Search Results

Search found 53148 results on 2126 pages for 'coder net'.

Page 903/2126 | < Previous Page | 899 900 901 902 903 904 905 906 907 908 909 910  | Next Page >

  • Data Access Layer - static list objects and caching

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i am devloping a site using .net MVC i have a data access layer which basically consists of static list objects that are created from data within my database. The method that rebuilds this data first clears all the list objects. Once they are empty it then add the data. Here is an example of one of the lists im using. its a method which generates all the UK postcodes. there are about 50 methods similar to this in my application that return all sorts of information, such as towns, regions, members, emails etc. public static List<PostCode> AllPostCodes = new List<PostCode>(); when the rebuild method is called it first clears the list. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); next it re-bulilds the data, by calling the GetAllPostCodes() method /// <summary> /// static method that returns all the UK postcodes /// </summary> public static void GetAllPostCodes() { using (fab_dataContextDataContext db = new fab_dataContextDataContext()) { IQueryable AllPostcodeData = from data in db.PostCodeTables select data; IDbCommand cmd = db.GetCommand(AllPostcodeData); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = (SqlCommand)cmd; DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); cmd.Connection.Open(); adapter.FillSchema(dataSet, SchemaType.Source); adapter.Fill(dataSet); cmd.Connection.Close(); // crete the objects foreach (DataRow row in dataSet.Tables[0].Rows) { PostCode postcode = new PostCode(); postcode.ID = Convert.ToInt32(row["PostcodeID"]); postcode.Outcode = row["OutCode"].ToString(); postcode.Latitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Latitude"]); postcode.Longitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Longitude"]); postcode.TownID = Convert.ToInt32(row["TownID"]); AllPostCodes.Add(postcode); postcode = null; } } } The rebuild occurs every 1 hour. this ensures that every 1 hour the site will have fresh set of cached data. the issue ive got is that occasionally if during a rebuild, the server will be hit by a request and an exception is thrown. The exception is "Index was outside the bounds of the array." it is due to when a list is being cleared. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); - // throws exception - although its not always in regard to this list. Once this exception is thrown application dies, All users are affected. I have to restart the server to fix it. i have 2 questions... If i utilise caching instead of static objects would this help ? Is there any way i can say "while the rebuild is taking place, wait for it to complete until accepting requests" any help is most appricaiated ;) truegilly

    Read the article

  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • [Flex 4 and .Net] Retrieving tables from SQL database

    - by mG
    Hi everyone, As the title says, I want to retrieve tables of data from a SQL database, using Flex 4 and .Net WebService. I'm new to both Flex and DotNet. Please tell me a proper way to do it. This is what I've done so far: Retrieving an array of string: (this works) .Net: [WebMethod] public String[] getTestArray() { String[] arStr = { "AAA", "BBB", "CCC", "DDD" }; return arStr; } Flex 4: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var ac:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); protected function btn_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { ws.getTestArray(); } protected function ws_resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { ac = event.result as ArrayCollection; Alert.show(ac.toString()); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:WebService id="ws" wsdl="http://localhost:50582/Service1.asmx?WSDL" result="ws_resultHandler(event)"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="10" y="30" label="Button" id="btn" click="btn_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application> Retrieving a DataTable: (this does not work) DotNet: [WebMethod] public DataTable getUsers() { DataTable dt = new DataTable("Users"); SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection("server = 192.168.1.50; database = MyDatabase; user id = sa; password = 1234; integrated security = false"); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter("select vFName, vLName, vEmail from Users", conn); da.Fill(dt); return dt; } Flex 4: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var ac:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); protected function btn_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { ws.getUsers(); } protected function ws_resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { ac = event.result as ArrayCollection; Alert.show(ac.toString()); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:WebService id="ws" wsdl="http://localhost:50582/Service1.asmx?WSDL" result="ws_resultHandler(event)"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="10" y="30" label="Button" id="btn" click="btn_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application>

