Search Results

Search found 27143 results on 1086 pages for 'include path'.

Page 919/1086 | < Previous Page | 915 916 917 918 919 920 921 922 923 924 925 926  | Next Page >

  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

    Read the article

  • VS2010 development web server does not use integrated-mode HTTP handlers/modules

    - by Domenic
    I am developing an ASP.NET MVC 2 web site, targeted for .NET Framework 4.0, using Visual Studio 2010. My web.config contains the following code: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <add name="XhtmlModule" type="DomenicDenicola.Website.XhtmlModule" /> </modules> <handlers> <add name="DotLess" type="dotless.Core.LessCssHttpHandler,dotless.Core" path="*.less" verb="*" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> When I use Build > Publish to put the web site on my local IIS7 instance, it works great. However, when I use Debug > Start Debugging, neither the HTTP handler nor module are executed on any requests. Strangely enough, when I put the handler and module <add /> tags back into <system.web /> under <httpHandlers /> and <httpModules />, they work. This seems to imply that the development web server is running in classic mode. How do I fix this?

    Read the article

  • php.ini on goDaddy

    - by Afrosimon
    Hey all, I've got a little problem on a goDaddy server. I have a php script (ajaxCRUD) in which there's an upload field, and I can't get it to accept file over the default limit. I always get this (when I output the $_FILE[$fieldname]) : array(5) { ["name"]=> string(13) "children2.mp3" ["type"]=> string(0) "" ["tmp_name"]=> string(0) "" ["error"]=> int(1) ["size"]=> int(0) } Things I tried : Added a parameter in the HTML form ([...]name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="10000000"[...]) Changed the php5.ini at the root of the server, to no avail. After a phpinfo(), no differences are seen, even though the phpinfo clearly indicate it is reading the same php5.ini : [...]/html/php5.ini. Here is what I added in this file : upload_tmp_dir = ./temp upload_max_filesize = 20M Anything under 2M (the default value) is okay, so there's no problem with the upload path or file permission. I don't have any more idea for the moment, do any of you has one?

    Read the article

  • Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

    Read the article

  • simple image upload in aspnet mvc

    - by FosterZ
    hi,i'm building a simple school portal, i have stucked at uploading an image into my application, i.e a user should upload school image to my server, i have directory for images as ./Content/Images -- all uploading images should be uploaded to this directory. i have following code input type="file" id="SchoolImageUrl" name="SchoolImageUrl" class="required" using this m'getting a browse button, i have no idea how to upload that image to server and how would be my action controller ? i have following controller for creating school public ActionResult SchoolCreate(_ASI_School schoolToCreate, FormCollection collection) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here schoolToCreate.SchoolId = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); schoolToCreate.UserId = new Guid(Request.Form["currentUser"]); schoolToCreate.SchoolAddedBy = User.Identity.Name; HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files["SchoolImageUrl"]; file.SaveAs(file.FileName); //schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = Reuseable.ImageUpload(Request.Files["SchoolImageUrl"], Server.MapPath("../Content")); //schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = Path.GetFullPath(Request.Files[0].FileName); schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = collection["SchoolImageUrl"]; UpdateModel(schoolToCreate); _schoolRepository.CreateSchool(schoolToCreate); //_schoolRepository.SaveToDb(); return RedirectToAction("DepartmentCreate", "Department", new { userId = schoolToCreate.UserId, schoolId = schoolToCreate.SchoolId }); } catch { return View("CreationFailed"); } } here im geting object referece error

    Read the article

  • Can I use a keyPath in a predicate?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    For some reason, this didn't work (although the keypath does exist): NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"department.departmentName == %@", departmentName]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *fetchError = nil; NSUInteger count = [moc countForFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&fetchError]; // execution simply stops at this line, with no error or console log Execution just stops at the last line above when asking for the count. I don't get an console log. Also I don't get any kind of exception. The execution just stops. There are no objects in the persistent store yet. So maybe it crashes because of it tries to follow a keypath in a nonexisting object? Does that make sense? The line where GDB stops is this: 0x002a31cb <+0459> test %eax,%eax Previously to that, I see a lot of NSSQLAdapter... calls in the stack trace. There's definitely something wrong. Well, but when I set the Entity to the destination of the key path and then just do something like NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"departmentName == %@", departmentName]; then there is no problem and count simply is 0.

