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• Thread is being killed by the OS

  - by Or.Ron

  I'm currently programming an app that extracts frames from a movie clip. I designed it so that the extraction will be done on a separate thread to prevent the application from freezing. The extraction process itself is taking a lot of resources, but works fine when used in the simulator. However, there are problems when building it for the iPad. When I perform another action (I'm telling my AV player to play while I extract frames), the thread unexpectedly stops working, and I believe it's being killed. I assume it's becauase I'm using a lot of resources, but not entirely sure. Here are my questions: 1. How can I tell if/why my thread stopping? 2. If it's really from over processing what should I do? I really need this action to be implemented. Heres some code im using: To create the thread: [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(startReading) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; I'll post any information you need, Thanks so much! Update I'm using GCD now and it populates the threads for me. However the OS still kills the threads. I know exactly when is it happening. when i tell my [AVplayer play]; it kills the thread. This issue is only happening in the actual iPad and not on the simulator

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• Which of these methods provides for the fastest page loading?

  - by chromedude

  I am building a database in MySQL that will be accessed by PHP scripts. I have a table that is the activity stream. This includes everything that goes on on the website (following of many different things, liking, upvoting etc.). From this activity stream I am going to run an algorithm for each user depending on their activity and display relevant activity. Should I create another table that stores the activity for each user once the algorithm has been run on the activity or should I run the algorithm on the activity table every time the user accesses the site? UPDATE:(this is what is above except rephrased hopefully in an easier to understand way) I have a database table called activity. This table creates a new row every time an action is performed by a user on the website. Every time a user logs in I am going to run an algorithm on the new rows (since the users last login) in the table (activity) that apply to them. For example if the user is following a user who upvoted a post in the activity stream that post will be displayed when the user logs in. I want the ability for the user to be able to access previous content applying to them. Would it be easiest to create another table that saved the rows that have already been run over with the algorithm except attached to individual users names? (a row can apply to multiple different users)

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• help with delete where not in query

  - by kralco626

  I have a lookup table (##lookup). I know it's bad design because I'm duplicating data, but it speeds up my queries tremendously. I have a query that populates this table insert into ##lookup select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc... I would like to simulate this behavior: delete from ##lookup insert into ##lookup select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc... This would clearly update the table correctly. But this is a lot of inserting and deleting. It messes with my indexes and locks up the table for selecting from. This table could also be updated by something like: delete from ##lookup where not in (select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc...) insert into ##lookup (select distinct col1,col2,... from table1...join...etc...) except if it is already in the table The second way may take longer, but I can say "with no lock" and I will be able to select from the table. Any ideas on how to write the query the second way?

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• Problem with LINQ to XML and Namespaces

  - by abtcabe

  I am having problems with working with a third party XML string that contains a Namespace with LINQ to XML. In the below code everything works find. I am able to select the xElement (xEl1) and update its value. 'Example Without Namespace Dim XmlWithOutNs = _ <?xml version="1.0"?> <RATABASECALC> <RATEREQUEST> <ANCHOR> <DATABASENAME>DatabaseName</DATABASENAME> <DATABASEPW>DatabasePw</DATABASEPW> </ANCHOR> </RATEREQUEST> </RATABASECALC> Dim xEl1 = XmlWithOutNs...<DATABASEPW>.FirstOrDefault If xEl1 IsNot Nothing Then xEl1.Value = "test" End If However, in the below code the xElement (xEl2) returns Nothing. The only difference is the Namespace (xmlns="http://www.cgi.com/Ratabase) 'Example With Namespace Dim XmlWithNs = _ <?xml version="1.0"?> <RATABASECALC xmlns="http://www.cgi.com/Ratabase"> <RATEREQUEST> <ANCHOR> <DATABASENAME>DatabaseName</DATABASENAME> <DATABASEPW>DatabasePw</DATABASEPW> </ANCHOR> </RATEREQUEST> </RATABASECALC> Dim xEl2 = XmlWithNs...<DATABASEPW>.FirstOrDefault If xEl2 IsNot Nothing Then xEl2.Value = "test" End If So my questions are: 1. Why is this happening? 2. How do I resolve this issue?

