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  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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  • Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

    - by Icerman
    I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

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  • How do I get Asp.net MVC BeginForm to add closing tag correctly?

    - by Matt
    I seem to be missing something obvious here, but cannot see what it is. My problem is that the closing form tag for BeginForm is not being added to my markup. I am looping through a collection and creating a form for each item, but the forms arent closing properly. Any suggestions please? Thanks <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("EditUser","Users")) { %> <tr> <td> <input id="contactID" type="hidden" value="<%= item.ContactID %>" /> <%=item.Email %> </td> <td> <%=item.Market.MarketName%> </td> <td> <%=item.ContactType.ContactTypeName%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Edit" /> </td> </tr> <%} %> <% } %>

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  • c# Sending emails with authentication. standard approach not working

    - by Ready Cent
    I am trying to send an email using the following very standard code. However, I get the error that follow... MailMessage message = new MailMessage(); message.Sender = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); message.To.Add("[email protected]"); message.Subject = "test subject"; message.Body = "test body"; SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient(); client.Host = "mail.myhost.com"; //client.Port = 587; NetworkCredential cred = new NetworkCredential(); cred.UserName = "[email protected]"; cred.Password = "correct password"; cred.Domain = "mail.myhost.com"; client.Credentials = cred; client.UseDefaultCredentials = false; client.Send(message); Mailbox unavailable. The server response was: No such user here. This recipient email address definitely works. To make this account work I had to do some special steps in outlook. Specifically, I had to do change account settings - more settings - outgoing server - my outgoing server requires authentication & use same settings. I am wondering if there is some other strategy. I think the key here is that my host is Server Intellect and I know that some people on here use them so hopefully someone else has been able to get through this. I did talk to support but they said with coding issues I am on my own :o

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  • connecting to secure database from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

    - by quakkels
    Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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  • How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

    - by Bryan
    I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

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  • Where to store site settings: DB? XML? CONFIG? CLASS FILES?

    - by Emin
    I am re-building a news portal of which already have a large number of visits every day. One of the major concerns when re-building this site was to maximize performance and speed. Having said this, we have done many things from caching, to all sort of other measures to ensure speed. Now towards the end of the project, I am having a dilemma of where to store my site settings that would least affect performance. The site settings will include things such as: Domain, DefaultImgPath, Google Analytics code, default emails of editors as well as more dynamic design/display feature settings such as the background color of specific DIVs and default color for links etc.. As far as I know, I have 4 choices in storing all these info. Database: Storing general settings in the DB and caching them may be a solution however, I want to limit the access to the database for only necessary and essential functions of the project which generally are insert/update/delete news items, author articles etc.. XML: I can store these settings in an XML file but I have not done this sort of thing before so I don't know what kind of problems -if any- I might face in the future. CONFIG: I can also store these settings in web.config CLASS FILE: I can hard code all these settings in a SiteSettings class, but since the site admin himself will be able to edit these settings, It may not be the best solution. Currently, I am more close to choosing web.config but letting people fiddle with it too often is something I do not want. E.g. if somehow, I miss out a validation for something and it breaks the web.config, the whole site will go down. My concern basically is that, I cannot forsee any possible consequences of using any of the methods above (or is there any other?), I was hoping to get this question over to more experienced people out here who hopefully help make my decision.

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  • Using IAM for user authentication

    - by mdavis6890
    I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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  • Select ID in table ...