    Read the article

  • UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

    - by Dmitry
    I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

    Read the article

  • Font Awesome Not Working In Chrome

    - by Connor Black
    So I'm trying to prototype a marketing page and I'm using bootstrap and the new font awesome file. The problem is when I try to use an icon all that gets rendered on the page in a big square. Here's how I include the files in the head: <head> <title> </title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap-responsive.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/font-awesome.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/app.css"> <!--[if IE 7]> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/font-awesome-ie7.min.css"> <![endif]--> </head> And here's an example of me trying to use an icon: <i class="icon-camera-retro"></i> But all that gets rendered in a big square. Does anyone know what could be going on?

    Read the article

  • Using Pastebin API in Node.js

    - by wiill
    I've been trying to post a paste to Pastebin in Node.js, but it appears that I'm doing it wrong. I'm getting a Bad API request, invalid api_option, however I'm clearly setting the api_option to paste like the documentation asks for. var http = require('http'); var qs = require('qs'); var query = qs.stringify({ api_option: 'paste', api_dev_key: 'xxxxxxxxxxxx', api_paste_code: 'Awesome paste content', api_paste_name: 'Awesome paste name', api_paste_private: 1, api_paste_expire_date: '1D' }); var req = http.request({ host: 'pastebin.com', port: 80, path: '/api/api_post.php', method: 'POST', headers: { 'Content-Type': 'multipart/form-data', 'Content-Length': query.length } }, function(res) { var data = ''; res.on('data', function(chunk) { data += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { console.log(data); }); }); req.write(query); req.end(); console.log(query) confirms that the string is well encoded and that api_option is there and set to paste. Now, I've been searching forever on possible causes. I also tried setting the encoding on the write req.write(query, 'utf8') because the Pastebin API mentions that the POST must be UTF-8 encoded. I rewrote the thing over and over and re-consulted the Node HTTP documentation many times. I'm pretty sure I completely missed something here, because I don't see how this could fail. Does anyone have an idea of what I have done wrong?

    Read the article

  • divert asp.net child controls

    - by Eric
    Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

    Read the article

  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

    Read the article

  • How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

    - by Hoàng Long
    Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

    Read the article

  • C++ destructor called on array index - why

    - by tge
    The following code (from Apache Tuscany SDO C++) occasionally (actually very rarely) causes subsequent crashes and I don't understand what's going on. The following statement is in DataObjectImpl.cpp (see stack below): PropertyImpl* DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl(unsigned int index) { ... 904 PropertyList props = getType().getProperties(); 905 if (index < props.size()) 906 { 907 return (PropertyImpl*)&props[index]; ... causes the following stack (all omitted frames above and below look plausible): Note: #11 libtuscany_sdo.dll!std::vector<>::~vector<> [c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\vector:559] Note: #12 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::PropertyList::~PropertyList [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\propertylist.cpp:60] Note: #13 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:907] Note: #14 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getSDOValue [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:3845] The actual question is - why is the destructor of PropertyList called?? As stated, the stack looks OK otherwise, also the vector destructor, as PropertyList has a member std::vector<PropertyImplPtr plist; and the array index operator of PropertyList just calls the array index of the plist member. And, even more puzzling (to me), why this happens only occasionally ... Many thx!!

