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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

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  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

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  • JPA - Performance with using multiple entity manager

    - by Nguyen Tuan Linh
    My situation is: The code is not mine I have two kinds of database: one is Dad, one is Son. In Dad, I have a table to store JNDI name. I will look up Dad using JNDI, create entity manager, and retrieve this table. From these retrieved JNDI names, I will create multiple entity managers using multiple Son databases. The problem is: Son have thousands of entities. It takes each Son database around 10 minutes to load all entities. If there is 4 Son databases, it will be 40 minutes. My question: Is there any way to load all entities and use them for all entity manager? Please look at the code below For each Son JNDI: Map<String, String> puSonProperties = new HashMap<String, String>(); puSonProperties.put("javax.persistence.jtaDataSource", sonJndi); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PUSon", puSonProperties); PUSon - All of them use the same persistence unit log.info("Verify entity manager for son: {0} - {1}", sonCode, emSon.find(Son_configuration.class, 0) != null ? "ok" : "failed!"); This is the actual code where the loading of all entities begins. 10 mins.

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  • Custom DataType in DataTemplate breaks WPF designer

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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  • How do I get a UIView to appear instantly?

    - by matsgrip
    I'm trying to create an activity indicator in iPhone app. The problem is that I cannot get it to appear before the actual task i want it to diplay during is already done. Is there something funky about the order in which the iPhone does stuff? Here is my problematic code (in my app delegate): -(BOOL)showProgressView: (NSString *) message { self.progress = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:window.frame]; UIImageView *img = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"squircle.png"]]; [img setAlpha:0.5]; [img setFrame:CGRectMake(94, 173, 133, 133)]; UIActivityIndicatorView *spinner = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(51.5, 51.5, 30, 30)]; spinner.activityIndicatorViewStyle = UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge; [img addSubview:spinner]; [self.progress addSubview:img]; [spinner startAnimating]; [img release]; [spinner release]; [window addSubview:self.progress]; return YES; } I then call this code like this: if ([appDelegate showProgressView:@"Loading..:"]) { //My actual code loads data and stuff here but that is not important //drawCtrl is a UIViewController subclass that is instantiated here UINavigationController *navController = [appDelegate navigationController]; [navController pushViewController:drawCtrl animated:YES]; [drawCtrl release]; } The problem is that my activity indicator does not appear until the new view controller is pushed onto the navController's stack. Can I control this in some way? Thanks in advance! -Mats

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  • Why does my ActivePerl program report 'Sorry. Ran out of threads'?

    - by Zaid
    Tom Christiansen's example code (à la perlthrtut) is a recursive, threaded implementation of finding and printing all prime numbers between 3 and 1000. Below is a mildly adapted version of the script #!/usr/bin/perl # adapted from prime-pthread, courtesy of Tom Christiansen use strict; use warnings; use threads; use Thread::Queue; sub check_prime { my ($upstream,$cur_prime) = @_; my $child; my $downstream = Thread::Queue->new; while (my $num = $upstream->dequeue) { next unless ($num % $cur_prime); if ($child) { $downstream->enqueue($num); } else { $child = threads->create(\&check_prime, $downstream, $num); if ($child) { print "This is thread ",$child->tid,". Found prime: $num\n"; } else { warn "Sorry. Ran out of threads.\n"; last; } } } if ($child) { $downstream->enqueue(undef); $child->join; } } my $stream = Thread::Queue->new(3..shift,undef); check_prime($stream,2); When run on my machine (under ActiveState & Win32), the code was capable of spawning only 118 threads (last prime number found: 653) before terminating with a 'Sorry. Ran out of threads' warning. In trying to figure out why I was limited to the number of threads I could create, I replaced the use threads; line with use threads (stack_size => 1);. The resultant code happily dealt with churning out 2000+ threads. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • Cannot hide a UIButton - Please help!

