Now, here is where the issue lies (the 3rd solution/project that actually utilizes the UserControl): 3rd solution located: \MainProj\MainProj.sln and its project: \MainProj\MainProj\MainProj.csproj Description: Here's a sample function in one of the classes: private void TestMethod<T>() where T : Common.Controls.OurUserControl, new() { T TheObject = new T(); TheObject.OneOfTheSetters = something; TheObject.AnotherOfTheSetters = something_else; // Do stuff with the object } We might call this function like so: private void AnotherMethod() { TestMethod<AControl.AControl>(); } This builds, runs, and works. No problem. The odd thing is after I close the project/solution and re-open it, I have red squigglies everywhere. I bring up my error list and I see tons of errors (anything that deals with AControl will be noted as an error). I'll see errors such as: The type 'AControl.AControl' cannot be used as type parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MainProj.MainClass.TestMethod()'. There is no implicit reference conversion from 'AControl.AControl' to 'Common.Controls.OurUserControl'. or inside the actual method (the properties located in the abstract class): 'AControl.AControl' does not contain a definition for 'OneOfTheSetters' and no extension method 'OneOfTheSetters' accepting a first argument of type 'AControl.AControl' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Meanwhile, I can still build and run the project (then the red squigglies go away until I re-open the project, or close/re-open the file). It seems to me that I might be setting up the projects incorrectly. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • vc++ - static member is showing error

    - by prabhakaran
    I am using vc++(2010). I am trying to create a class for server side socket. Here is the header file #include<winsock.h> #include<string> #include<iostream> using namespace std; class AcceptSocket { // static SOCKET s; protected: SOCKET acceptSocket; public: AcceptSocket(){}; void setSocket(SOCKET socket); static void EstablishConnection(int portNo,string&); static void closeConnection(); static void StartAccepting(); virtual void threadDeal(); static DWORD WINAPI MyThreadFunction(LPVOID lpParam); }; SOCKET AcceptSocket::s; and the corresponding source file #include<NetWorking.h> #include<string> void AcceptSocket::setSocket(SOCKET s) { acceptSocket=s; } void AcceptSocket::EstablishConnection(int portno,string &failure) { WSAData w; int error = WSAStartup(0x0202,&w); if(error) failure=failure+"\nWSAStartupFailure"; if(w.wVersion != 0x0202) { WSACleanup(); failure=failure+"\nVersion is different"; } SOCKADDR_IN addr; addr.sin_family=AF_INET; addr.sin_port=htons(portno); addr.sin_addr.s_addr=htonl(INADDR_ANY); AcceptSocket::s=socket(AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM,IPPROTO_TCP); if(AcceptSocket::s == INVALID_SOCKET) failure=failure+"\nsocket creating error"; if(bind(AcceptSocket::s,(LPSOCKADDR) &addr,sizeof(addr)) == SOCKET_ERROR) failure=failure+"\nbinding error"; listen(AcceptSocket::s,SOMAXCONN); } void AcceptSocket::closeConnection() { if(AcceptSocket::s) closesocket(AcceptSocket::s); WSACleanup(); } void AcceptSocket::StartAccepting() { sockaddr_in addrNew; int size=sizeof(addrNew); while(1) { SOCKET temp=accept(AcceptSocket::s,(sockaddr *)&addrNew,&size); AcceptSocket * tempAcceptSocket=new AcceptSocket(); tempAcceptSocket->setSocket(temp); DWORD threadId; HANDLE thread=CreateThread(NULL,0,MyThreadFunction,(LPVOID)tempAcceptSocket,0,&threadId); } } DWORD WINAPI AcceptSocket::MyThreadFunction(LPVOID lpParam) { AcceptSocket * acceptsocket=(AcceptSocket *) lpParam; acceptsocket->threadDeal(); return 1; } void AcceptSocket::threadDeal() { "You didn't define threadDeal in the derived class"; } Now the main.cpp is #include<Networking.h> int main() { } When I am compiling The error I got is Error 1 error LNK2005: "private: static unsigned int AcceptSocket::s" (?s@AcceptSocket@@0IA) already defined in NetWorking.obj C:\Documents and Settings\prabhakaran\Desktop\check\check\main.obj check Error 2 error LNK1169: one or more multiply defined symbols found C:\Documents and Settings\prabhakaran\Desktop\check\Debug\check.exe 1 1 check Now anybody please enlighten me about this issue

    Read the article

  • Get data from aspx.cs page to aspx page.

