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  • Python - Things one MUST avoid

    - by Anurag Uniyal
    Today I was bitten again by "Mutable default arguments" after many years. I usually don't use mutable default arguments unless needed but I think with time I forgot about that, and today in the application I added tocElements=[] in a pdf generation function's argument list and now 'Table of Content' gets longer and longer after each invocation of "generate pdf" :) My question is what other things should I add to my list of things to MUST avoid? 1 Mutable default arguments 2 import modules always same way e.g. 'from y import x' and 'import x' are totally different things actually they are treated as different modules see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1459236/module-reimported-if-imported-from-different-path 3 Do not use range in place of lists because range() will become an iterator anyway, so things like this will fail, so wrap it by list myIndexList = [0,1,3] isListSorted = myIndexList == range(3) # will fail in 3.0 isListSorted = myIndexList == list(range(3)) # will not same thing can be mistakenly done with xrange e.g myIndexList == xrange(3). 4 Catching multiple exceptions try: raise KeyError("hmm bug") except KeyError,TypeError: print TypeError It prints "hmm bug", though it is not a bug, it looks like we are catching exceptions of type KeyError,TypeError but instead we are catching KeyError only as variable TypeError, instead use try: raise KeyError("hmm bug") except (KeyError,TypeError): print TypeError

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  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

    - by Quentin T.
    1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

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  • Access 2007 and Special/Unicode Characters in SQL

    - by blockcipher
    I have a small Access 2007 database that I need to be able to import data from an existing spreadsheet and put it into our new relational model. For the most part this seems to work pretty well. Part of the process is attempting to see if a record already exists in a target table using SQL. For example, if I extract book information out of the current row in the spreadsheet, it may contain a title and abstract. I use SQL to get the ID of a matching record, if it exists. This works fine except when I have data that's in a non-English language. In this case, it seems that there is some punctuation that is causing me problems. At least I think it's punctuation as I do have some fields that do not have punctuation and are non-English that do not give me any problems. Is there a built-in function that can escape these characters? Currently I have a small function that will escape the single quote character, but that isn't enough. Or, is there a list of Unicode characters that can interfere with how SQL wants data quoted? Thanks in advance.

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  • I am not able to update form data to MySQL using PHP and jQuery

    - by Jimson Jose
    My problem is that I am unable to update the values entered in the form. I have attached all the files. I'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. What happens is that I'm able to add and delete records from form using jQuery and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but I am not able to update data which was retrieved from the database. The file structure is as follows: index.php is a file with jQuery functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refreshing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - Delete is an function called from index.php to delete record from MySQL database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from MySQL table, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is written for MySQL) I have tried in many ways - at last I had figured out that data is not being transferred from update-form.php to update.php; there is a small problem in jQuery AJAX function where it is not transferring data to update.php page. Something is missing in calling update.php page it is not entering into that page. I am new bee in programming. I had collected this script from many forums and made this one. So I was limited in solving this problem. I came to know that this is good platform for me and many where we get a help to create new things. Please find the link below to download all files which is of 35kb (virus free assurance): download mysmallform files in ZIPped format, including mysql query

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  • How can I free all allocated memory at once?

    - by Tommy
    Here is what I am working with: char* qdat[][NUMTBLCOLS]; char** tdat[]; char* ptr_web_data; // Loop thru each table row of the query result set for(row_index = 0; row_index < number_rows; row_index++) { // Loop thru each column of the query result set and extract the data for(col_index = 0; col_index < number_cols; col_index++) { ptr_web_data = (char*) malloc((strlen(Data) + 1) * sizeof(char)); memcpy (ptr_web_data, column_text, strlen(column_text) + 1); qdat[row_index][web_data_index] = ptr_web_data; } } tdat[row_index] = qdat[col_index]; After the data is used, the memory allocated is released one at a time using free(). for(row_index = 0; row_index < number_rows; row_index++) { // Loop thru all columns used for(col_index = 0; col_index < SARWEBTBLCOLS; col_index++) { // Free memory block pointed to by results set array free(tdat[row_index][col_index]); } } Is there a way to release all the allocated memory at once, for this array? Thank You.