    - by Neurofluxation
    Hey again, I have the following code: visitSite.hidden = YES; For some reason, when I click a UIButton and call this piece of code, the visitSite button does not hide. The code is within this block: -(IBAction)welcomeButtonPressed:(id)sender { [UIButton beginAnimations:@"welcomeAnimation" context:NULL]; [UIButton setAnimationDuration:1.5]; [UIButton SetAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(nowHideThisSiteButton:finished:context:)]; [UIButton setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionCurlUp forView:self.view cache:YES]; ((UIView *)sender).hidden = YES; [UIButton commitAnimations]; } and the stop selector below: -(void)nowHideThisSiteButton:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL *)finished context:(void *)context { visitSite.hidden = YES; } I've also tried [visitSite setHidden:YES]; and that fails as well. ALSO I've noticed that the setAnimationDidStopSelector does not get called at all. Also, visitSite (when NSLogged) equals: <UIButton: 0x1290f0; frame = (0 0; 320 460); opaque = NO; autoresize = RM+BM; layer = <CALayer: 0x1290f0>> visitSite.hidden (when NSLogged) equals: NULL Any more ideas? :(

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  • Problem with interface implementation in partial classes.

    - by Bas
    I have a question regarding a problem with L2S, Autogenerated DataContext and the use of Partial Classes. I have abstracted my datacontext and for every table I use, I'm implementing a class with an interface. In the code below you can see I have the Interface and two partial classes. The first class is just there to make sure the class in the auto-generated datacontext inherets Interface. The other autogenerated class makes sure the method from Interface is implemented. namespace PartialProject.objects { public interface Interface { Interface Instance { get; } } //To make sure the autogenerated code inherits Interface public partial class Class : Interface { } //This is autogenerated public partial class Class { public Class Instance { get { return this.Instance; } } } } Now my problem is that the method implemented in the autogenerated class gives the following error: - Property 'Instance' cannot implement property from interface 'PartialProject.objects.Interface'. Type should be 'PartialProjects.objects.Interface'. <- Any idea how this error can be resolved? Keep in mind that I can't edit anything in the autogenerated code. Thanks in advance!

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  • Warning: passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type" What should I do

    - by Amarpreet
    Hi All, i am pretty new in iphone development. I have created one function to insert data into database. The code compiles successfully. But when comes to statement sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [s UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); it does not do anything but hangs AND in warning it says "passing Argument 1 of "sqlite3_bind_text" from incompatible pointer type"" for all statements in Red colour The same code i am using to fetch the data from database and its working on other viewController. Below in the code. Its pretty straightforward. Please help guys. -(void) SaveData: (NSString *)FirstName: (NSString *)LastName: (NSString *)State: (NSString *)Street: (NSString *)PostCode { databaseName = @"Zen.sqlite"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDire ctory, NSUserDomainMask,YES); NSString *documentsDir=[documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath=[documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; sqlite3 *database; if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sqlStatement = "insert into customers (FirstName, LastName, State, Street, PostCode) values(?, ?, ?, ?, ?)"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement, 1, [FirstName UTF8String], -1, SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,2,[LastName UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,3,[State UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,4,[Street UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(sqlStatement,5,[PostCode UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_step(sqlStatement); sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); }

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  • Is it possible to write a class that interacts with controls on my WPF form?

    - by Adam S
    Hi all, I'm trying to write a class that I can use to interact with a group of similar controls in my wpf application. I have hit a few roadblocks and now I am wondering if this is a poor approach to begin with. I want to do this primarily to make my code more manageable - I have to interact with around 200 - 300 controls with my code, and it could get very tricky to have all my code in the main window class. Here's something I'd like to be able to do: class ProcControl { private CheckBox * [] Boxes = new CheckBox[10]; ProcControl() { //set boxes 0-9 to point to the actual checkboxes } //provides mass checking/unchecking functionality public void Refactor(CheckBox box) { //see what box it is int box_index = 0; while (Boxes[box_index] != box) { box_index++; } } } This doesn't work as it is right now. I have not figured out how to get my Boxes[] array to point to the actual checkboxes on my form, so I can't interact with them yet. Is it even possible to make an array that points to a bunch of controls so that I may process their properties in a nice manner? Why can't I access the controls at all from inside my class?