    Read the article

  • What is the best way get and hold property reference by name in c#

    - by Jeff Weber
    I want to know if there is a better way (than what I'm currently doing) to obtain and hold a reference to a property in another object using only the object and property string names. Particularly, is there a better way to do this with the new dynamic functionality of .Net 4.0? Here is what I have right now. I have a "PropertyReference<T>" object that takes an object name and property name in the constructor. An Initialize() method uses reflection to find the object and property and stores the property Getter as an Action<T> and the property Setter as an Func<T>. When I want to actually call the property I do something like this: int x = _propertyReference.Get(); or _propertyReference.Set(2); Here is my PropertyReference<T> code. Please dissect and make suggestions for improvement. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; using System.Xml; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public class PropertyReference<T> : IPropertyReference { public string ComponentName { get; set; } public string PropertyName { get; set; } public bool IsInitialized { get { return (_action != null && _func != null); } } Action<T> _action; Func<T> _func; public PropertyReference() { } public PropertyReference(string componentName, string propertyName) { ComponentName = componentName; PropertyName = propertyName; } public void Initialize(IEntity e) { Object component = e.GetByName(ComponentName); if (component == null) return; Type t = e.GetByName(ComponentName).GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = t.GetProperty(PropertyName); _action = (T a) => pi.SetValue(component, a, null); _func = () => (T)pi.GetValue(component, null); } public void Reset() { _action = null; _func = null; } public void Set(T value) { _action.Invoke(value); } public T Get() { return _func(); } } } Note: I can't use the "Emit" functionality as I need this code to work on the new Windows Phone 7 and that does not support Emit.

    Read the article

  • User created Validator wont call Client side validation Javascript on 'complex' user control.

    Hi All, I have created a user control (from System.Web.UI.UserControl), and created my own validator for the user control (from System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator). Everything works ok until I try to get the user control to do client side validation. While trying to debug this issue I have set 'Control to Validate' to a text box instead of the custom user control, and the client side script works fine! It appears to me that it has an a issue with my composite user control I have created. Has anyone encountered this issue before? Has anyone else seen client side validation fail on custom user controls? Some extra info : The composite control is a drop down list and 'loader image', as it is a ajax enabled drop down list (using ICallbackEventHandler). I know that the client side javascript is being written to the page, and have placed an alert('random message') as the first line in the validator function that only appears if it is validating a text box (i.e. not when it is validating my custom control) Language : C# (ASP.NET 2.0) and jQuery 1.2.6 in aspx file : <rms:UserDDL ID="ddlUserTypes" runat="server" PreLoad="true" /> <rms:DDLValidator ID="userTypesVal" ControlToValidate="ddlUserTypes" ErrorMessage="You have not selected a UserType" runat="server" Text="You have not selected a UserType" Display="Dynamic" EnableClientScript="true" /> in validator code behind protected string ScriptBlock { get { string nl = System.Environment.NewLine; return "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + nl + " function " + ScriptBlockFunctionName + "(ctrl)" + nl + " {" + nl + " alert('Random message'); " + nl + " var selVal = $('#' + ctrl.controltovalidate).val(); " + nl + " alert(selVal);" + nl + " if (selVal === '-1') return false; " + nl + " return false; " + nl + " }" + nl + "</script>"; } } protected override void OnPreRender(EventArgs e) { if (this.DetermineRenderUplevel() && this.EnableClientScript) { Page.ClientScript.RegisterExpandoAttribute(this.ClientID, "evaluationfunction", this.ScriptBlockFunctionName); Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), this.ScriptBlockKey, this.ScriptBlock); } base.OnPreRender(e); } I know my ControlPropertiesValid() and EvaluateIsValid() work ok. I appreciate any help on this issue. Noel.

