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  • Convert a binary tree to linked list, breadth first, constant storage/destructive

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    This is not homework, and I don't need to answer it, but now I have become obsessed :) The problem is: Design an algorithm to destructively flatten a binary tree to a linked list, breadth-first. Okay, easy enough. Just build a queue, and do what you have to. That was the warm-up. Now, implement it with constant storage (recursion, if you can figure out an answer using it, is logarithmic storage, not constant). I found a solution to this problem on the Internet about a year back, but now I've forgotten it, and I want to know :) The trick, as far as I remember, involved using the tree to implement the queue, taking advantage of the destructive nature of the algorithm. When you are linking the list, you are also pushing an item into the queue. Each time I try to solve this, I lose nodes (such as each time I link the next node/add to the queue), I require extra storage, or I can't figure out the convoluted method I need to get back to a node that has the pointer I need. Even the link to that original article/post would be useful to me :) Google is giving me no joy. Edit: Jérémie pointed out that there is a fairly simple (and well known answer) if you have a parent pointer. While I now think he is correct about the original solution containing a parent pointer, I really wanted to solve the problem without it :) The refined requirements use this definition for the node: struct tree_node { int value; tree_node* left; tree_node* right; };

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  • Memory allocation patterns in C++

    - by Mahatma
    I am confused about the memory allocation in C++ in terms of the memory areas such as Const data area, Stack, Heap, Freestore, Heap and Global/Static area. I would like to understand the memory allocation pattern in the following snippet. Can anyone help me to understand this. If there any thing more apart from the variable types mentioned in the example to help understand the concept better please alter the example. class FooBar { int n; //Stored in stack? public: int pubVar; //stored in stack? void foo(int param) //param stored in stack { int *pp = new int; //int is allocated on heap. n = param; static int nStat; //Stored in static area of memory int nLoc; //stored in stack? string str = "mystring"; //stored in stack? .. if(CONDITION) { static int nSIf; //stored in static area of memory int loopvar; //stored in stack .. } } } int main(int) { Foobar bar; //bar stored in stack? or a part of it? Foobar *pBar; //pBar is stored in stack pBar = new Foobar(); //the object is created in heap? What part of the object is stored on heap } EDIT: What confuses me is, if pBar = new Foobar(); stores the object on the heap, how come int nLoc; and int pubVar;, that are components of the object stored on stack? Sounds contradictory to me. Shouldn't the lifetime of pubvar and pBar be the same?

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  • I can't compile this code

    - by heshim
    #include <stdio.h> #define IN 1 /* inside a word */ #define OUT 0 /* outside a word */ /* count lines, words, and characters in input */ main() { int c, nl, nw, nc, state; state = OUT; nl = nw = nc = 0; while ((c = getchar()) != EOF) { ++nc; if (c == '\n') ++nl; if (c == ' ' || c == '\n' || c = '\t') state = OUT; else if (state == OUT) { state = IN; ++nw; } } printf("%d %d %d\n", nl, nw, nc); } I got K&R book but there are some codes that don't compile ! it gives me - 19 C:\Users\Nom\Desktop\Untitled1.c invalid lvalue in assignment edit: now it works, thanks guys, but now it does nothing ! the printf statement doesn't work. It opens the dos console, I type anything and it just return a new line. I'm using Dev-C++ 4.9.9.2 I put the printf statement inside the while loop and it works now. thanks

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  • MySQLDB query not returning all rows