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• Icons in menu are smaller than they should be

  - by martinpelant

  Hello I have a little problem. All the icons in my apk are smaller than the same icons in other apps (Gmail etc.) This is how it looks like in my apk and this is the same icon in Gmail.apk. I have copied these icons directly from SDK to the specific folders for hdpi, mdpi and ldpi. Here is an example of a hdpi icon I use and my menu.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:id="@+id/refresh" android:title="@string/refresh" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_refresh" /> <item android:id="@+id/add" android:title="@string/add" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_add" /> <item android:id="@+id/login" android:title="@string/account" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_login" /> </menu> Does anybody know how to make these icon have the same size as in other apk's? I have tried the asset studio with no effect. UPDATE: If I reference an icon directly from android (android:drawable) then it has normal size. However not all icons can be referenced.

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• How can I make this jQuery plugin chainable after all image load events have completed?

  - by BumbleB2na

  [UPDATE] Solution I decided on: Decided that passing in a callback to the plugin will take care of firing an event once all images have completed loading. Chaining is also still possible. Updated Fiddle I am building a chainable jQuery plugin that can load images dynamically. (View the following code as a JSFiddle) Html: <img data-img-src="http://www.lubasf.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2009/03/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> <img data-img-src="http://buffered.io/uploads/2008/10/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> Instead of adding in a src attribute, I give these images a data-img-src attribute. My plugin uses the value of that to fill the src. Also, these images are hidden to begin with. jQuery plugin: (function(jQuery) { jQuery.fn.loadImages = function() { var numToLoad = jQuery(this).length; var numLoaded = 0; jQuery(this).each(function() { if(jQuery(this).attr('src') == undefined) { return jQuery(this).load(function() { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. }).attr('src', jQuery(this).attr('data-img-src')); } else { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. } }); // this works if uncommented, but returns before all .load() events have completed //return this; }; })(jQuery); // I want to chain a .fadeIn() after all images have completed loading $('img[data-img-src]').loadImages().fadeIn(); Is there a way to make this plugin chainable, and have my fadeIn() happen after all images have loaded?

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• issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

  - by ambertch

  I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

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• Altering sql tables based on condition

  - by Parker

  Is there any possible way to add a row of data to only some of the tables in a database? I am not sure what parameter I could use amongst the tables to compare them to each other. Any Ideas? For Example: My database has tables that are (let's say) group A tables, and tables that are group B. I want to add a row to only the group B tables while leaving the group A tables untouched. Sorry I should have been a bit more specific. The tables that need to have a row added will change. My application monitors inventory in different store locations(each table in my database represents a store). When I need to add an item to inventory(the items are rows in the tables) I don't want to have to manually add the row to all the store tables. My problem is: Not all the tables in the database represent stores. For instance one table stores the user login data. Obviously I do not want to add the new row to this table. How do I update only the tables that represent stores?

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• Symfony 1.3: Any opinion about this code? Coud be shorter or better?

  - by user248959

  Hi, I need your opinion about this code below. I have a list of messages: each message has a link that change the state of the message (read - non read). In the partial "_message" i have this: <div class="switching_link" id="switching_link_<?php echo $message ?>"> echo include_partial('link_switch_state', array('message' => $message)) </div> In the partial "_link_switch_state" i have this: if((int)$message->getState() == 1) { $string_state_message="non read"; } else { $string_state_message="read"; } echo link_to_remote('Mark as '.$string_state_message, array( 'url' => 'message/switchState?id='.$message->getId(), 'update' => 'switching_link_'.$message, "complete" => "switchClassMessage('$message');", )); And in message/actions/actions.class.php i have this: public function executeSwitchState(sfWebRequest $request) { // searching the message we want to change its state. $this->messages = Doctrine::getTable('Message')->findById($request->getParameter('id')); // changing the state of the message. if($this->messages[0]->getState() == 1) { $this->messages[0]->setState(0); } else { $this->messages[0]->setState(1); } $this->messages[0]->save(); // rendering the partial that shows the link ("Mark as read/non read"). return $this->renderPartial('mensaje/link_switch_state', array( 'message' => $this->messages[0])); } Regards Javi

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• How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

  - by andnil

  When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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• Dealloc'd Predicate crashing iPhone App!