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  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

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  • Extending URIs with 2 queries (i.e. 'viewauthorbooks.php?authorid=4' AND 'orderby=returndate") Possi

    - by Jess
    I have a link in my system as displayed above; 'viewauthorbooks.php?authorid=4' which works fine and generates a page displaying the books only associated with the particular author. However I am implementing another feature where the user can sort the columns (return date, book name etc) and I am using the ORDER BY SQL clause. I have this also working as required for other pages, which do not already have another query in the URI. But for this particular page there is already a paramter returned in the URL, and I am having difficulty in extending it. When the user clicks on the a table column title I'm getting an error, and the original author ID is being lost!! This is the URI link I am trying to use: <th><a href="viewauthorbooks.php?authorid=<?php echo $row['authorid']?>&orderby=returndate">Return Date</a></th> This is so that the data can be sorted in order of Return Date. When I run this; the author ID gets lost for some reason, also I want to know if I am using correct layout to have 2 parameters run in the address? Thanks.

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  • Using LINQ on observable with GroupBy and Sum aggregate

    - by Mark Oates
    I have the following block of code which works fine; var boughtItemsToday = (from DBControl.MoneySpent bought in BoughtItemDB.BoughtItems select bought); BoughtItems = new ObservableCollection<DBControl.MoneySpent>(boughtItemsToday); It returns data from my MoneySpent table which includes ItemCategory, ItemAmount, ItemDateTime. I want to change it to group by ItemCategory and ItemAmount so I can see where I am spending most of my money, so I created a GroupBy query, and ended up with this; var finalQuery = boughtItemsToday.AsQueryable().GroupBy(category => category.ItemCategory); BoughtItems = new ObservableCollection<DBControl.MoneySpent>(finalQuery); Which gives me 2 errors; Error 1 The best overloaded method match for 'System.Collections.ObjectModel.ObservableCollection.ObservableCollection(System.Collections.Generic.List)' has some invalid arguments Error 2 Argument 1: cannot convert from 'System.Linq.IQueryable' to 'System.Collections.Generic.List' And this is where I'm stuck! How can I use the GroupBy and Sum aggregate function to get a list of my categories and the associated spend in 1 LINQ query?! Any help/suggestions gratefully received. Mark

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  • Building a TriggerField with PopUp Window

    - by umit_alba
    Hi! I built a triggerField and when i press at it, i want to have a popup, that is appended to the button in the triggerfield(so when i click anywhere else it shall disappear and it shall pop out up to the button when i click at the button just like a datepicker-popup) I somehow managed to do something like that with an Ext.window but the offset and postion doesnt match. This all should be contained in a row editor. my Code: new Ext.grid.GridPanel({ store: Store, region:'center', height:150, //minWidth:700, autoScroll:true, listeners:{}, plugins:[new Ext.ux.grid.RowEditor()], tbar: [{ iconCls: 'icon-user-add', text: ' hinzufügen', handler: function(){ alert("abc"); } },{ ref: '../removeBtn', iconCls: 'icon-user-delete', text: 'löschen', disabled: true, handler: function(){ editor.stopEditing(); var s = grid.getSelectionModel().getSelections(); for(var i = 0, r; r = s[i]; i++){ store.remove(r); } } }], columns: [{ header: 'Monate', dataIndex: 'MONAT', width: 50, sortable: true, editor: new Ext.form.TriggerField({"id":"EditorMonate",items:[], "onTriggerClick":function(thiss){ if(!Ext.getCmp("autoWMonate")){ var monate=new Ext.Window({"x":Ext.getCmp("EditorMonate").x,closeAction:"hide",width:275,id:"autoWMonate",layout:"table",layoutConfig: {columns: 10}}); var text; for(var mon=1;mon<13;mon++){ text=mon; mon?mon:text="0"; if(mon<10) text="0"+mon; monate.items.add( new Ext.Button({cls:"x-btn",value:parseInt(text),selected:true,"text":text,id:text }}}));} } Ext.getCmp("autoWMonate").hidden?Ext.getCmp("autoWMonate").show():Ext.getCmp("autoWMonate").hide(); }}) } }] })