    - by RBK
    I am trying to do a simple fetch using MySQLDB in Python. I have 2 tables(Accounts & Products). I have to look up Accounts table, get acc_id from it & query the Products table using it. The Products tables has more than 10 rows. But when I run this code it randomly returns between 0 & 6 rows each time I run it. Here's the code snippet: # Set up connection con = mdb.connect('db.xxxxx.com', 'user', 'password', 'mydb') # Create cursor cur = con.cursor() # Execute query cur.execute("SELECT acc_id FROM Accounts WHERE ext_acc = '%s'" % account_num ) # account_num is alpha-numberic and is got from preceding part of the program # A tuple is returned, so get the 0th item from it acc_id = cur.fetchone()[0] print "account_id = ", acc_id # Close the cursor - I was not sure if I can reuse it cur.close() # Reopen the cursor cur = con.cursor() # Second query cur.execute("SELECT * FROM Products WHERE account_id = %d" % acc_id) keys = cur.fetchall() print cur.rowcount # This prints incorrect row count for key in keys: # Does not print all rows. Tried to directly print keys instead of iterating - same result :( print key # Closing the cursor & connection cur.close() con.close() The weird part is, I tried to step through the code using a debugger(PyDev on Eclipse) and it correctly gets all rows(both the value stored in the variable 'keys' as well as console output are correct). I am sure my DB has correct data since I ran the same SQL on MySQL console & got the correct result. Just to be sure I was not improperly closing the connection, I tried using with con instead of manually closing the connection and it's the same result. I did RTFM but I couldn't find much in it to help me with this issue. Where am I going wrong? Thank you. EDIT: I noticed another weird thing now. In the line cur.execute("SELECT * FROM Products WHERE account_id = %d" % acc_id), I hard-coded the acc_id value, i.e made it cur.execute("SELECT * FROM Products WHERE account_id = %d" % 322) and it returns all rows

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • Setup for games animation: How do I know JFrame is finished setting itself up?

    - by Jokkel
    I'm using javax.swing.JFrame to draw game animations using double buffer strategy. First, I set up the frame. JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setVisible(true); Now, I draw an object (let it be a circle, doesn't matter) like this. frame.createBufferStrategy(2); bufferStrategy = frame.getBufferStrategy(); Graphics g = bufferStrategy.getDrawGraphics(); circle.draw(g); bufferStrategy.show(); The problem is that the frame is not always fully set-up when the drawing takes place. Seems like JFrame needs up to three steps in resizing itself, until it reaches it's final size. That makes the drawing slide out of frame or hinders it to appear completely from time to time. I already managed to delay things using SwingUtilities.invokeLater(). While this improved the result, there are still times when the drawing slides away / looks prematurely draw. Any idea / strategy? Thanks in advance. EDIT: Ok thanks so far. I didn't mention that I write a little Pong game in the first place. Sorry for the confusion What I actually looked for was the right setup for accelerated game animations done in Java. While reading through the suggestions I found my question answered (though indirectly) here and this example made things clear for me. A resume for this might be that for animating game graphics in Java, the first step is to get rid of the GUI logic overhead.

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  • Checking if user owns file before deleting it

    - by Martin Hoe
    I'm building an API for my site that allows users to delete the files they upload. Obviously, I want to check if the user owns that file before they delete it through the API. I have a files table and a users table, here's the schema: f_id, s_id, u_id, name, size, uploaded u_id, username, password, email, activated, activation_code u_id is a foreign key. The u_id field in the files table points to the u_id in the users table. Given the users username, I want to find the users u_id, and then check if they own the file through the file ID (f_id). I wrote this SQL: $sql = 'SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f_id = ? AND u.u_id = ? LIMIT 1'; I'm assuming that'd work if I was given the users u_id in the API request, but alas I'm given only their username. How can I modify that SQL to find their user ID and use that? Thanks. Edit: Alright I've got this query but it's always returning an empty result set even though both the file ID and username exist. SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f.f_id = ? AND u.username = ? LIMIT 1

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  • 2-column table with two foreign keys. Performance/design question.