    - by Kris-I
    Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

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  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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  • PHP: json_decode dumping NULL, BOM not found

    - by SerEnder
    I've been trying to find out why this 'json_encode'd string isn't parsing out correctly, and came across previously answered questions that had the UTF BOM sequence that was throwing the error, but didn't help me here. Here's the code that isn't currently working: //Decode the notes attached to the sig $aNotes = json_decode($rule->getNotes(),true); $bom = pack("CCC",0xef,0xbb,0xbf); if(0 == strncmp($rule->getNotes(),$bom,3)) { print('BOM detected - json encoding in UTF-8<br/>'); } else { print('BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly<br/>'); } print('rule->getNotes:<br/>' . $rule->getNotes() .'<br/>'); var_dump($aNotes); Which generates this result: BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly rule->getNotes: [{"lDate":"Unknown","sAuthor":"Unknown","sNote":"This is a general purpose Russian spam rule that matches anything starting with 2, 3 or 4 hex digits followed by a domain name ending with .ru -RSK 2010-05-10"},{"lDate":"1295031463082","sAuthor":"Drew Thorstenson","sNote":"this is Ryan's ru rule"}] NULL I've run it through JSON Lint, which said it was valid, and An Online JSON Parser which parsed it correctly too. Any insight would be greatly appreciated.

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  • EF Code First - Relationships

    - by CaffGeek
    I have these classes public class EntityBase : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Created { get; set; } public string CreatedBy { get; set; } public DateTime Updated { get; set; } public string UpdatedBy { get; set; } } public class EftInterface : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } public Provider Provider { get; set; } public List<BusinessUnit> BusinessUnits { get; set; } } public class Provider : EntityBase, IEntity { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal DefaultDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal DefaultCreditLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryCreditLimit { get; set; } } public class BusinessUnit : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } } An interface, is really a Provider, with a collection of Business Units. The issue is that while my db model ends up having a correct EftInterfaces table, with a FK to Provider_Id, the BusinessUnits table has a FK to EftInterface_Id. But, a BusinessUnit can be included in more than one EftInterface. I need a many to many relationship. A BusinessUnit can be part of many EftInterfaces, and an EftInterface can contain many BusinessUnits. How can I get CodeFirst to generate the many-to-many table?

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  • Empty Postbacks on ASP.NET pages

    - by AaronLS
    We are having a problem that seems to only be a problem when accessing our websites from internal intranet machines. When logged into the domain, and accessing our websites, postbacks are not working. Basically the page behaves as if it were refreshed and nothing was changed. When logging the GETs and POSTs with an HTTP analyzer, the post is complete empty and the ContentLength is 0. It is also very sporadic, but seems to be happening fairly often. In the case where it failed, we could see that there was an extra item in the Header for the POST, it was "Authorization" and the value was the word "Negotiate " followed by a space and then a bunch of characters and two equal symbols at the end, which looked like some kind of base64 encoded value. In a case where it succeeded, this Authorization item was no in the header, but I have logged more than one successful cases to know if that is consistent. We have seen this occur only with IE8 so far, and when it occurs it is sometimes sporadic. I can close and open the browser and it will begin working sometimes, and other times it is still broken. What might be causing the postback to be empty? This means the viewstate is not sent to the server which makes the page basically broken. It seems to certainly be a client side issue, but not sure if it's not aggravated by some server settings. Thanks in advance.

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  • Update database every 30 minutes once

    - by Ravi
    Hi, I am working on C#.Net Windows application with SQL Server 2005. This project i am using ADO.Net Data-service for database maintenance. I am working on industrial automation domain, here data keep on reading more than 8 hours. After reading data from device based on the trigger i have periodically update data to database. for example start reading data on 9.00AM, trigger firing on 9.50AM. Once trigger fire, last 30 minutes(9.20 AM to 9.50AM) data store into data base. After trigger firing keep on reading data from device and store into data base. 10.00AM trigger going to off at time storing data to database has to be stop. Again trigger firing on 11.00AM. Once trigger fire, last 30 minutes(10.30 AM to 11.00AM) data store into data base. After trigger firing keep on reading data from device and store into data base. After 10.00AM trigger not firing means data keep on store locally. Here i don't know until trigger fire keep on reading data where & how to maintain temporarily , After trigger firing, last 30 minutes data how to bring and store into database. I don't know how to achieve it. It would be great if anyone could suggest any idea. Thanks