  - by DVG

  To preface, this is a follow up to an inquiry made a few days ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2981803/iphone-app-crashes-when-merging-managed-object-contexts Short Version: EXC_BAD_ACCESS is crashing my app, and zombie-mode revealed the culprit to be my predicate embedded within the fetch request embedded in my Fetched Results Controller. How does an object within an object get released without an explicit command to do so? Long Version: Application Structure Platforms View Controller - Games View Controller (Predicated upon platform selection) - Add Game View Controller When a row gets clicked on the Platforms view, it sets an instance variable in Games View for that platform, then the Games Fetched Results Controller builds a fetch request in the normal way: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController{ if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } //build the fetch request for Games NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Game" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; //predicate NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"platform == %@", selectedPlatform]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; //sort based on name NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; //fetch and build fetched results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; [predicate release]; [request release]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; return fetchedResultsController; } At the end of this method, the fetchedResultsController's _fetch_request - _predicate member is set to an NSComparisonPredicate object. All is well in the world. By the time - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section gets called, the _predicate is now a Zombie, which will eventually crash the application when the table attempts to update itself. I'm more or less flummoxed. I'm not releasing the fetched results controller or any of it's parts, and the only part getting dealloc'd is the predicate. Any ideas?

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• How do I assign a rotating category to database entries in the order the records come in?

  - by Stomped

  I have a table which gets entries from a website, and as those entries go into the database, they need to be assigned the next category on a list of categories that may be changed at any time. Because of this reason I can't do something simple like for mapping the first category of 5 to IDs 1, 6, 11, 16. I've considered reading in the list of currently possibly categories, and checking the value of the last one inserted, and then giving the new record the next category, but I imagine if two requests come in at the same moment, I could potentially assign them both the same category rather then in sequence. So, my current round of thinking is the following: lock the tables ( categories and records ) insert the newest row into records get the newest row's ID select the row previous to the insertl ( by using order by auto_inc_name desc 0, 1 ) take the previous row's category, and grab the next one from the cat list update the new inserted row unlock the table I'm not 100% sure this will work right, and there's possibly a much easier way to do it, so I'm asking: A. Will this work as I described in the original problem? B. Do you have a better/easier way to do this? Thanks ~

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• JVM terminated. Exit code = -1

  - by Lex

  Hello, I've been using Eclipse for some time already, and I didn't have any problems with it. However, when I tried to generate some javadoc, I found that I didn't have the SDK installed. I installed jdk 6u23, and from then on, Eclipse hasn't been working. At first it told me it couldn't find a JRE/SDK. After copying and placing the JRE in the Eclipse folder, the error changed to this: http://i258.photobucket.com/albums/hh261/magical_7/Eclipse.png I've searched around for some solutions, and found a few of varying nature. However, none of them seemed to work. I've tried emptying my eclipse.ini file without success. Altering some values in eclipse.ini didn't work either. Installing Java SDK 1.5 didn't work. Does anyone have other possible solutions? Update: I tried reinstalling Eclipse, but it didn't fix the problem. I did notice that it's a 32bit version, while I'm running a 64bit system. However, if this were to be the problem, I find it strange that it hasn't been an issue earlier.

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• How to determine if a target will be executed?