    - by Emanuel
    Hello everyone! I recently ran into a quite complex problem and after looking around a lot I couldn't find a solution to it. I've found answers to my questions many times before on stackoverflow.com, so I decided to post here. So I'm making a user/group managment system for a web-based project, and I'm storing all related data into a postgreSQL database. This system relies on three tables: USERS GROUPS GROUP_USERS The two first tables simply define all the users and all the groups on the site, and the last table, GROUP_USERS, stores the groups every user is part of. It only has two columns: USER_ID GROUP_ID Since every user can be a member of several groups, I decided to make a separate table for this purpose, rather than storing a comma separated column in the USERS-table. Now, both columns are foreign keys, and I want to make them both primary keys as well, this since each combination of USER_ID and GROUP_ID has to be unique, and if I give them the constraint UNIQUE pgAdmin tells me that each table should have at least one Primary key. But now I am stuck with what seems to be a lot of indexes and relations to a very small table only containing numbers. In the end, I want this table to be as fast as possible, even if containing tens of thousands of rows. Size on disk shouldn't be a problem since its just all numbers anyway, but it feels quite stupid to have a full-sized index refering to a smaller table. Should I stick with my current solution, store comma-separated values in a column in the USERS-table or is there any other solution I should be aware of. PS. I don't want to use an array-column, even if they are supported by postgreSQL. I want to be as generic as possible so I can switch database later on, if necessary. EDIT: I other words, will using a compound primary key and two foreign keys in one table with only two columns have a negative impact on performance rather than the opposite due to the size of the generated index? Thank you!

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  • How to reset the context to the original rectangle after clipping it for drawing?

    - by mystify
    I try to draw a sequence of pattern images (different repeated patterns in one view). So what I did is this, in a loop: CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); // clip to the drawing rectangle to draw the pattern for this portion of the view CGContextClipToRect(context, drawingRect); // the first call here works fine... but for the next nothing will be drawn CGContextDrawTiledImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 0, 2, 31), [img CGImage]); I think that after I've clipped the context to draw the pattern in the specific rectangle, I cut out a snippet from the big canvas and the next time, my canvas is gone. can't cut out another snippet. So I must reset that clipping somehow in order to be able to draw another pattern again somewhere else? Edit: In the documentation I found this: CGContextClip: "... Therefore, to re-enlarge the paintable area by restoring the clipping path to a prior state, you must save the graphics state before you clip and restore the graphics state after you’ve completed any clipped drawing. ..." Well then, how to store the graphics state before clipping and how to restore it?

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  • Rails controller not rendering correct view when form is force-submitted by Javascript

    - by whazzmaster
    I'm using Rails with jQuery, and I'm working on a page for a simple site that prints each record to a table. The only editable field for each record is a checkbox. My goal is that every time a checkbox is changed, an ajax request updates that boolean attribute for the record (i.e., no submit button). My view code: <td> <% form_remote_tag :url => admin_update_path, :html => { :id => "form#{lead.id}" } do %> <%= hidden_field :lead, :id, :value => lead.id %> <%= check_box :lead, :contacted, :id => "checkbox"+lead.id.to_s, :checked => lead.contacted, :onchange => "$('#form#{lead.id}').submit();" %> <% end %> </td> In my routes.rb, admin_update_path is defined by map.admin_update 'update', :controller => "admin", :action => "update", :method => :post I also have an RJS template to render back an update. The contents of this file is currently just for testing (I just wanted to see if it worked, this will not be the ultimate functionality on a successful save)... page << "$('#checkbox#{@lead.id}').hide();" When clicked, the ajax request is successfully sent, with the correct params, and the action on the controller can retrieve the record and update it just fine. The problem is that it doesn't send back the JS; it changes the page in the browser and renders the generated Javascript as plain text rather than executing it in-place. Rails does some behind-the-scenes stuff to figure out if the incoming request is an ajax call, and I can't figure out why it's interpreting the incoming request as a regular web request as opposed to an ajax request. I may be missing something extremely simple here, but I've kind-of burned myself out looking so I thought I'd ask for another pair of eyes. Thanks in advance for any info!