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  • TFS and Forms Authentication

    - by George
    I don't know squat about TFS, other than as a user who has performed simple check in/outs. I just installed it locally and would like to do joint development with a friend. I was having trouble making my TFS web site on port 8080 visible (the whole scoop is here if your interested) and I wonder if it could be related to the fact that TFS is probably using Windows Authentication to identify the user. Can TFS be set up to use forms authentication? We probably need to set up a VPN, though that's a learning curve too. To use TFS, do our machines have to belong to a domain? We're not admin types, though he is better than me, though I would be interested in any feedback or advice on which path is likely to pan out the best. I already got AxoSoft OneTime working in this type of an environment and it suits us well, but I am tempted at all the bells & whistles with TFS and the ability to tie tracked bug items to code changes. As far as finding a good way to share code, do sites like SourceForge allow one to keep code secure among members only?

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  • Having a Python package install itself under a different name

    - by cool-RR
    I'm developing a package called garlicsim. (Website.) The package is intended for Python 2.X, but I am also offerring Python 3 support on a different fork called garlicsim_py3.(1) So both of these packages live side by side on PyPI, and Python 3 users install garlicsim_py3, and Python 2 users install garlicsim. The problem is: When third party modules want to use garlicsim, they should have one package name to refer to, not two. Sure, they can do something like this: try: import garlicsim except ImportError: import garlicsim_py3 as garlicsim But I would prefer not to make the developers of these modules do this. Is there a way that garlicsim_py3 will install itself under the alias garlicsim? What I want is for a Python 3 user to be able to import garlicsim and refer to the module all the time as garlicsim, but that it will really be garlicsim_py3. I know that the Distribute project does something like this: They make it so you can import setuptools and it will be redirected into their code. I have no idea how they do it. Any ideas? (1) I've reached the decision to support Python 3 on a fork instead of in the same code base; It's important for me that the code base will be clean, and I would really not want to introduce compatibilty hacks.

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  • Object not declared in scope

    - by jay
    I'm using Xcode for C++ on my computer while using Visual Studio at school. The following code worked just fine in Visual Studio, but I'm having this problem when using Xcode. clock c1(2, 3, 30); Everything works just fine, but it keeps giving me this error that says "Expected ';' before 'c1'" Fine, I put the ';' .. but then, it gives me this error: "'c1' was not declared in this scope" Here's the whole header code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class clock { private: int h; int m; int s; public: clock(int hr, int mn, int sec); }; clock::clock(int hr, int mn, int sec) { h = hr; m = mn; s = sec; } Here's the whole .cpp code: #include "clock.h" int main() { clock c1(2, 3, 30); return 0; } I stripped everything down to where I had the problem. Everything else, as far as I know, is irrelevant since the problem remains the same with just the mentioned above. Thanks in advance!

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  • Dojo Widgets not rendering when returned in response to XhrPost

    - by lazynerd
    I am trying to capture the selected item in a Dijit Tree widget to render remaining part of the web page. Here is the code that captures the selected item and sends it to Django backend: <div dojoType="dijit.Tree" id="leftTree" store="leftTreeStore" childrenAttr="folders" query="{type:'folder'}" label="Explorer"> <script type="dojo/method" event="onClick" args="item"> alert("Execute of node " + termStore.getLabel(item)); var xhrArgs = { url: "/load-the-center-part-of-page", handleAs: "text", postData: dojo.toJson(leftTreeStore.getLabel(item), true), load: function(data) { dojo.byId("centerPane").innerHTML = data; //window.location = data; }, error: function(error) { dojo.byId("centerPane").innerHTML = "<p>Error in loading...</p>"; } } dojo.byId("centerPane").innerHTML = "<p>Loading...</p>"; var deferred = dojo.xhrPost(xhrArgs); </script> </div> The remaining part of the page contains HTML code with dojo widgets. This is the code sent back as 'response' to the select item event. Here is a snippet: <div dojoType="dijit.layout.TabContainer" id="tabs" jsId="tabs"> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.BorderContainer" title="Dashboard"> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.ContentPane" region="bottom"> first tab </div> </div> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.BorderContainer" title="Compare"> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.ContentPane" region="bottom"> Second Tab </div> </div> </div> It renders this html 'response' but without the dojo widgets. Is handleAs: "text" in XhrPost the culprit here?