    Read the article

  • Linked list example using threads

    - by Carl_1789
    I have read the following code of using CRITICAL_SECTION when working with multiple threads to grow a linked list. what would be the main() part which uses two threads to add to linked list? #include <windows.h> typedef struct _Node { struct _Node *next; int data; } Node; typedef struct _List { Node *head; CRITICAL_SECTION critical_sec; } List; List *CreateList() { List *pList = (List*)malloc(sizeof(pList)); pList->head = NULL; InitializeCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); return pList; } void AddHead(List *pList, Node *node) { EnterCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); node->next = pList->head; pList->head = node; LeaveCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); } void Insert(List *pList, Node *afterNode, Node *newNode) { EnterCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); if (afterNode == NULL) { AddHead(pList, newNode); } else { newNode->next = afterNode->next; afterNode->next = newNode; } LeaveCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); } Node *Next(List *pList, Node *node) { Node* next; EnterCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); next = node->next; LeaveCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); return next; }

    Read the article

  • Newbie question: When to use extern "C" { //code } ?

    - by Russel
    Hello, Maybe I'm not understanding the differences between C and C++, but when and why do we need to use: extern "C" { ? Apparently its a "linkage convention"? I read about it briefly and noticed that all the .h header files included with MSVS surround their code with it. What type of code exactly is "C code" and NOT "C++ code"? I thought C++ included all C code? I'm guessing that this is not the case and that C++ is different and that standard features/functions exist in one or the other but not both (ie: printf is C and cout is C++), but that C++ is backwards compatible though the extern "C" declaration. Is this correct? My next question depends on the answer to the first, but I'll ask it here anyway: Since MSVS header files that are written in C are surrounded by extern "C" { ... }, when would you ever need to use this yourself in your own code? If your code is C code and you are trying to compile it in a C++ compiler, shouldn't it work without problem because all the standard h files you include will already have the extern "C" thing in them with the C++ compiler? Do you have to use this when compiling in C++ but linking to alteady built C libraries or something? Please help clarify this for me... Thanks! --Keith

    Read the article

  • Cannot access resource defined in app.xaml

    - by DerKlaus
    I am using Visual Studio 2010 RC1. I define a resource "Brush2" in app.xaml_: <Application x:Class="VideoThumbnails.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="MainWindow.xaml"> <Application.Resources> <RadialGradientBrush x:Key="Brush2" RadiusX="1" RadiusY="1" GradientOrigin="0.3,0.3"> <GradientStop Color="White" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop Color="#ffc0c0" Offset="1"/> </RadialGradientBrush> </Application.Resources> </Application> In my Mainwindow I am trying to use that resource: ... <Border Margin="4,2" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="4" ToolTip="{Binding Path=FullPath}" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Background="{StaticResource Brush2}"> ... No matter what I do it always raises an exception at runtime (Resource not found). I changed build action without success. How can I use resources defined in app.xaml?

    Read the article

  • Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

    - by user169867
    I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

    Read the article

  • VS 2008 C++ build output?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to control how pytest-xdist runs tests in parallel?

    - by superselector
    I have the following directory layout: runner.py lib/ tests/ testsuite1/ testsuite1.py testsuite2/ testsuite2.py testsuite3/ testsuite3.py testsuite4/ testsuite4.py The format of testsuite*.py modules is as follows: import pytest class testsomething: def setup_class(self): ''' do some setup ''' # Do some setup stuff here def teardown_class(self): '''' do some teardown''' # Do some teardown stuff here def test1(self): # Do some test1 related stuff def test2(self): # Do some test2 related stuff .... .... .... def test40(self): # Do some test40 related stuff if __name__=='__main()__' pytest.main(args=[os.path.abspath(__file__)]) The problem I have is that I would like to execute the 'testsuites' in parallel i.e. I want testsuite1, testsuite2, testsuite3 and testsuite4 to start execution in parallel but individual tests within the testsuites need to be executed serially. When I use the 'xdist' plugin from py.test and kick off the tests using 'py.test -n 4', py.test is gathering all the tests and randomly load balancing the tests among 4 workers. This leads to the 'setup_class' method to be executed every time of each test within a 'testsuitex.py' module (which defeats my purpose. I want setup_class to be executed only once per class and tests executed serially there after). Essentially what I want the execution to look like is: worker1: executes all tests in testsuite1.py serially worker2: executes all tests in testsuite2.py serially worker3: executes all tests in testsuite3.py serially worker4: executes all tests in testsuite4.py serially while worker1, worker2, worker3 and worker4 are all executed in parallel. Is there a way to achieve this in 'pytest-xidst' framework? The only option that I can think of is to kick off different processes to execute each test suite individually within runner.py: def test_execute_func(testsuite_path): subprocess.process('py.test %s' % testsuite_path) if __name__=='__main__': #Gather all the testsuite names for each testsuite: multiprocessing.Process(test_execute_func,(testsuite_path,))