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  • C++ gdb GUI

    - by HappyDude
    Briefly: Does anyone know of a GUI for gdb that brings it on par or close to the feature set you get in the more recent version of Visual C++? In detail: As someone who has spent a lot of time programming in Windows, one of the larger stumbling blocks I've found whenever I have to code C++ in Linux is that debugging anything using commandline gdb takes me several times longer than it does in Visual Studio, and it does not seem to be getting better with practice. Some things are just easier or faster to express graphically. Specifically, I'm looking for a GUI that: Handles all the basics like stepping over & into code, watch variables and breakpoints Understands and can display the contents of complex & nested C++ data types Doesn't get confused by and preferably can intelligently step through templated code and data structures while displaying relevant information such as the parameter types Can handle threaded applications and switch between different threads to step through or view the state of Can handle attaching to an already-started process or reading a core dump, in addition to starting the program up in gdb If such a program does not exist, then I'd like to hear about experiences people have had with programs that meet at least some of the bullet points. Does anyone have any recommendations? Edit: Listing out the possibilities is great, and I'll take what I can get, but it would be even more helpful if you could include in your responses: (a) Whether or not you've actually used this GUI and if so, what positive/negative feedback you have about it. (b) If you know, which of the above-mentioned features are/aren't supported Lists are easy to come by, sites like this are great because you can get an idea of people's personal experiences with applications.

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  • Forms blank when rendering a partial when using a collection of objects. Help!

    - by dustmoo
    Alright, I know my title is a little obscure but it best describes the problem I am having. Essentially, I have a list of users, and want to be able to edit their information in-line using AJAX. Since the users are showing up in rows, I am using a partial to render the data and the forms (which will be hidden initially by the ajax), however, when the rows are rendered currently only the last item has it's form's fields populated. I suspect this has something to do with the fact that all the form fields have the same id's and it is confusing the DOM. But I don't know how to make sure the id's are unique. Here is a small example: In my view: <%= render :partial => 'shared/user', :collection => @users %> My partial (broke down to just the form) note that I am using the local variable "user" <% form_for user, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| -%> <%= f.label :name, "Name*" %> <%= f.text_field :title, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :Address, "Address" %> <%= f.text_field :address, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :description, "Description*" %> <%= f.text_area :description, :class => "input" %> <% end -%> When the html is rendered each form has a unique id (for the id of the user) but the elements themselves all have the same id, and only the last user form is actually getting populated with values. Does anyone have any ideas?? :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Why does a MFC application behaves mysteriously in encrypted hard drive environment.

    - by MauriceL
    I'm working on a bug where I have an MFC application that does weird things when installed in when Sophos Safeguard hard drive encryption is installed. I'm sorry to be so vague here, but I'm writing this away from the office so this is all from my (poor) memory. Three things I've noticed: AfxGetResourceHandle() doesn't return a consistent resource handle. There is a single case where we try to load a string resource, and for some reason, the resource handle that we get from this method is different to all the other stings. Can't construct a CDocumentTemplate. There is a trace error which I cant seem to recall. Will edit and post when I'm in tomorrow. This behaviour appears to manifest in a Visual Studio 2005 version of the project, but not a Visual Studio 2008 version. Unfortunately moving to the 2008 version is not an option. The bug is not always reproducable if I step through with a debugger. Also, bringing up debug message boxes changes the behaviuor, which leads me to think that either there is some kind of race condition going on with the way MFC events are being handled, but I'm not sure how I'll ever know for sure, or even what I can do about it if I did. I think there's some underlying reason that the app is behaving weirdly, but what I've posted are more symptoms. Can anyone think of what I should check for? I've run Windows update on the test environment to ensure everything was up to date, and I've examined the process in procmon to see if the disk encryption stuff was getting in the way and conflicting with files - it didn't appear to be, but it does appear to be involved in some way as our app accesses Sophos related paths in the temp directory.

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  • Combining two exe files

    - by Sophia
    Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

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  • How can I split abstract testcases in JUnit?