  - by Scott Langham

  Hi, I'm writing an msbuild file and have something like this: <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateA</ValidateDependsOn> <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn> <Target Name="BuildA"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="BuildB"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateA"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildA --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateB"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildB --> </Target> Builds can take a while. Originally we had the Build steps depending on the Validate steps, but sometimes a validate step wouldn't run until the middle of the build and you would have wasted time getting there. So, we moved the validate steps to the start by using the ValidateDependsOn pattern to insert the targets to run up front. The problem now though is that sometimes during a build BuildB may not actually run, and this means I don't need and in fact, don't want ValidateB to run. Is there any way I can selectively update ValidateDependsOn by conditionally knowing which targets will actually be run? I'm looking for something equivalent to: <ValidateDependsOn Condition="TargetWillRun(BuildB)">$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn>

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• Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

  - by Rawling

  I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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• Building a calendar navigation in Rails (controller and view links)

  - by user532339

  Trying to get the next month when clicking the link_to. I've done the following in the view. <%= form_tag rota_days_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= hidden_field_tag(:next_month, @t1) %> <%= link_to 'Next Month', rota_days_path(:next_month => @next_month)%> </p> <% end %> class RotaDaysController < ApplicationController # GET /rota_days # GET /rota_days.json # load_and_authorize_resource respond_to :json, :html def index @rota_days = RotaDay.all @hospitals = Hospital.all @t1 = Date.today.at_beginning_of_month @t2 = Date.today.end_of_month @dates = (@t1..@t2) #Concat variable t1 + t2 together # @next_month = Date.today + 1.month(params[: ??? ] #Old if params[:next_month] # @next_month = Date.today >> 1 @next_month = params[:next_month] + 1.month @t1 = @next_month.at_beginning_of_month @t2 = @next_month.end_of_month @dates = (@t1..@t2) end @title = "Rota" respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @rota_days } end end I have identified that the reason why this may not be working is in because of the following in my controller @next_month = params[:next_month] + 1.month the last two called methods is defined only on time/date objects. but not on fixnum/string objects. I understand I am missing something from this Update I have found that the actual issue is that the `params[:next_month] is a string and I am trying to add a date to to it. Which means I need to convert the string to a date/time object. Console output: Started GET "/rota_days" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-12-14 22:14:36 +0000 Processing by RotaDaysController#index as HTML User Load (0.0ms) SELECT `users`.* FROM `users` WHERE `users`.`id` = 1 LIMIT 1 RotaDay Load (0.0ms) SELECT `rota_days`.* FROM `rota_days` Hospital Load (1.0ms) SELECT `hospitals`.* FROM `hospitals` Rendered rota_days/index.html.erb within layouts/application (23.0ms) Role Load (0.0ms) SELECT `roles`.* FROM `roles` INNER JOIN `roles_users` ON `roles`.`id` = `roles_users`.`role_id` WHERE `roles_users`.`user_id` = 1 AND `roles`.`name` = 'Administrator' LIMIT 1 Completed 200 OK in 42ms (Views: 39.0ms | ActiveRecord: 1.0ms)

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• UpdatePanel doesn't Refresh

  - by mrxrsd

  I have got a simple page with a HtmlInputHidden field. I use Javascript to update that value and, when posting back the page, I want to read the value of that HtmlInputHidden field. The Value property of that HtmlInputHidden field is on postback the default value (the value it had when the page was created, not the value reflected through the Javascript). I also tried to Register the HtmlInputHidden field with ScriptManager.RegisterHiddenField(Page, "MyHtmlImputHiddenField", "initialvalue") but it still only lets me read the 'initialvalue' even though I (through javascript) can inspect that the value has changed. I tried to hardcoded the rowid and, to my surprise, after postback gridview was exactly the same before the delete but the record was deleted from the database. (I´ve called the databind method). protected void gridViewDelete(object sender, GridViewDeleteEventArgs e) { bool bDelete = false; bool bCheck = false; if (hfControl.Value != "1") { // check relationship bCheck = validation_method(.......); if (bCheck) { bDelete = true; } } else { hfControl.Value = ""; bDelete = true; } if (bDelete) { //process delete } else { string script = string.Empty; script += " var x; "; script += " x = confirm('are u sure?'); "; script += " if (x){ " ; script += " document.getElementById('hfControl').value = '1'; "; script += " setTimeOut(__doPostBack('gridView','Delete$" + e.RowIndex + "'),0);"; script += " } "; ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, Page.GetType() , "confirm" , script ,true); } }

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• mutableCopyWithZone updating a property value.