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

    - by Chris
    I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

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  • Creating ListView with check boxes...Android

    - by deewangan
    Hello, I am trying to create a listview that has check box beside each item. (i am following a code from the book android), but i can't get it to work, every time i run it, it crashes. since i am very new to this android staff, i have no clue what to do to get it to work, any help is appreciated.the code is below. *i have created two layout files in names of list and list_item. the code for the main activity: public class ListDemoActivity extends ListActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ String[] listItems = {"exploring", "android","list", "activities"}; private SimpleCursorAdapter adapter; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.lists); //setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter(this,android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, listItems)); //setContentView(R.layout.lists); Cursor c = getContentResolver().query(People.CONTENT_URI, null, null, null, null); startManagingCursor(c); String[] cols = new String[]{People.NAME}; int[] names = new int[]{R.id.row_tv}; adapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this,R.layout.list_item,c,cols,names); this.setListAdapter(adapter); } } the lists file content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> and the list_item file content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>

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  • url rewrite & redirect question

    - by Shawn
    Say currently I have url like : http://mydomain.com/showpost.php?p=123 Now I want to make it prettier : http://mydomain.com/123/post-title I'm using apache rewrite which grabs segment '123' and put the url back to http://mydomain.com/showpost.php?p=123 OK. Here is the problem. I want to redirect the original non-pretty urls which were indexed by Google to the pretty versions, I want this because I heard that Google may punish me if he sees multiple urls pointing to identical content. So I need to redirect /showpost.php?p=123 to /123/post-title This I have to do in my php code coz there's no way Apache to be able to figure out the 'post-title', but if I put the redirect code in php code, then it will be a infinite loop, such as : Request : /showpost.php?p=123 redirected to : /123/post-title rewritten to: /showpost.php?p=123 redirected again to : /123/post-title ... So on and so forth. Sorry I should Google the solution first but I really don't know how to describe my situation in English to make Google return reasonable results. Please help me. Thanks.

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  • SharePoint Visual web part and Oracle connection problem

    - by Rishi
    Hi, I'm trying to build a "visual web part" for SharePoint 2010 which should connect to Oracle table and display records on SharePoint page.For development, Oracle 11g client (with ODP.net) ,SharePoint server 2010, Visual Studio 2010 and Oracle 10g express all running on my machine. First,I've written sample code in ASP.NET web app to connect my local Oracle table and display data in grid view and it works fine. My code is , OracleConnection con; try { // Connect string constr = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=localhost)(PORT=1521)))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=XE)));User Id=SYSTEM; Password=password"; con = new OracleConnection(constr); //Open database connection con.Open(); // Execute a SQL SELECT OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand("select * from T_ACTIONPOINTS WHERE AP_STATUS='Active' ", con); OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView.DataSource = dr; GridView.DataBind(); GridView.AllowPaging = true; } catch (Exception e) { lblError.Text = e.Message; } Now, I'm trying to create new "SharePoint" visual web part project and using same code and deploying it on my local SP server. But when it runs , I get following error here is my solution explorer, It looks something wrong in compatibility.Can someone point me in right direction ?

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  • VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

    - by pu.griffin
    When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

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  • Problems pulling data from NSMutableArray for MapKit?