    - by Willi Schönborn
    I have an abstract testcase "AbstractATest" for an interface "A". It has several test methods (@Test) and one abstract method: protected abstract A unit(); which provides the unit under testing. No i have multiple implementations of "A", e.g. "DefaultA", "ConcurrentA", etc. My problem: The testcase is huge (~1500 loc) and it's growing. So i wanted to split it into multiple testcases. How can organize/structure this in Junit 4 without the need to have a concrete testcase for every implementation and abstract testcase. I want e.g. "AInitializeTest", "AExectueTest" and "AStopTest". Each being abstract and containing multiple tests. But for my concrete "ConcurrentA", i only want to have one concrete testcase "ConcurrentATest". I hope my "problem" is clear. EDIT Looks like my description was not that clear. Is it possible to pass a reference to a test? I know parameterized tests, but these require static methods, which is not applicable to my setup. Subclasses of an abstract testcase decide about the parameter.

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  • g++ fails mysteriously only if a .h is in a certain directory

    - by ggambett
    I'm experiencing an extremely weird problem in a fresh OSX 10.4.11 + Xcode 2.5 installation. I've reduced it to a minimal test case. Here's test.cpp: #include "macros.h" int main (void) { return 1; } And here's macros.h: #ifndef __JUST_TESTING__ #define __JUST_TESTING__ template<typename T> void swap (T& pT1, T& pT2) { T pTmp = pT1; pT1 = pT2; pT2 = pTmp; } #endif //__JUST_TESTING__ This compiles and works just fine if both files are in the same directory. HOWEVER, if I put macros.h in /usr/include/gfc2 (it's part of a custom library I use) and change the #include in test.cpp, compilation fails with this error : /usr/include/gfc2/macros.h:4: error: template with C linkage I researched that error and most of the comments point to a "dangling extern C", which doesn't seem to be the case at all. I'm at a complete loss here. Is g++ for some reason assuming everything in /usr/include/gfc2 is C even though it's included from a .cpp file that doesn't say extern "C" anywhere? Any ideas? EDIT : It does compile if I use the full path in the #include, ie #include "/usr/include/gfc2/macros.h" EDIT2 : It's not including the wrong header. I've verified this using cpp, g++ -E, and renaming macros.h to foobarmacros.h

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  • UIsearch bar not returning data to table

    - by Insane_Poyo
    Edited code - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell==nil) cell=[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (isFiltered) { int rowCount=indexPath.row; Aves *filtrada=[filteredTableData objectAtIndex:rowCount]; cell.textLabel.text=filtrada.name; NSLog(@"mostrando: "); }else { int rowCounter=indexPath.row; Aves *author=[theauthors objectAtIndex:rowCounter]; cell.textLabel.text=author.name; } NSLog(@"mostrando: "); return cell; } -(void)searchBar:(UISearchBar*)searchBar textDidChange:(NSString*)text { if(text.length == 0) { isFiltered = FALSE; } else { isFiltered = true; int i; [filteredTableData removeAllObjects]; for(i=0;[theauthors count]>i;i++) { Aves *name=[theauthors objectAtIndex:i]; //NSLog(name.name); NSRange nameRange = [[name.name lowercaseString] rangeOfString:[text lowercaseString]]; if(nameRange.length>0) { [filteredTableData addObject:name]; NSLog(name.name); } } [self.tableView performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(reloadData) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } } Edit: After working on it a while I solved some problems.Just updated my code, the problem is the repaint of the tableView, every thing else go ok. Check it and give any ideas you have plz ^^ Thx again for your time.