    - by Brad8118
    So I am using a jquery plug in that allows me to change the order of things in a list by dragging and dropping them. So my goal is to be able to grab a list of my objects (AlertInfo) and using it in a javascript function. I was able to use a json webservice call in a test project to pass the data to the page. But we don't have a webservice page now so I tried to grab it from a aspx.cs page and it hasn't worked. ///Aspx page: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "~/Alerts/GetAlerts", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var data = eval("(" + msg.d + ")"); jQuery.each(data, function (rec) { AlertList[AlertList.length] = new objAlert(this.id, this.title, this.details, JSONDateSerializationFix(this.startdate), JSONDateSerializationFix(this.enddate)); UpdateDisplayList(); }) }, error: function (msg) { alert("BRAD" + msg); } The issue is that the Alerts page in "URL /Alerts/GetAlerts" is Alerts.aspx.cs. I can't figure out if I can use this ajax command to call a method in a aspx.cs page. //Code behind page aspx.cs [WebMethod] //[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetAlerts() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(list); } public List GetAlertsList() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return list; ; } So I was hoping that I could load data into an asp control (dataList) and then grab the data //code behind page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dataListAlertList.DataSource = GetAlertsList(); dataListAlertList.DataBind(); } public static List<AlertInfo> GetTestAlerts() { List<AlertInfo> list = new List<AlertInfo>(); list.Add(new AlertInfo("0", "Alert 1 Title", "Alert 1 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); list.Add(new AlertInfo("1", "Alert 2 Title", "Alert 2 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); return list; } //.aspx page $(document).ready(function () { var a1 = $("#dataListAlertList").val(); // do fun stuff now. } But I keep getting undefined....

    Read the article

  • Define Javascript slider hit/rollover area

    - by Rob
    Hey, Im having an issue defining the hit area for a javascript sliding element. See example: http://www.warface.co.uk/clients/warface.co.uk/ Please slide over the grey box on the right side to reveal the button, although this works I would only like for the slider to only be triggered by rolling over the red block. CSS .slidingtwitter { /* -- This is the hit area -- */ background: #ccc; width:255px; height:55px; overflow: hidden; top:50%; right: 0px; /* -- This is the sliding start point -- */ position: fixed; font-family: Gotham, Sans-Serif; z-index: 50; } .slidingtwitter.right { right:0px; } .slidingtwitter .caption { /* -- This is the sliding area -- */ background: #fff; position: absolute; width:260px; height:55px; right: -205px; /* -- This is the sliding start point -- */ } .slidingtwitter a { color: #484848; font-size: 20px; text-transform: uppercase; } .slidingtwitter a:hover { color: black; } .slidingtwitter .smaller { font-size: 12px; font-family: Gotham Medium; } .twitterblock { background: #f35555 url("styles/images/button_twitter.png") no-repeat 14px 15px ; width:35px; height:35px; padding:10px; float:left; display:block; } .slidingtwitter .followme { background: url("styles/images/button_arrowheadthin.jpg")no-repeat right 0; height:35px; display:block; float:left; line-height:14px; width:140px; margin:10px 0px 0px 14px; padding-top:6px; padding-right: 40px; } JS $('.slidingtwitter').hover(function(){ $(".slide", this).stop().animate({right:'0px'},{queue:false,duration:400}); //Position on rollover },function() { $(".slide", this).stop().animate({right:'-205px'},{queue:false,duration:400}); //Position on rollout }); Any suggestions would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