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  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

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  • Building Stored Procedure to group data into ranges with roughly equal results in each bucket

    - by Len
    I am trying to build one procedure to take a large amount of data and create 5 range buckets to display the data. the buckets ranges will have to be set according to the results. Here is my existing SP GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] Script Date: 03/28/2010 19:50:45 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] @idMenu int AS declare @myMin decimal(19,2), @myMax decimal(19,2), @myDif decimal(19,2), @range1 decimal(19,2), @range2 decimal(19,2), @range3 decimal(19,2), @range4 decimal(19,2), @range5 decimal(19,2), @range6 decimal(19,2) SELECT @myMin=Min(modelpropvalue), @myMax=Max(modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues where modelPropUnitDescriptionID=@idMenu set @myDif=(@myMax-@myMin)/5 set @range1=@myMin set @range2=@myMin+@myDif set @range3=@range2+@myDif set @range4=@range3+@myDif set @range5=@range4+@myDif set @range6=@range5+@myDif select @myMin,@myMax,@myDif,@range1,@range2,@range3,@range4,@range5,@range6 select t.range as myRange, count(*) as myCount from ( select case when modelpropvalue between @range1 and @range2 then 'range1' when modelpropvalue between @range2 and @range3 then 'range2' when modelpropvalue between @range3 and @range4 then 'range3' when modelpropvalue between @range4 and @range5 then 'range4' when modelpropvalue between @range5 and @range6 then 'range5' end as range from xmodelpropertyvalues where modelpropunitDescriptionID=@idmenu) t group by t.range order by t.range This calculates the min and max value from my table, works out the difference between the two and creates 5 buckets. The problem is that if there are a small amount of very high (or very low) values then the buckets will appear very distorted - as in these results... range1 2806 range2 296 range3 75 range5 1 Basically I want to rebuild the SP so it creates buckets with equal amounts of results in each. I have played around with some of the following approaches without quite nailing it... SELECT modelpropvalue, NTILE(5) OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues - this creates a new column with either 1,2,3,4 or 5 in it ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range1 and @range2 ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range2 and @range3 or maybe i could allocate every record a row number then divide into ranges from this?

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  • Sorting out POCO, Repository Pattern, Unit of Work, and ORM

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm reading a crapload on all these subjects: POCO Repository Pattern Unit of work Using an ORM mapper ok I see the basic definitions of each in books, etc. but I can't visualize this all together. Meaning an example structure (DL, BL, PL). So what, you have your DL objects that contain your CRUD methods, then your BL objects which are "mapped" using an ORM back to your DL objects? What about DTOs...they're your DL objects right? I'm confused. Can anyone really explain all this together or send me example code? I'm just trying to put this together. I am determining whether to go LINQ to SQL or EF 4 (not sure about NHibrernate yet). Just not getting the concepts as in physical layers and code layers here and what each type of object contains (just properties for DTOs, and CRUDs for your core DL classes that match the table fields???). I just need some guidance here. I'm reading Fowler's books and starting to read Evans but just not all there yet.

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  • How to set HTMLField's widget's height in Admin?