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  • How to take a NSString such as, "0+1+2", get the sum of those and create new string. Obj-C

    - by Ace Legend
    Alright. My app has a text field and next to it are two buttons (Plus button and Equals button). When you press the "Plus" button, it takes the text inside of the textField and adds a "+" to it. Code below: - (IBAction)plusButtonPressed:(id)sender { NSString *plusString = @"+"; NSString *inputString = carbsField.text; NSString *outputString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@",inputString,plusString]; NSLog(@"%@",outputString); [carbsField setText:outputString]; } I will eventually make that more intelligent so that I can't put two pluses or whatever. Anyway, then I want the equal button to take whatever is in the textField, which should look something like: "23+54+2.2" and get the sum of those values. I believe I know how to take an Integer and make it a String, but I want to verify it: int *value = 56; NSString *string = @"%d",value; Well, if anyone can show me how to do this, I would be very appreciative. Thanks. EDIT At the moment, I have not tried anything. This is because I do not know where to start. I have an idea of what to do, but I do not know how to execute it. I believe I need to get all characters before a "+" convert them into int and then get the sum of some array of those values.

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  • opening word document contailning macros using textarea

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am avani here,actually 1.i amhaving one word document which contains macros i wann to open it in textarea.. 2.i am able to open the word document which is not containing macros 3.i am not able to open the document which contains macros 4.i am using below code 5.please do help me anyone i am thinking its some what impossible { //echo $aud; $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened file. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word-Documents-Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word-ActiveDocument-Content; //echo $somecontent; $word-ActiveDocument-Close(false); $word-Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ? Edit file -------- ?

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  • WMI to reboot remote machine

    - by Stephen Murby
    I found this code on an old thread to shutdown the local machine: using System.Management; void Shutdown() { ManagementBaseObject mboShutdown = null; ManagementClass mcWin32 = new ManagementClass("Win32_OperatingSystem"); mcWin32.Get(); // You can't shutdown without security privileges mcWin32.Scope.Options.EnablePrivileges = true; ManagementBaseObject mboShutdownParams = mcWin32.GetMethodParameters("Win32Shutdown"); // Flag 1 means we want to shut down the system. Use "2" to reboot. mboShutdownParams["Flags"] = "1"; mboShutdownParams["Reserved"] = "0"; foreach (ManagementObject manObj in mcWin32.GetInstances()) { mboShutdown = manObj.InvokeMethod("Win32Shutdown", mboShutdownParams, null); } } Is it possible to use a similar WMI method to reboot flag"2" a remote machine, for which i only have machine name, not IPaddress. EDIT: I currently have; SearchResultCollection allMachinesCollected = machineSearch.FindAll(); Methods myMethods = new Methods(); string pcName; ArrayList allComputers = new ArrayList(); foreach (SearchResult oneMachine in allMachinesCollected) { //pcName = oneMachine.Properties.PropertyNames.ToString(); pcName = oneMachine.Properties["name"][0].ToString(); allComputers.Add(pcName); MessageBox.Show(pcName + "has been sent the restart command."); Process.Start("shutdown.exe", "-r -f -t 0 -m \" + pcName); } but this doesn't work, and i would prefer WMI going forward.

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  • Any web services with APIs for outsourcing webapp transactional email? [closed]

    - by Tauren
    My webapp needs to send customized messages to members and I'm wondering if there is an inexpensive and easy to use web service that would meet my needs. The types of mail I will be sending include: New account activation email (sent ASAP) Daily status report of user's account (sent anytime) Event reminders (sent at specific time) Specifically, I would like the following features: RESTful API to add an email message into the send queue A way to add a priority to each message (account signup activations should be sent immediately, while a daily status report could be sent anytime each day) They manage the sending of mail and the processing of bounces Possibly, they manage opt-out/opt-in features They offer features such as DKIM, VERP, etc. If their service determines an address is undeliverable (via VERP or other means, a user unsubscribes, etc), they make a RESTful call to my web service to notify me Nice if they had some reporting features, WebBugs, link tracking, etc. What I am NOT looking for is an email marketing service that caters only to sending out copies of the same mail to masses of recipients. I need to send out unique and custom messages to individuals. I had a chat with MailChimp about using their services for sending these types of messages and they said their service does not support customized emails per recipient. Edit: I just discovered a service called JangoSMTP that appears to meet many of my requirements. It provides an API for sending mail, supports DKIM, bounce management, and even feedback loops. Unfortunately, their idea of inexpensive doesn't mesh with mine, as it would cost $180/mo to send a single daily message to my 1000 users.