    Read the article

  • How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

    - by Adam Jones
    I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

    Read the article

  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

    Read the article

  • cflock do not throw timeout for same url called in same browser

    - by Pritesh Patel
    I am trying lock block on page test.cfm and below is code written on page. <cfscript> writeOutput("Before lock at #now()#"); lock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive" { writeOutput("<br/>started at #now()#"); thread action="sleep" duration="10000"; writeOutput("<br/>ended at #now()#"); } writeOutput("<br/>After lock at #now()#"); </cfscript> assuming my url for page is http://localhost.local/test.cfm and running it on browser in two different tabs. I was expecting one of the url will throw timeout error after 3 second since another url lock it atleast for 10 seconds due to thread sleep. Surprisingly I do not get any timeout error rather second page call run after 10 seconds as first call finish execution. But I am appending some url parameter (e.g. http://localhost.local/test.cfm?q=1) will throw error. Also I am calling same url in different browser then one of the call will throw timeout issue. Is lock based on session and url? Update Here is output for two different cases: Case 1: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} Case 2: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm? (Added ? at the end) Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:20'} A timeout occurred while attempting to lock threadlock. The error occurred in C:/inetpub/wwwroot/test/test.cfm: line 13 11 : 12 : <cfoutput>Before lock at #now()#</cfoutput> 13 : <cflock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive"> 14 : <cfoutput><br/>started at #now()#</cfoutput> 15 : <cfthread action="sleep" duration="10000"/> ... Result for case 2 as expected. For case 1, strange thing I just noticed is tab 2 output "Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} indicates that whole request start after 10 seconds (means after the complete execution of first tab) when I have fired it in second URL just after 2 seconds of first tabs.

    Read the article

  • Finding the most frequent subtrees in a collection of (parse) trees

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I have a collection of trees whose nodes are labelled (but not uniquely). Specifically the trees are from a collection of parsed sentences (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treebank). I wish to extract the most common subtrees from the collection - performance is not (yet) an issue. I'd be grateful for algorithms (ideally Java) or pointers to tools which do this for treebanks. Note that order of child nodes is important. EDIT @mjv. We are working in a limited domain (chemistry) which has a stylised language so the varirty of the trees is not huge - probably similar to children's readers. Simple tree for "the cat sat on the mat". <sentence> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> <verbPhrase> <verb/> <prepositionPhrase> <preposition/> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> </prepositionPhrase> </verbPhrase> </sentence> Here the sentence contains two identical part-of-speech subtrees (the actual tokens "cat". "mat" are not important in matching). So the algorithm would need to detect this. Note that not all nounPhrases are identical - "the big black cat" could be: <nounPhrase> <article/> <adjective/> <adjective/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> The length of sentences will be longer - between 15 to 30 nodes. I would expect to get useful results from 1000 trees. If this does not take more than a day or so that's acceptable. Obviously the shorter the tree the more frequent, so nounPhrase will be very common. EDIT If this is to be solved by flattening the tree then I think it would be related to Longest Common Substring, not Longest Common Sequence. But note that I don't necessarily just want the longest - I want a list of all those long enough to be "interesting" (criterion yet to be decided).

    Read the article

  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

    Read the article

  • web design PSD to html -> more direct ways?

    - by Assembler
    At work I see one colleague designing a site in Photoshop/Fireworks, I see another taking this data, slicing it up and using Dreamweaver to rebuild the same from scratch. It seems like too much mucking around! I know that Photoshop can output a tables based HTML, and Fireworks will create divs with absolute positioning; neither appear to be very helpful. Admittedly, I haven't tried much of (DW/FW) (CS4/CS3) since becoming a programmer, so I don't know if new versions are addressing this work flow issue, but are we still double handling things? Can we attach some sort of layout metadata (this is a rollover button, this will be a SWF, this will be text, this logo will hide "xyz" <h1> text etc) to slices to aid in layout generation? are there some secret tools which assist in this conversion process? Or are we still restricted to doing things by hand? The frustration continues when said hand built page needs to be reworked again to fit Smarty Templates/Wordpress/generic CMS. I acknowledge that designers need to be free of systems to be able to do whatever, but most conventional sites have: a header with navigation a sidebar with more links the main content part maybe another sidebar a footer Given the similarity of a lot of components, shouldn't there be a more systematic approach to going from sliced designs to functional HTML? Or am I over-simplifying things? -edit- Mmmmm.... I suppose I will accept an answer, but they weren't really what I was looking for. It just seems like designing the DOM is a bit of holy grail ("It's only a model!"), and maybe with all the "groovy" things you can do with HTML and Javascript, it would be mighty hard work, but with a set of constraints (that 960 stuff looks interesting), some well designed reset style sheets and a bit of... fairy dust? we should be able to improve the work flow. Photoshop's tables by themselves are pretty much useless, I agree, but surely we can take this data, and then select a group of cells and say "right, this is a text div, overflow:auto" or "these cells are an image block, style it with the same height/width as the selected area". Admittedly here at work there are other elephants in the room that need to make their formal introductions to management, but some parts of the designpage workflow seem... uneducated at best.