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I have a class (DataImporter) which has the code to download an RSS feed. I also have a view and separate class (TableView) which displays the data in a UITableView and starts the parsing process, storing parsed information in an NSMutableArray (items). Now I wish to add a UIMapView which displays the items in the items NSMutableArray. I'm struggling to transfer the data into the new class (mapView) to show it in the map - and I preferably don't want to have to create a new class to download the data again for the map. Is there a way I can transfer the information from the NSMutableArray (items) to the mapView? Thanks. Code for viewDidLoad MapKit: Data *data = nil; NSString *ilocation = [data locations]; NSString *ilocation2 = @"New Zealand"; NSString *inewlString; inewlString = [ilocation stringByAppendingString:ilocation2]; NSLog(@"inewlString=%@",inewlString); if(forwardGeocoder == nil) { forwardGeocoder = [[BSForwardGeocoder alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; } // Forward geocode! [forwardGeocoder findLocation: inewlString]; Code for parsing data into NSMutable Array: - (void)beginParsing { NSLog(@"Parsing has begun"); //self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; // Allocate the array for song storage, or empty the results of previous parses if (incidents == nil) { NSLog(@"Grabbing array"); self.datas = [NSMutableArray array]; } else { [datas removeAllObjects]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } // Create the parser, set its delegate, and start it. self.parser = [[DataImporter alloc] init]; parser.delegate = self; [parser start]; }

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  • Encoding MySQL text fields into UTF-8 text files - problems with special characters

    - by Matt Andrews
    I'm writing a php script to export MySQL database rows into a .txt file formatted for Adobe InDesign's internal markup. Exports work, but when I encounter special characters like é or umlauts, I get weird symbols (eg Chloë Hanslip instead of Chloë Hanslip). Rather than run a search and replace for every possible weird character, I need a better method. I've checked that when the text hits the database, it's saved properly - in the database I see the special characters. My export code basically runs some regular expressions to put in the InDesign code tags, and I'm left with the weird symbols. If I just output the text to the browser (rather than prompt for a text file download), it displays properly. When I save the file I use this code: header("Content-disposition: attachment; filename=test.txt"); header("Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8"); I've tried various combinations of utf8_encode() and iconv() to no avail. Can anybody point me in the right direction here?

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  • How to generate hibernate POJO classes programmatically?

    - by Vatsala
    Hi I am aware of the Hibernate Eclipse plugin that helps us (through a series of screens and button clicks) to generate the POJO and DAO classes for the underlying tables. But I would like to mimic this in a runtime environment, i.e. I would like to be able to do the exact same steps programmatically , where I should be able to supply the .cfg.xml file, the reveng.xml file, the database URL, the destination folder, via a command line/ parameters within main(String[] args).. Apparently there is no such tool available which works in a pure Hibernate scenario. There is one which is tuned to generate code for the spring framework - but thats not of direct use to me right now. I tried downloading hibernate-tools.jar's source code for the eclipse plugin, but right now the src code download link at hibernate.org(new design) has been disabled for some reason. Has anyone handled such a thing before? Or can you give me some clues to do this? I have tried a certain JDBCReader class's object, the rationale being read all tables using JDBCReader's methods and then figure out how to use hbm2POJO generator class....

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  • Adding a UIPickerView over a UITabBarController

    - by Kai
    I'm trying to have a UIPickerView slide from the bottom of the screen (over the top of a tab bar) but can't seem to get it to show up. The actual code for the animation is coming from one of Apple's example code projects (DateCell). I'm calling this code from the first view controller (FirstViewController.m) under the tab bar controller. - (IBAction)showModePicker:(id)sender { if (self.modePicker.superview == nil) { [self.view.window addSubview:self.modePicker]; // size up the picker view to our screen and compute the start/end frame origin for our slide up animation // // compute the start frame CGRect screenRect = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; CGSize pickerSize = [self.modePicker sizeThatFits:CGSizeZero]; CGRect startRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); self.modePicker.frame = startRect; // compute the end frame CGRect pickerRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height - pickerSize.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); // start the slide up animation [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; // we need to perform some post operations after the animation is complete [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.modePicker.frame = pickerRect; // shrink the vertical size to make room for the picker CGRect newFrame = self.view.frame; newFrame.size.height -= self.modePicker.frame.size.height; self.view.frame = newFrame; [UIView commitAnimations]; // add the "Done" button to the nav bar self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.doneButton; }} Whenever this action fires via a UIBarButtonItem that lives in a UINavigationBar (which is all under the FirstViewController) nothing happens. Can anyone please offer some advice?

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