  - by Jim

  I have a Class that I need to copy with the ability to make changes the value of a variable on both Classes. Simply put the classes need to remain clones of each other at all times. My understanding of the documentation is that I can do this using a shallow copy of the Class which has also been declared mutable. By shallow copying the pointer value for the variable will be cloned so that it is an exact match in both classes. So when I update the variable in the original the copy will be updated simultaneously. Is this right? As you can see below I have used mutableCopyWithZone in the class I want to copy. I have tried both NSCopyObject and allocWithZone methods to get this to work. Although I'm able to copy the class and it appears as intended, when updating the variable it is not changing value in the copied Class. - (id)mutableCopyWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { //ReviewViewer *copy = NSCopyObject(self, 0, zone); ReviewViewer *copy = [[[self class] allocWithZone:zone] init]; copy->infoTextViews = [infoTextViews copy]; return copy; } infoTextViews is a property declared as nonatomic, retain in the header file of the class being copied. I have also implemented the NSMutableCopying protocol accordingly. Any help would be great.

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• TCP/IP Implementation General Questions

  - by user2971023

  I've implemented the concepts shown here; http://wiki.unity3d.com/index.php/Simple_TCP/IP_Client_-_Server outside of unity and it works. (though i had to create the TCPIPServerApp from scratch as i could not find the base project anywhere). I have some general questions on how to use tcp/ip properly however. I've done some research on tcp/ip itself but I'm still a little confused. It seems like using the method above doesn't guarantee that I'll see the message (res). It just checks on every update to see if there is a different message in res. What if multiple messages are sent and the program lags or something, will i miss the earlier packet(s)? Should i instead do an array so it stores the last X messages? How do i know the data was received? Do I need to add a message id and build in my own ack into the data? Should i check to see if the port is in use before setting up a connection? Sorry for all the questions. This is all new to me but I enjoy this very much! ... Below already answered By Anton, Thanks It sounds like tcp uses its own packet numbering to ensure the packets end up in the right order on the other side. What if a packet is missed, are the subsequent packets thrown away? Or is this numbering and packet ordering, only for handling data that is broken out into multiple packets? TCP will automatically break the data into multiple packets if necessary right?

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• mvc design in a card game

  - by Hong

  I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

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• MSSQL Server using multiple ID Numbers

  - by vincer

  I have an web application that creates printable forms, these forms have a unique number on them, the problem is I have 2 forms that separate numbers need to be created for them. ie) Form1- Numbered 2000000-2999999 Form2- Numbered 3000000-3999999 dbo.test2 - is my form information table Tsel - is my autoinc table for the 3000000 series numbers Tadv - is my autoinc table for the 2000000 series numbers What I have done is create 2 tables with just autoinc row (one for 2000000 series numbers and one for 3000000 series numbers), I then created a trigger to add a record to the coresponding table, read back the autoinc number and add it to my table that stores the form information including the just created autoinc number for the right series of forms. Although it does work, I'm concerned that the numbers will get messed up under load. I'm not sure the @@IDENTITY will always return the right value when many people are using the system. (I cannot have duplicates and I need to use the numbering form show above. Thanks for any help See code below. ** TRIGGER ** CREATE TRIGGER MAKEANID2 ON dbo.test2 AFTER INSERT AS SET NOCOUNT ON declare @someid int declare @someid2 int declare @startfrom int declare @test1 varchar(10) select @someid=@@IDENTITY select @test1 = (Select name1 from test2 where sysid = @someid ) if @test1 = 'select' begin insert into Tsel Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end if @test1 = 'adv' begin insert into Tadv Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end update test2 set name2=(@someid2) where sysid = @someid SET NOCOUNT OFF

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• Website displays in chrome perfectly, but not in mozilla or IE