    Read the article

  • [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

    - by chiccodoro
    (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • How to Integrate C++ compiler in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Kasun
    Hi Can someone help me with this issue? I currently working on my project for final year of my honors degree. And we are developing a application to evaluate programming assignments of student ( for 1st year student level) I just want to know how to integrate C++ compiler using C# code to compile C++ code. In our case we are loading a student C++ code into text area, then with a click on button we want to compile the code. And if there any compilation errors it will be displayed on text area nearby. (Interface is attached herewith.) And finally it able to execute the code if there aren't any compilation errors. And results will be displayed in console. We were able to do this with a C#(C# code will be loaded to text area intead of C++ code) code using inbuilt compiler. But still not able to do for C# code. Can anyone suggest a method to do this? It is possible to integrate external compiler to VS C# code? If possible how to achieve it? Very grateful if anyone will contributing to solve this matter? This is code for Build button which we proceed with C# code compiling CodeDomProvider codeProvider = CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("csharp"); string Output = "Out.exe"; Button ButtonObject = (Button)sender; rtbresult.Text = ""; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); //Make sure we generate an EXE, not a DLL parameters.GenerateExecutable = true; parameters.OutputAssembly = Output; CompilerResults results = codeProvider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, rtbcode.Text); if (results.Errors.Count > 0) { rtbresult.ForeColor = Color.Red; foreach (CompilerError CompErr in results.Errors) { rtbresult.Text = rtbresult.Text + "Line number " + CompErr.Line + ", Error Number: " + CompErr.ErrorNumber + ", '" + CompErr.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { //Successful Compile rtbresult.ForeColor = Color.Blue; rtbresult.Text = "Success!"; //If we clicked run then launch our EXE if (ButtonObject.Text == "Run") Process.Start(Output); // Run button }

    Read the article

  • How does your team work together in a remote setup?

    - by Carl Rosenberger
    Hi, we are a distributed team working on the object database db4o. The way we work: We try to program in pairs only. We use Skype and VNC or SharedView to connect and work together. In our online Tuesday meeting every week (usually about 1 hour) we talk about the tasks done last week we create new pairs for the next week with a random generator so knowledge and friendship distribute evenly we set the priority for any new tasks or bugs that have come in each team picks the tasks it likes to do from the highest prioritized ones. From Tuesday to Wednesday we estimate tasks. We have a unit of work we call "Ideal Developer Session" (IDS), maybe 2 or 3 hours of working together as a pair. It's not perfectly well defined (because we know estimation always is inaccurate) but from our past shared experience we have a common sense of what an IDS is. If we can't estimate a task because it feels too long for a week we break it down into estimatable smaller tasks. During a short meeting on Wednesday we commit to a workload we feel is well doable in a week. We commit to complete. If a team runs out of committed tasks during the week, it can pick new ones from the prioritized queue we have in Jira. When we started working this way, some of us found that remote pair programming takes a lot of energy because you are so focussed. If you pair program for more than 5 or 6 hours per day, you get drained. On the other hand working like this has turned out to be very efficient. The knowledge about our codebase is evenly distributed and we have really learnt lots from eachother. I would be very interested to hear about the experiences from other teams working in a similar way. Things like: How often do you meet? Have you tried different sprint lengths (one week, two week, longer) ? Which tools do you use? Which issue tracker do you use? What do you do about time zone differences? How does it work for you to integrate new people into the team? How many hours do you usually work per week? How does your management interact with the way you are working? Do you get put on a waterfall with hard deadlines? What's your unit of work? What is your normal velocity? (units of work done per week) Programming work should be fun and for us it usually is great fun. I would be happy about any new ideas how to make it even more fun and/or more efficient.