    Read the article

  • CSS Collapsing/Hiding divs with no data in <span>

    - by Chance
    I am trying to display an address which includes the following information: Title, division, address1, address2, town/state/zip, and country (5 seperate lines worth of data). The problem is sometimes the company may only have the title, address1, and town/state/zip yet other times it may be all but address2. This is determined upon a db record request server side. Therefore how can I make my output look proper when some of my labels will be blank? I would like div's that contain an empty span to be essentially collapsed/removed. My only idea of how was to use jquery and a selector to find all divs with blank spans (since thats all an asp.net label really is) and then remove those divs however this seems like such bad form. Is there any way to do this with css? Possible Code would be something like: $('span:empty:only-child').parent('div').remove(); Picture Examples (Ignore spacing/indentation issues which I will fix) Missing Division, Address2, and Country All Possible Fields The Html <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddressHeader" CssClass="lblBillingAddressHeader" Text="Billing Address:" /> <div style="position:relative; top:150px; left: 113px;"> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingDivision" CssClass="lblBillingShippingDivisionFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress2" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress3" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress4" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> </div> The CSS .test { position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px; height: 12px; width: 300px; } .lblBillingShippingDivisionFont { font-size: small; font-weight: bold; } .lblBillingShippingFont { font-size: 10.6px; }

    Read the article

  • usercontrol hosted in IE renders as a textbox

    - by coxymla
    On my ongoing saga to mirror the hosting of a legacy app on a clean box, I've hit my next snag. One page relies on a big .NET UserControl that on the new machine renders only as a big, greyed out textarea (greyed out vertical scrollbar on the right hand edge. Inspecting the source shows the expected object tag.) This is particularly tricky because nobody seems to know much about hosted UserControls and all the discussions data back to 2002-2004. The page is quite simple: <%@ Page language="c#" Codebehind="DataExport.aspx.cs" AutoEventWireup="false" Inherits="yyyyy.Web.DataExport" %> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" > <html> <head> <title>DataExport</title> <link rel="Configuration" href="/xxxxx/yyyyy/DataExport.config"> </head> <body style="margin:0px;padding:0px;overflow:hidden"> <OBJECT id="DataExport" style="WIDTH: 100%; HEIGHT: 100%; position:absolute; left: 0px; top:0px" classid="yyyyy.Common.dll#yyyyy.Controls.DataExport" VIEWASTEXT> </OBJECT> </body> </html> The config file referenced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="yyyyy"> <section name="dataExport" type="yyyyy.Controls.DataExportSectionHandler,yyyyy.Common" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <yyyyy> <dataExport> <layoutFile>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/layout.xml</layoutFile> <webServiceUrl>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/services/yyyyy.asmx</webServiceUrl> </dataExport> </yyyyy> </configuration> What I've checked: Security permissions should be OK, the site is trusted and adding a URL exception to grant FullTrust doesn't change anything. Config file is acessible over the web, layout.xml is accessible, ASMX shows the expected command list Machine.config grants GET permission for the usercontrol.config file. What perhaps looks fishy to me: The DataExport UserControl references Aspose.Excel to generate the spreadsheets it exports. When I navigate to the page and get a blank textbox, then run gacutil /ldl, nothing is in the local download cache. On the working machine, running the same command after viewing the page shows a laundry list of DLLs including the control DLL and the Aspose DLL.