    - by Georgie Porgie
    I have a HTMLField in a model as it's the laziest way to utilize tinymce widget in Admin. But the problem is that the textarea field doesn't have "rows" property set. So the textarea doesn't have enough height comfortable enough for editing in Admin. Is there any way to set the height of HTMLField without defining a ModelAdmin class? Update: I solved the problem by using the following code: def create_mce_formfield(db_field): return db_field.formfield(widget = TinyMCE( attrs = {'cols': 80, 'rows': 30}, mce_attrs = { 'external_link_list_url': reverse('tinymce.views.flatpages_link_list'), 'plugin_preview_pageurl': reverse('tinymce-preview', args= ('tinymce',)), 'plugins': "safari,pagebreak,style,layer,table,save,advhr,advimage,advlink,emotions,iespell,inlinepopups,insertdatetime,preview,media,searchreplace,print,contextmenu,paste,directionality,fullscreen,noneditable,visualchars,nonbreaking,xhtmlxtras,template", 'theme_advanced_buttons1': "save,newdocument,|,bold,italic,underline,strikethrough,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,justifyfull,styleselect,formatselect,fontselect,fontsizeselect", 'theme_advanced_buttons2': "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,|,search,replace,|,bullist,numlist,|,outdent,indent,blockquote,|,undo,redo,|,link,unlink,anchor,image,cleanup,help,code,|,insertdate,inserttime,preview,|,forecolor,backcolor", 'theme_advanced_buttons3': "tablecontrols,|,hr,removeformat,visualaid,|,sub,sup,|,charmap,emotions,iespell,media,advhr,|,print,|,ltr,rtl,|,fullscreen", 'theme_advanced_buttons4': "insertlayer,moveforward,movebackward,absolute,|,styleprops,|,cite,abbr,acronym,del,ins,attribs,|,visualchars,nonbreaking,template,pagebreak", 'theme_advanced_toolbar_location': "top", 'theme_advanced_toolbar_align': "left", 'theme_advanced_statusbar_location': "bottom", 'theme_advanced_resizing': True, 'extended_valid_elements': "iframe[src|title|width|height|allowfullscreen|frameborder|webkitAllowFullScreen|mozallowfullscreen|allowFullScreen]", }, )) class TinyMCEFlatPageAdmin(FlatPageAdmin): def formfield_for_dbfield(self, db_field, **kwargs): if db_field.name == 'content': return create_mce_formfield(db_field) return super(TinyMCEFlatPageAdmin, self).formfield_for_dbfield(db_field, **kwargs)

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  • Correct Delphi compiler switches to stop in the user's code, not my component's

    - by Jeremy Mullin
    I'm modifying our VCL components so the end user's application links to our dcu files, instead of building our source code each time. We have everything working, but I want the debugger to stop on the user's code when an exception is raised. At first it would stop in our dcu and open the CPU window. I was able to prevent that by removing debug info from the dcu files. But now it still doesn't stop in the users code (like DevExpress libraries and others do). The following screencast is a short example. The first time I cause an exception in the DevExpress code, and the debugger correctly stops in my button event. The second time I cause an exception in my components, but the debugger doesn't have my button event on the call stack, and doesn't show me where the problem was. Any ideas why? http://screencast.com/t/NjhlOTRk Currently building the DCU's with these options: -$W+ -$D- -h -w -q Update: The TDataSet methods in between my component and the button event seem to cause this behavior. If I instead call a direct method of my table, I get the expected behavior. I'm guessing there isn't anything I can do about this, but I'm still curious why it happens.

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  • Cache data in SQL CE database

    - by user93422
    Background I have an SQL CE database, that is constantly updated (every second). I have a (web) application that allows a user to look at the data in real-time. At some point a user can click "take a snapshot" button, and it will open the snapshot in a different window. And then on that form, there is "print" and "download" buttons that will either generate a page for printing, or will stream the data as CSV file - but same data snapshot has to be used, i.e. I can't go to the DB to get latest data for that. Details SQL CE dabatase is exposed through WCF web service. Snapshot consists of up to 500 records, 10 columns each. Expiration time on the snapshot of 2 hours is sufficient. It is a low-traffic application, so I don't expect more than few (5) connections at the same time. Loosing snapshot is not a big deal, user can simply generate new one. database is accessed by self-hosted WCF web service using Linq-to-SQL. Web site is ASP.NET MVC hosted on UltiDev Cassini. database, and web site are most likely be on the same box, when deployed. The entire app is intranet bound. Problem I need to cache the snapshot of the data at the moment user pressed "take a snapshot" button, so that I can use same data to generate print page, or generate a file for download. Solution 1: Each time there is a need to generate a snapshot, I will create a table in the database. Since there are no temp tables in SQL CE, I will need to clean it up myself. Solution 2: Cache the snapshot in-memory on either DB server, or web server. Question: Is there anything wrong with proposed solutions? Any different solution suggestions?