    Read the article

  • Use HTTP PUT to create new cache (ehCache) running on the same Tomcat?

    - by socal_javaguy
    I am trying to send a HTTP PUT (in order to create a new cache and populate it with my generated JSON) to ehCache using my webservice which is on the same local tomcat instance. Am new to RESTful Web Services and am using JDK 1.6, Tomcat 7, ehCache, and JSON. I have my POJOs defined like this: Person POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class Person { private String firstName; private String lastName; private List<House> houses; // Getters & Setters } House POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class House { private String address; private String city; private String state; // Getters & Setters } Using a PersonUtil class, I hardcoded the POJOs as follows: public class PersonUtil { public static Person getPerson() { Person person = new Person(); person.setFirstName("John"); person.setLastName("Doe"); List<House> houses = new ArrayList<House>(); House house = new House(); house.setAddress("1234 Elm Street"); house.setCity("Anytown"); house.setState("Maine"); houses.add(house); person.setHouses(houses); return person; } } Am able to create a JSON response per a GET request: @Path("") public class MyWebService{ @GET @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Person getPerson() { return PersonUtil.getPerson(); } } When deploying the war to tomcat and pointing the browser to http://localhost:8080/personservice/ Generated JSON: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So far, so good, however, I have a different app which is running on the same tomcat instance (and has support for REST): http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/ While tomcat is running, I can issue a PUT like this: echo "Hello World" | curl -S -T - http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 When I "GET" it like this: curl http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 Will yield: Hello World What I need to do is create a POST which will put my entire Person generated JSON and create a new cache: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person And when I do a "GET" on this previous URL, it should look like this: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So, far, this is what my PUT looks like: @PUT @Path("/ehcache/rest/person") @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Response createCache() { ResponseBuilder response = Response.ok(PersonUtil.getPerson(), MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); return response.build(); } Question(s): (1) Is this the correct way to write the PUT? (2) What should I write inside the createCache() method to have it PUT my generated JSON into: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person (3) What would the command line CURL comment look like to use the PUT? Thanks for taking the time to read this...

    Read the article

  • Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

    - by w128
    I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • run shell command from java

    - by Aykut
    Hi, I am working on an application an have an issue about running shell command from java application. here is the code: public String execRuntime(String cmd) { Process proc = null; int inBuffer, errBuffer; int result = 0; StringBuffer outputReport = new StringBuffer(); StringBuffer errorBuffer = new StringBuffer(); try { proc = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); } catch (IOException e) { return ""; } try { response.status = 1; result = proc.waitFor(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return ""; } if (proc != null && null != proc.getInputStream()) { InputStream is = proc.getInputStream(); InputStream es = proc.getErrorStream(); OutputStream os = proc.getOutputStream(); try { while ((inBuffer = is.read()) != -1) { outputReport.append((char) inBuffer); } while ((errBuffer = es.read()) != -1) { errorBuffer.append((char) errBuffer); } } catch (IOException e) { return ""; } try { is.close(); is = null; es.close(); es = null; os.close(); os = null; } catch (IOException e) { return ""; } proc.destroy(); proc = null; } if (errorBuffer.length() > 0) { logger .error("could not finish execution because of error(s)."); logger.error("*** Error : " + errorBuffer.toString()); return ""; } return outputReport.toString(); } but when i try to exec command like : /export/home/test/myapp -T "some argument" myapp reads "some argument" as two seperated arguments.but I want to read "some argument" as only a argument. when i directly run this command from terminal, it executed successfully. I tried '"some argument"' ,""some argument"" , "some\ argument" but did not work for me. how can i read this argument as one argument. Thnaks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 892 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900 901 902 903  | Next Page >