    Read the article

  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

    Read the article

  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

    Read the article

  • MVC Entity Framework Model not returning correct data

    - by quagland
    Hi, Run into a strange problem while writing an ASP.NET MVC site. I have a view in my SQL Server database that returns a few date ranges. The view works fine when running the query in SSMS. When the view data is returned by the Entity Framework Model, It returns the correct number of rows but some of the rows are duplicated. Here is an example of what I have done: SQL Server code: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[A]( [ID] [int] NOT NULL, [PhID] [int] NULL, [FromDate] [datetime] NULL, [ToDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_A] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC)) ON [PRIMARY] go CREATE TABLE [dbo].[B]( [PhID] [int] NOT NULL, [FromDate] [datetime] NULL, [ToDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_B] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PhID] ASC )) ON [PRIMARY] go CREATE VIEW C as SELECT A.ID, CASE WHEN A.PhID IS NULL THEN A.FromDate ELSE B.FromDate END AS FromDate, CASE WHEN A.PhID IS NULL THEN A.ToDate ELSE B.ToDate END AS ToDate FROM A LEFT OUTER JOIN B ON A.PhID = B.PhID go INSERT INTO B (PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (100, '20100615', '20100715') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (1, NULL, '20100101', '20100201') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (1, 100, '20100615', '20100715') INSERT INTO B (PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (101, '20101201', '20101231') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (2, NULL, '20100801', '20100901') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (2, 101, '20101201', '20101231') So now, if you select all from C, you get 4 separate date ranges In the Entity Framework Model (which I call 'Core'), the view 'C' is added. in MVC Controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { CoreEntities db = new CoreEntities(); var clist = from c in db.C select c; return View(clist.ToList()); } } in MVC View: @model List<RM.Models.C> @{ foreach (RM.Models.C c in Model) { @String.Format("{0:dd-MMM-yyyy}", c.FromDate) <span>-</span> @String.Format("{0:dd-MMM-yyyy}", c.ToDate) <br /> } } When I run all this, it outputs this: 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 When it should do this (this is what the view returns): 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 15-Jun-2010 - 15-Jul-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 01-Dec-2010 - 31-Dec-2010 Also, I've run the SQL profiler over it and according to that, the query being executed is: SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], [Extent1].[FromDate] AS [FromDate], [Extent1].[ToDate] AS [ToDate] FROM (SELECT [C].[ID] AS [ID], [C].[FromDate] AS [FromDate], [C].[ToDate] AS [ToDate] FROM [dbo].[C] AS [C]) AS [Extent1] Which returns the correct data So it seems that the entity framework is doing something to the data in the meantime. To me, everything looks fine! Have I missed something? Cheers, Ben

    Read the article

  • Large File Download - Connection With Server Reset

    - by daveywc
    I have an asp.net website that allows the user to download largish files - 30mb to about 60mb. Sometimes the download works fine but often it fails at some varying point before the download finishes with the message saying that the connection with the server was reset. Originally I was simply using Server.TransmitFile but after reading up a bit I am now using the code posted below. I am also setting the Server.ScriptTimeout value to 3600 in the Page_Init event. private void DownloadFile(string fname, bool forceDownload) { string path = MapPath(fname); string name = Path.GetFileName(path); string ext = Path.GetExtension(path); string type = ""; // set known types based on file extension if (ext != null) { switch (ext.ToLower()) { case ".mp3": type = "audio/mpeg"; break; case ".htm": case ".html": type = "text/HTML"; break; case ".txt": type = "text/plain"; break; case ".doc": case ".rtf": type = "Application/msword"; break; } } if (forceDownload) { Response.AppendHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=" + name.Replace(" ", "_")); } if (type != "") { Response.ContentType = type; } else { Response.ContentType = "application/x-msdownload"; } System.IO.Stream iStream = null; // Buffer to read 10K bytes in chunk: byte[] buffer = new Byte[10000]; // Length of the file: int length; // Total bytes to read: long dataToRead; try { // Open the file. iStream = new System.IO.FileStream(path, System.IO.FileMode.Open, System.IO.FileAccess.Read, System.IO.FileShare.Read); // Total bytes to read: dataToRead = iStream.Length; //Response.ContentType = "application/octet-stream"; //Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + filename); // Read the bytes. while (dataToRead > 0) { // Verify that the client is connected. if (Response.IsClientConnected) { // Read the data in buffer. length = iStream.Read(buffer, 0, 10000); // Write the data to the current output stream. Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, length); // Flush the data to the HTML output. Response.Flush(); buffer = new Byte[10000]; dataToRead = dataToRead - length; } else { //prevent infinite loop if user disconnects dataToRead = -1; } } } catch (Exception ex) { // Trap the error, if any. Response.Write("Error : " + ex.Message); } finally { if (iStream != null) { //Close the file. iStream.Close(); } Response.Close(); } }

    Read the article

  • youtube - video upload failure - unable to convert file - encoding the video wrong?