    Read the article

  • why i^=j^=i^=j isn't equal to *i^=*j^=*i^=*j

    - by klvoek
    In c , when there is variables (assume both as int) i less than j , we can use the equation i^=j^=i^=j to exchange the value of the two variables. For example, let int i = 3, j = 5; after computed i^=j^=i^=j, I got i = 5, j = 3 . What is so amazing to me. But, if i use two int pointers to re-do this , with *i^=*j^=*i^=*j , use the example above what i got will be i = 0 and j = 3. Then, describe it simply: In C 1 int i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this i = 5, j=3 2 int i = 3, j= 5; int *pi = &i, *pj = &j; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj; // after this, $pi = 0, *pj = 5 In JavaScript var i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this, i = 0, j= 3 the result in JavaScript makes this more interesting to me my sample code , on ubuntu server 11.0 & gcc #include <stdio.h> int main(){ int i=7, j=9; int *pi=&i, *pj=&j; i^=j^=i^=j; printf("i=%d j=%d\n", i, j); i=7, j==9; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj printf("i=%d j=%d\n", *pi, *pj); } however, i had spent hours to test and find out why, but nothing means. So, please help me. Or, just only i made some mistake???

    Read the article

  • select failing with C program but not shell

    - by Gary
    So I have a parent and child process, and the parent can read output from the child and send to the input of the child. So far, everything has been working fine with shell scripts, testing commands which input and output data. I just tested with a simple C program and couldn't get it to work. Here's the C program: #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { char stuff[80]; printf("Enter some stuff:\n"); scanf("%s", stuff); return 0; } The problem with with the C program is that my select fails to read from the child fd and hence the program cannot finish. Here's the bit that does the select.. //wait till child is ready fd_set set; struct timeval timeout; FD_ZERO( &set ); // initialize fd set FD_SET( PARENT_READ, &set ); // add child in to set timeout.tv_sec = 3; timeout.tv_usec = 0; int r = select(FD_SETSIZE, &set, NULL, NULL, &timeout); if( r < 1 ) { // we didn't get any input exit(1); } Does anyone have any idea why this would happen with the C program and not a shell one? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

    Read the article

  • Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

    - by seth
    Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

    Read the article

  • How can I bind another DependencyProperty to the IsChecked Property of a CheckBox?

    - by speedmetal
    Here's an example of what I'm trying to accomplish: <Window x:Class="CheckBoxBinding.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <CheckBox Name="myCheckBox">this</CheckBox> <Grid> <Grid.Resources> <Style TargetType="ListBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="{Binding ElementName=myCheckBox, Path=IsChecked}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Grid.Resources> <ListBox> <ListBoxItem>item</ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem>another</ListBoxItem> </ListBox> </Grid> </StackPanel> </Window> When I try to run it, I get this XamlParseException: A 'Binding' cannot be set on the 'Property' property of type 'Trigger'. A 'Binding' can only be set on a DependencyProperty of a DependencyObject. So how can I bind a property on the ListBox to the IsChecked property of a CheckBox?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 915 916 917 918 919 920 921 922 923 924 925 926  | Next Page >