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  • CakePHP Routes: Messing With The MVC

    - by thesunneversets
    So we have a real-estate-related site that has controller/action pairs like "homes/view", "realtors/edit", and so forth. From on high it has been deemed a good idea to refactor the site so that URLS are now in the format "/realtorname/homes/view/id", and perhaps also "/admin/homes/view/id" and/or "/region/..." As a mere CakePHP novice I'm finding it difficult to achieve this in routes.php. I can do the likes of: Router::connect('/:filter/h/:id', array('controller'=>'homes','action'=>'view')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/:id'); But I'm finding that the id is no longer being passed simply and elegantly to the actions, now that controller and action do not directly follow the domain. Therefore, questions: Is it a stupid idea to play fast and loose with the /controller/action format in this way? Is there a better way of stating these routes so that things don't break egregiously? Would we be better off going back to subdomains (the initial method of achieving this type of functionality, shot down on potentially spurious SEO-related grounds)? Many thanks for any advice! I'm sorry that I'm such a newbie that I don't know whether I'm asking stupid questions or not....

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  • Resolving the WMI DNS Host Name

    - by Stephen Murby
    I am trying to make a comparison between a machine name i have retrieved from AD, and the DNS Host Name i want to get using WMI from the machine. I currently have: foreach (SearchResult oneMachine in allMachinesCollected) { pcName = oneMachine.Properties["name"][0].ToString(); ConnectionOptions setupConnection = new ConnectionOptions(); setupConnection.Username = USERNAME; setupConnection.Password = PASSWORD; setupConnection.Authority = "ntlmdomain:DOMAIN"; ManagementScope setupScope = new ManagementScope("\\\\" + pcName + "\\root\\cimv2", setupConnection); setupScope.Connect(); ObjectQuery dnsNameQuery = new ObjectQuery("SELECT * FROM Win32_ComputerSystem"); ManagementObjectSearcher dnsNameSearch = new ManagementObjectSearcher(setupScope, dnsNameQuery); ManagementObjectCollection allDNSNames = dnsNameSearch.Get(); string dnsHostName; foreach (ManagementObject oneName in allDNSNames) { dnsHostName = oneName.Properties["DNSHostName"].ToString(); if (dnsHostName == pcName) { shutdownMethods.ShutdownMachine(pcName, USERNAME, PASSWORD); MessageBox.Show(pcName + " has been sent the reboot command"); } } } } But i get a ManagementException dnsHostName = oneName.Properties["DNSHostName"].ToString(); << here saying not found. Any ideas?

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

    - by Christian Fazzini
    I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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  • Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

    - by Craig Walker
    I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

    - by J Jones
    I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

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  • Modelling in Agile Development

    - by bertzzie
    I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

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  • Out of memory while iterating through rowset

    - by Phliplip
    Hi All, I have a "small" table of 60400 rows with zipcode data. I wan't to iterate through them all, update a column value, and then save it. The following is part of my Zipcodes model which extends My_Db_Table that a totalRows function that - you guessed it.. returns the total number of rows in the table (60400 rows) public function normalizeTable() { $this->getAdapter()->setProfiler(false); $totalRows = $this->totalRows(); $rowsPerQuery = 5; for($i = 0; $i < $totalRows; $i = $i + $rowsPerQuery) { $select = $this->select()->limit($i, $rowsPerQuery); $rowset = $this->fetchAll($select); foreach ($rowset as $row) { $row->{self::$normalCityColumn} = $row->normalize($row->{self::$cityColumn}); $row->save(); } unset($rowset); } } My rowClass contains a normalize function (basicly a metaphone wrapper doing some extra magic). At first i tried a plain old $this-fetchAll(), but got a out of memory (128MB) right away. Then i tried splitting the rowset into chunks, only difference is that some rows actually gets updated. Any ideas on how i can acomplish this, or should i fallback to ye'olde mysql_query()

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