    - by Anthony
    I am using .NET to create a video uploading application. Although it's communicating with YouTube and uploading the file, the processing of that file fails. YouTube gives me the error message, "Upload failed (unable to convert video file)." This supposedly means that "your video is in a format that our converters don't recognize..." I have made attempts with two different videos, both of which upload and process fine when I do it manually. So I suspect that my code is a.) not encoding the video properly and/or b.) not sending my API request properly. Below is how I am constructing my API PUT request and encoding the video: Any suggestions on what the error could be would be appreciated. Thanks P.S. I'm not using the client library because my application will use the resumable upload feature. Thus, I am manually constructing my API requests. Documentation: http://code.google.com/intl/ja/apis/youtube/2.0/developers_guide_protocol_resumable_uploads.html#Uploading_the_Video_File Code: // new PUT request for sending video WebRequest putRequest = WebRequest.Create(uploadURL); // set properties putRequest.Method = "PUT"; putRequest.ContentType = getMIME(file); //the MIME type of the uploaded video file //encode video byte[] videoInBytes = encodeVideo(file); public static byte[] encodeVideo(string video) { try { byte[] fileInBytes = File.ReadAllBytes(video); Console.WriteLine("\nSize of byte array containing " + video + ": " + fileInBytes.Length); return fileInBytes; } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("\nException: " + e.Message + "\nReturning an empty byte array"); byte [] empty = new byte[0]; return empty; } }//encodeVideo //encode custom headers in a byte array byte[] PUTbytes = encode(putRequest.Headers.ToString()); public static byte[] encode(string headers) { ASCIIEncoding encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] bytes = encoding.GetBytes(headers); return bytes; }//encode //entire request contains headers + binary video data putRequest.ContentLength = PUTbytes.Length + videoInBytes.Length; //send request - correct? sendRequest(putRequest, PUTbytes); sendRequest(putRequest, videoInBytes); public static void sendRequest(WebRequest request, byte[] encoding) { Stream stream = request.GetRequestStream(); // The GetRequestStream method returns a stream to use to send data for the HttpWebRequest. try { stream.Write(encoding, 0, encoding.Length); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("\nException writing stream: " + e.Message); } }//sendRequest

    Read the article

  • A better UPDATE method in LINQ to SQL

    - by Refracted Paladin
    The below is a typical, for me, Update method in L2S. I am still fairly new to a lot of this(L2S & business app development) but this just FEELs wrong. Like there MUST be a smarter way of doing this. Unfortunately, I am having trouble visualizing it and am hoping someone can provide an example or point me in the right direction. To take a stab in the dark, would I have a Person Object that has all these fields as Properties? Then what, though? Is that redundant since L2S already mapped my Person Table to a Class? Is this just 'how it goes', that you eventually end up passing 30 parameters(or MORE) to an UPDATE statement at some point? For reference, this is a business app using C#, WinForms, .Net 3.5, and L2S over SQL 2005 Standard. Here is a typical Update Call for me. This is in a file(BLLConnect.cs) with other CRUD methods. Connect is the name of the DB that holds tblPerson When a user clicks save() this is what is eventually called with all of these fields having, potentially, been updated-- public static void UpdatePerson(int personID, string userID, string titleID, string firstName, string middleName, string lastName, string suffixID, string ssn, char gender, DateTime? birthDate, DateTime? deathDate, string driversLicenseNumber, string driversLicenseStateID, string primaryRaceID, string secondaryRaceID, bool hispanicOrigin, bool citizenFlag, bool veteranFlag, short ? residencyCountyID, short? responsibilityCountyID, string emailAddress, string maritalStatusID) { using (var context = ConnectDataContext.Create()) { var personToUpdate = (from person in context.tblPersons where person.PersonID == personID select person).Single(); personToUpdate.TitleID = titleID; personToUpdate.FirstName = firstName; personToUpdate.MiddleName = middleName; personToUpdate.LastName = lastName; personToUpdate.SuffixID = suffixID; personToUpdate.SSN = ssn; personToUpdate.Gender = gender; personToUpdate.BirthDate = birthDate; personToUpdate.DeathDate = deathDate; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseNumber = driversLicenseNumber; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseStateID = driversLicenseStateID; personToUpdate.PrimaryRaceID = primaryRaceID; personToUpdate.SecondaryRaceID = secondaryRaceID; personToUpdate.HispanicOriginFlag = hispanicOrigin; personToUpdate.CitizenFlag = citizenFlag; personToUpdate.VeteranFlag = veteranFlag; personToUpdate.ResidencyCountyID = residencyCountyID; personToUpdate.ResponsibilityCountyID = responsibilityCountyID; personToUpdate.EmailAddress = emailAddress; personToUpdate.MaritalStatusID = maritalStatusID; personToUpdate.UpdateUserID = userID; personToUpdate.UpdateDateTime = DateTime.Now; context.SubmitChanges(); } }