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  • SQL Server 2005 Import from Excel

    - by user327045
    I'd like to know what my best option would be to import data from an excel file on a weekly or monthly basis. At first, I thought I would use SSIS, but after much struggle with seemingly simple tasks, I'm starting to rethink my plan. Would it be better/easier to just write the SQL by hand or use the services of an SSIS package? The basic process will be as follows: A separate process will download an .xls file to a local fileshare. The xls file will have a filename like: 'myfilename MON YY'. I will need to read the month and year from the the filename, reformat it to a sql date and then query a DimDate table to find the corresponding date key. For each row (after the first 2 header rows), insert the data with the date key, unless the row is a total row, then ignore. Here are some of the issues I've been encountering with SSIS: I can parse the date string from a flat file datasource, but can't seem to do it with an excel data source. Also, once parsed, i cannot seem to convert the string to a date in order to perform the lookup for the date key. For example, I want to do something like this: select DateKey from DimDate where ActualDate = convert(datetime, '01-' + 'JAN-10', 120) but i don't think it is possible to use the 'convert' or 'datetime' keywords in an expression builder. I have been also unable to find where I can edit the SQL to ignore the first 2 rows of data. I'm very skeptical of using SSIS because it seems like a Kludgy way of doing something that can probably be accomplished more efficiently writing the SQL yourself, but I may be forced to use SSIS. Thoughts?

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • Reading/Writing DataTables to and from an OleDb Database LINQ

    - by jsmith
    My current project is to take information from an OleDbDatabase and .CSV files and place it all into a larger OleDbDatabase. I have currently read in all the information I need from both .CSV files, and the OleDbDatabase into DataTables.... Where it is getting hairy is writing all of the information back to another OleDbDatabase. Right now my current method is to do something like this: OleDbTransaction myTransaction = null; try { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + Database); conn.Open(); OleDbCommand command = conn.CreateCommand(); string strSQL; command.Transaction = myTransaction; strSQL = "Insert into TABLE " + "(FirstName, LastName) values ('" + FirstName + "', '" + LastName + "')"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.CommandText = strSQL; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.close(); catch (Exception) { // IF invalid data is entered, rolls back the database myTransaction.Rollback(); } Of course, this is very basic and I'm using an SQL command to commit my transactions to a connection. My problem is I could do this, but I have about 200 fields that need inserted over several tables. I'm willing to do the leg work if that's the only way to go. But I feel like there is an easier method. Is there anything in LINQ that could help me out with this?

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  • Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

    - by Sid
    We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Custom Detail in Linq-to-SQL Master-Detail DataGridViews

    - by Andres
    Hi, looking for a way to create Linq-to-SQL Master-Detail WinForms DataGridViews where the Detail part of the Linq query is a custom one. Can do fine this: DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(".\\SQLExpress"); var myQuery = from o in db.Orders select o; dataGridView1.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = myQuery }; dataGridView2.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = dataGridView1.DataSource, DataMember = "OrderDetails" }; but I'd like to have the Detail part under my precise control, like var myQuery = from o in db.Orders join od in db.OrderDetails on o.ID equals od.OrderID into MyOwnSubQuery select o; and use it for the second grid: dataGridView2.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = dataGridView1.DataSource, DataMember = "MyOwnSubQuery" // not working... }; the real reason I want it is a bit more complex (I'd like to have the Detail part to be some not-pre-defined join actually), but I'm hoping the above conveyed the idea. Can I only have the Detail part as a plain sub-table coming out of the pre-defined relation or can I do more complex stuff with the Detail part? Does anyone else feel this is kind of limited (if the first example is the best we can do)? Thanks!

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  • Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Robert Harvey
    I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

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