  - by Atharul Khan

  here are the code snippets for the html and css. It works finds in Google chrome, but when I try to display it in mozilla or IE, it shows something completely different. I cannot attach images as I do not have the required reputation. I really appreciate the help. Thank you! HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css"> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="ak.png"> <title>Home</title> </head> <body> <div class="Nav"> <nav> <ul class="navigation fade-in2"> <li><a href="#home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#about">About</a></li> <li><a href="#portfolio">Portfolio</a></li> <li><a href="#shop">Shop</a></li> <li><a href="#blog">Blog</a></li> <li><a href="#contact">Contact</a></li> </ul> </nav> </div> <div class="logo"><a href="#home"><img class="ak fade-in2" src="ak.png"></a></div> <div class="background"><img class="beauty" src="beauty.jpg"></div> <div class="header"> <h1 class="headerName fade-in">DESIGN | DEVELOP | BRAND</h1> <h4 class="service fade-in3"><a href="#portfolio">VIEW PORTFOLIO</a></h4> <h4 class="service fade-in3"><a href="#services">VIEW SERVICES</a></h4> </div> <!--<div class="mainbody"><p>safsdaf</p></div>--> </body> </html> CSS @-webkit-keyframes fadeIn { from { opacity:0; } to { opacity:1; } } @-moz-keyframes fadeIn { from { opacity:0; } to { opacity:1; } } @keyframes fadeIn { from { opacity:0; } to { opacity:1; } } * { padding: 0; margin: 0; } li { display: inline; font-size: 15px; font-family: verdana; } nav { width: 100%; text-align: right; background-color: #222222; padding: 0; margin: 0px; line-height: 47px; position: fixed; z-index: 100; } .ak{ width: 90px; height: 55px; z-index: 101; position: fixed; background: transparent; color: transparent; background-color: transparent; } .Nav a{ text-decoration: none; padding: 15px; } .Nav a:link{ color: #A7A7A7; } .Nav a:visited{ color: #A7A7A7; } .Nav a:hover{ color: #DBDBDB; transition: all 0.3s ease-out 0s; transition-property: all; transition-duration: 0.3s; transition-timing-function: ease-out; transition-delay: 0s; } .header { background-color: rgba(0,0,0, 0.25); width: 100%; height: 626px; text-align: center; position: fixed; z-index: 10; } .background { position: fixed; z-index: 8; } .beauty { width: 100%; height: 626px; } .headerName { font-size: 2.5em; text-align: center; color: #D3D3D3; padding: 180px; padding-bottom: 50px; margin: 0px; letter-spacing: 4px; font-weight: 100; font-family: 'Lato', sans-serif; } .fade-in { opacity:0; /* make things invisible upon start */ -webkit-animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; /* call our keyframe named fadeIn, use animation ease-in and repeat it only 1 time */ -moz-animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; -webkit-animation-fill-mode:forwards; /* this makes sure that after animation is done we remain at the last keyframe value (opacity: 1)*/ -moz-animation-fill-mode:forwards; animation-fill-mode:forwards; -webkit-animation-duration:1s; -moz-animation-duration:1s; animation-duration:1s; -webkit-animation-delay: 0.3s; -moz-animation-delay:0.3s; animation-delay: 0.3s; } .fade-in2 { opacity:0; /* make things invisible upon start */ -webkit-animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; /* call our keyframe named fadeIn, use animation ease-in and repeat it only 1 time */ -moz-animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; -webkit-animation-fill-mode:forwards; /* this makes sure that after animation is done we remain at the last keyframe value (opacity: 1)*/ -moz-animation-fill-mode:forwards; animation-fill-mode:forwards; -webkit-animation-duration:1s; -moz-animation-duration:1s; animation-duration:1s; -webkit-animation-delay: 0.6s; -moz-animation-delay:0.6s; animation-delay: 0.6s; } .fade-in3 { opacity:0; /* make things invisible upon start */ -webkit-animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; /* call our keyframe named fadeIn, use animation ease-in and repeat it only 1 time */ -moz-animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; animation:fadeIn ease-in 1; -webkit-animation-fill-mode:forwards; /* this makes sure that after animation is done we remain at the last keyframe value (opacity: 1)*/ -moz-animation-fill-mode:forwards; animation-fill-mode:forwards; -webkit-animation-duration:1s; -moz-animation-duration:1s; animation-duration:1s; -webkit-animation-delay: 0.9s; -moz-animation-delay:0.9s; animation-delay: 0.9s; } .service{ font-size: 14px; width: 190px; text-align: center; font-family: 'Lato', sans-serif; color: #D3D3D3; border: 2px #A7A7A7 solid; border-color: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.5); display: inline-block; border-radius: 5px; background-color: transparent; letter-spacing: 2px; } .service a{ text-decoration: none; display: block; padding: 15px 20px; } .service a:link{ color: #D3D3D3; } .service a:visited{ color: #D3D3D3; } .service a:hover{ background-color: rgba(255, 255, 255, 0.15); transition: background-color .15s ease-in; -webkit-transition: background-color .15s ease-in; -moz-transition: background-color .15s ease-in; -o-transition: background-color .15s ease-in; } UPDATE 1: I updated both browsers and it seems the css3 animations work perfectly fine on both browsers. What seems to be the problem is the positioning of the pages UPDATE 2: Here are the links to the different browser screen shots Chrome: https://www.dropbox.com/s/jlpa4vu51kdnews/Chrome.JPG InternetExplorer: https://www.dropbox.com/s/zbchs3su9ahxr0n/IE.JPG Mozilla Firefox: dropbox(.)com/s/fyalnhsha9ktadz/Mozilla.JPG (I can't post the third link because I don't have enough reputation)