    Read the article

  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

    Read the article

  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

    Read the article

  • Parallel programming in C#

    - by Alxandr
    I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

    - by Leron
    The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

    Read the article

  • Regular expression to convert ul to textindent and back, with a different attribute value for first

    - by chapmanio
    Hi, This is a related to a previous question I have asked here, see the link below for a brief description as to why I am trying to do this. Regular expression from font to span (size and colour) and back (VB.NET) Basically I need a regex replace function (or if this can be done in pure VB then that's fine) to convert all ul tags in a string to textindent tags, with a different attribute value for the first textindent tag. For example: <ul> <li>This is some text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> <li> <ul> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </ul> </li> <li>More text!</li> <li> <ul> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </ul> </li> <li>More text!</li> </ul> Will become: <textformat indent="0"> <li>This is some text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> <li> <textformat indent="20"> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </textformat> </li> <li>More text!</li> <li> <textformat indent="20"> <li>This is some indented text</li> <li>This is some more text</li> </textformat> </li> <li>More text!</li> </textformat> Basically I want the first ul tag to have no indenting, but all nested ul tags to have an indent of 20. I appreciate this is a strange request but hopefully that makes sense, please let me know if you have any questions. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

    Read the article

  • WebServices does not interact with App

    - by daemonfire300
    I got a Silverlight App with-in a Web Project Web Silverlight The web contains a service: [WebService(Namespace = "svChat")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. //[System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class GetIPService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public GetIPService () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string GetIp() { return HttpContext.Current.Request.ServerVariables["HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR"]; } } And I got a class in my Silverlight App using the Service: public class Client { private string ip; private string created; #region Properties public string Ip { get { return ip; } set { ip = value; } } public string Created { get { return created; } set { created = value; } } #endregion public Client() { } public void SetIp() { ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoapClient scIpClient = new svChat.ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoapClient(); scIpClient.GetIpCompleted += new EventHandler<svChat.ServiceReference1.GetIpCompletedEventArgs>(IpService_Completed); scIpClient.GetIpAsync(); } private void IpService_Completed(object sender, ServiceReference1.GetIpCompletedEventArgs e) { this.ip = e.Result; } } After Client is created, SetIp() is called, and Client.Ip is added to a text box. Nothing happens. Ip = null. Service itselfs works, tested it. Getting Ip by the above code works. Gettings Ip via service through Silverlight App does not work. <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="GetIPServiceSoap" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:2090/svChat.Web/GetIPService.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="GetIPServiceSoap" contract="ServiceReference1.GetIPServiceSoap" name="GetIPServiceSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Any ideas? regards,

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation in ASP.NET

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have a strange situation may its a easy fix or something i may be missing but here is the question. i have a asp.net form with master page and my validation works great without any problem but the problems starts when i try to hook my click event to the server side, here is what i meant: i have a form with few fields on it and if the form is empty than it should STOP submitting, otherwise allow me to execute the server side script but its not happening, even my form is in invalid state (i do get error message saying i have to enter the required fileds) but still executing my server side script. i would like to execute my server side script only if the form is in valid state. here is my code: my master page <%@ Master Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="MasterPage.master.cs" Inherits="MasterPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>jQuery Validation in ASP.NET Master Page</title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2-vsdoc2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="head" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> my content page: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" Runat="Server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" Runat="Server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtName.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true }, <%=txtEmail.UniqueID %>: { required: true, email:true } }, messages: { <%=txtName.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } } }); }); </script> Name: <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" MaxLength="30" runat="server" /><br /> Email: <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmail" runat="server"></asp:TextBox><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" onclick="SubmitTheForm();" Text="Submit" /> </asp:Content> function SubmitTheForm() { SaveTheForm(); } function SaveTheForm() { debugger; var request = buildNewContactRequest(); ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "PostNewContact", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; }