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  • How to tell if leaving iOS app entered foreground from fast-app switching or manually?

    - by JPK
    Is there a way to tell if an iOS app enters the foreground from fast-app switching or manually? I need to know by the time applicationWillEnterForeground is called, so some specific code can be executed (or not executed) depending on the condition in which the app entered the foreground. EDIT: It turned out that this was more of a design issue for me. I moved my code to applicationDidBecomeActive. I also added a BOOL property to the appDelegate called fastAppSwitching (probably the wrong name for it). I set this to YES in application:handleOpenURL and application:openURL:sourceApplication:annotation. Then I added the following code to application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions: if (launchOptions) { self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } else { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } In applicationDidBecomeActive, I used the following code: if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; //stop, don't go any further } else { ... } EDIT2: MaxGabriel makes a good point below: "Just a warning to others taking the solution described here, applicationDidBecomeActive: is called when the user e.g. ignores a phone call or text message, unlike applicationWillEnterForeground". This is actually also true for in-app purchases and Facebook in-app authorization (new in iOS 6). So, with some further testing, this is the current solution: Add a new Bool called passedThroughWillEnterForeground. In applicationWillResignActive: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationDidEnterBackground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; In applicationWillEnterForeground: self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = YES; In applicationDidBecomeActive: if (passedThroughWillEnterForeground) { //we are NOT returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog, etc //do nothing with this BOOL - just reset it self.passedThroughWillEnterForeground = NO; } else { //we ARE returning from 6.0 (in-app) authorization dialog or in-app purchase dialog - IE //This is the same as fast-app switching in our book, so let's keep it simple and use this to set that self.fastAppSwitching = YES; } if (fastAppSwitching == YES) { self.fastAppSwitching = NO; } else { ... } EDIT3: I think we also need a bool to tell if app was launched from terminated.

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  • Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

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  • Hibernate CreateSQL Query Problem

    - by Shaded
    Hello All I'm trying to use hibernates built in createsql function but it seems that it doesn't like the following query. List =hibernateSession.createSQLQuery("SELECT number, location FROM table WHERE other_number IN (SELECT f.number FROM table2 AS f JOIN table3 AS g on f.number = g.number WHERE g.other_number = " + var + ") ORDER BY number").addEntity(Table.class).list(); I have a feeling it's from the nested select statement, but I'm not sure. The inner select is used elsewhere in the code and it returns results fine. This is my mapping for the first table: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="org.efs.openreports.objects.Table" table="table"> <id name="id" column="other_number" type="java.lang.Integer"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="number" column="number" not-null="true" unique="true"/> <property name="location" column="location" not-null="true" unique="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> And the .java public class Table implements Serializable { private Integer id;//panel_facility private Integer number; private String location; public Table() { } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setNumber(Integer number) { this.number = number; } public Integer number() { return number; } public String location() { return location; } public void setLocation(String location) { this.location = location; } } Any suggestions? Edit (Added mapping)

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  • How best to make a link submit a form.

    - by nickf
    What's the best way to get a regular anchor (<a href="...">) to submit the form it is embedded in when clicked? <form> <ul> <li> <p> The link could be <span>embedded <a href="" onclick="?">at any level</a></span> in the form, so "this.parentNode.parentNode..." is no good. :( </p> </li> </ul> </form> I know that the easiest way using jQuery would be $('#myLink').click(function() { $(this).parents('form:first').submit(); }); ...but I'm trying to find a way to do this without using a library. Edit: I'm really trying to find a method which doesn't require knowledge of the form (eg: its name, id, etc). This would be similar to how you could put this on an input element: <input onclick="this.form.submit()" />

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