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• I have a slight confusion with setting up Mercurial on my webserver...

  - by littlejim84

  I'm starting to use Mercurial on my web server (in this case MediaTemple's Grid). I've used SVN previously, though I'm not an expert of version control systems. I'm just needing a little help with clearing up some confusion with getting it set up optimally. I have a 'data' folder which is outside the web server root and that the browser cannot access. It was recommended to me before to have my Mercurial repositories setup here, then I would clone from here locally on my computer. I would also have a 'domains' folder that is basically the web server root and inside there is my actual domains where my websites are actually served to the browser - these would need to be updated from the 'data' repositories too. But with this in mind, after setting it up, it seems inefficient... I'm cloning to my local (that makes sense), adding, committing, pushing. That's fine... But then I'm then updating in my data repository folder and then updating in my domains folder to actually update my websites. Surely, I don't actually need this 'data' folder for repositories? Wouldn't my actual live 'domains' folders be the main repositories themselves? So I'm cloning locally and updating from these? Please help me clear some confusions with all this (if you can).

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• getting page info from a webpage while sharing facebook style

  - by user556167

  Hi all. I am writing an app to share a page to friends when browsing. To this end, I can get the url of the page to my app and display it on the screen. Could anyone tell me, how to improve this, to show the headline of the page and the picture of a page as it appears when a page is being shared to friends on facebook. Here is the code to get and display the url of the page: Intent intent = getIntent(); String action = intent.getAction(); String type = intent.getType(); String mNewLinkUrl=""; if (action != null && type != null && Intent.ACTION_SEND.equals(action) && "text/plain".equals(type)){ mNewLinkUrl = intent.getStringExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT); } TextView ptext = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.pagetext); ptext.append("\n"+mNewLinkUrl); Any insight will be appreciated. //update 1 found a method: use Jsoup to download the html as a Document. And use Elements and Element to get the data. For eg, the following is the code to get the links in imports in the html page: Elements imports = doc.select("link[href]"); for (Element link : imports) { Log.d(TAG,"link.tagName()"+link.tagName()+"link.attr(abs:href)"+link.attr("abs:href") +"link.attr(rel)"+link.attr("rel")); } But I am not able to figure out what attributes facebook exactly gets. Can anyone help me in this? Thank you.

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• modified closure warning in ReSharper

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

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