    Read the article

  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

    Read the article

  • Align text box with menu control using boostrap

    - by JamesMitLondon
    Hi I am using bootstrap styles for my asp.net web application and I have a menu control at the top. I want to insert a search text box at the top right on the same line as the menu bar. Following is my code. Can anyone please suggest how to do this? Thanks. <div id="container"> <form runat="server" class="navbar-form navbar-left" role="search"> <div class = "navbar"> <div class="navbar-inner"> <div class="container"> <!-- .btn-navbar is used as the toggle for collapsed navbar content --> <a class="btn btn-navbar" data-target=".nav-collapse" data-toggle="collapse"> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> </a> <div class="nav-collapse collapse"> <asp:Menu ID="NavigationMenu" runat="server" EnableViewState="false" IncludeStyleBlock="false" Orientation="Horizontal" CssClass="navbar" StaticMenuStyle-CssClass="nav" StaticSelectedStyle-CssClass="active" DynamicMenuStyle-CssClass="dropdown-menu"> <Items> <asp:MenuItem Text="Home" ToolTip="Home"></asp:MenuItem> <asp:MenuItem Text="Music" ToolTip="Music"> <asp:MenuItem Text="Classical" ToolTip="Classical" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Rock" ToolTip="Rock" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Jazz" ToolTip="Jazz" /> </asp:MenuItem> <asp:MenuItem Text="Movies" ToolTip="Movies"> <asp:MenuItem Text="Action" ToolTip="Action" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Drama" ToolTip="Drama" /> <asp:MenuItem Text="Musical" ToolTip="Musical" /> </asp:MenuItem> </Items> </asp:Menu> <div class="form-group"> <input type="text" class="form-control" placeholder="Search"/> <button type="submit" class="btn btn-default">Submit</button> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </form> </div> `

    Read the article

  • Problem with continue in While Loop within Try/Catch in C# (2.0)

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, when i try to use in my ASPX Webpage in the Code Behind this try{ while() { ... db.Open(); readDataMoney = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE card = '" + customer.card + "';", db).ExecuteReader(); while (readDataMoney.Read()) { try { if (!readDataMoney.IsDBNull(readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Credit"))) { customer.credit = Convert.ToDouble(readDataMoney[readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Credit")]); } if (!readDataMoney.IsDBNull(readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Bonus"))) { customer.bonus = Convert.ToDouble(readDataMoney[readDataMoney.GetOrdinal("Bonus")]); } } catch (Exception ex) { Connector.writeLog("Money: " + ex.StackTrace + "" + ex.Message + "" + ex.Source); customer.credit = 0.0; customer.credit = 0.0; continue; } finally { } } readDataMoney.Close(); vsiDB.Close(); ... } }catch { continue; } The whole page hangs if there is a problem when the read from db isn't working. I tried to check for !isNull, but same problem. I have a lots of differend MDB Files to process, which are readonly (can't repair/compact) and some or others not. Same Design/Layout of Tables. With good old ASP Classic 3.0 all of them are processing with the "On Resume Next". I know I know. But that's how it is. Can't change the source. So the basic question: So is there any way to tell .NET to continue the loop whatever happens within the try loop if there is any exception? After a lots of wating time i get this exceptions: at System.Data.Common.UnsafeNativeMethods.IDBInitializeInitialize.Invoke(IntPtr pThis) at System.Data.OleDb.DataSourceWrapper.InitializeAndCreateSession(OleDbConnectionString constr, SessionWrapper& sessionWrapper) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionInternal..ctor(OleDbConnectionString constr, OleDbConnection connection) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection.Open() at GetCustomer(String card)Thread was being aborted.System.Data and System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReadInt16(IntPtr ptr, Int32 ofs) System.Data.ProviderBase.DbBuffer.ReadInt16(Int32 offset) System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value_I2() System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value() System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.GetValue(Int32 ordinal) System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.get_Item(Int32 index) Thread was terminated.mscorlib Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 899 900 901 902 903 904 905 906 907 908 909 910  | Next Page >