Search Results

Search found 27143 results on 1086 pages for 'include path'.

Page 919/1086 | < Previous Page | 915 916 917 918 919 920 921 922 923 924 925 926  | Next Page >

• VS2010 development web server does not use integrated-mode HTTP handlers/modules

  - by Domenic

  I am developing an ASP.NET MVC 2 web site, targeted for .NET Framework 4.0, using Visual Studio 2010. My web.config contains the following code: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <add name="XhtmlModule" type="DomenicDenicola.Website.XhtmlModule" /> </modules> <handlers> <add name="DotLess" type="dotless.Core.LessCssHttpHandler,dotless.Core" path="*.less" verb="*" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> When I use Build > Publish to put the web site on my local IIS7 instance, it works great. However, when I use Debug > Start Debugging, neither the HTTP handler nor module are executed on any requests. Strangely enough, when I put the handler and module <add /> tags back into <system.web /> under <httpHandlers /> and <httpModules />, they work. This seems to imply that the development web server is running in classic mode. How do I fix this?

  Read the article

• zend session exception on zend_session::start with forms

  - by Grant Collins

  Hi I'm having issues with trying to use Zend_Form_SubForm and sessions. My controller is in essance acting a wizard showing different subforms depending on the stage of the wizard. Using the example I am planning on storing the forms in a session namespace. My controller looks like this. include 'mylib/Form/addTaskWizardForm.php'; class AddtaskController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ private $config = null; private $log = null; private $subFormSession = null; /** * This function is called and initialises the global variables to this object * which is the configuration details and the logger to write to the log file. */ public function init(){ $this->config = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('config'); $this->log = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('log'); //set layout $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('no-sidemenus'); //we need to get the subforms and $wizardForms = new addTaskWizardForm(); $this->subFormSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('addTaskWizardForms'); if(!isset($this->subFormSession->subforms)){ $this->subFormSession->subforms = $wizardForms; } } /** * The Landing page controller for the site. */ public function indexAction(){ $form = $this->subFormSession->subforms->getSubForm('start'); $this->view->form = $form; } However this is causing the application session to crash out with Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() Any idea why this is having issues with the Zend Session?? thanks.

  Read the article

• rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

  - by giorgian

  I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

  Read the article

• How to prevent PHP variables from being arrays?

  - by MJB

  I think that (the title) is the problem I am having. I set up a MySQL connection, I read an XML file, and then I insert those values into a table by looping through the elements. The problem is, instead of inserting only 1 record, sometimes I insert 2 or 3 or 4. It seems to depend on the previous values I have read. I think I am reinitializing the variables, but I guess I am missing something -- hopefully something simple. Here is my code. I originally had about 20 columns, but I shortened the included version to make it easier to read. $ctr = 0; $sql = "insert into csd (id,type,nickname,hostname,username,password) ". "values (?,?,?,?,?,?)"; $cur = $db->prepare($sql); for ($ctr = 0; $ctr < $expected_count; $ctr++) { list ( $lbl, $type, $nickname, $hostname, $username, $password) = ""; $bind_vars = array(); $lbl = "csd_{$ctr}"; $type = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->type; $nickname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->nickname; $hostname = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->hostname; $username = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->username; $password = $ref->itm->csds->$lbl->password; $bind_vars = array($id,$type,$nickname,$hostname,$username,$password); $res = $db->execute($cur, $bind_vars); # this is a separate function which works, but which only # does SELECTS and cannot be the problem. I include it because I # want to count the total rows. printf ("%d CSDs on that ITEM now.\n", CountCSDs($id_to_sync)); } P.S. I also tagged this SimpleXML because that is how I am reading the file, though that code is not included above. It looks like this: $Ref = simplexml_load_file($file);

  Read the article

• How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

  - by Randy

  So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

  - by VideoDnd

  I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

  Read the article

• UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

  - by Dmitry

  I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

  Read the article

• Using Pastebin API in Node.js

  - by wiill

  I've been trying to post a paste to Pastebin in Node.js, but it appears that I'm doing it wrong. I'm getting a Bad API request, invalid api_option, however I'm clearly setting the api_option to paste like the documentation asks for. var http = require('http'); var qs = require('qs'); var query = qs.stringify({ api_option: 'paste', api_dev_key: 'xxxxxxxxxxxx', api_paste_code: 'Awesome paste content', api_paste_name: 'Awesome paste name', api_paste_private: 1, api_paste_expire_date: '1D' }); var req = http.request({ host: 'pastebin.com', port: 80, path: '/api/api_post.php', method: 'POST', headers: { 'Content-Type': 'multipart/form-data', 'Content-Length': query.length } }, function(res) { var data = ''; res.on('data', function(chunk) { data += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { console.log(data); }); }); req.write(query); req.end(); console.log(query) confirms that the string is well encoded and that api_option is there and set to paste. Now, I've been searching forever on possible causes. I also tried setting the encoding on the write req.write(query, 'utf8') because the Pastebin API mentions that the POST must be UTF-8 encoded. I rewrote the thing over and over and re-consulted the Node HTTP documentation many times. I'm pretty sure I completely missed something here, because I don't see how this could fail. Does anyone have an idea of what I have done wrong?

  Read the article

• stackoverflow tags and related tags

  - by parminder

  Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

  Read the article

• Font Awesome Not Working In Chrome

  - by Connor Black

  So I'm trying to prototype a marketing page and I'm using bootstrap and the new font awesome file. The problem is when I try to use an icon all that gets rendered on the page in a big square. Here's how I include the files in the head: <head> <title> </title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap-responsive.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/font-awesome.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/app.css"> <!--[if IE 7]> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/font-awesome-ie7.min.css"> <![endif]--> </head> And here's an example of me trying to use an icon: <i class="icon-camera-retro"></i> But all that gets rendered in a big square. Does anyone know what could be going on?

  Read the article

• divert asp.net child controls

  - by Eric

  Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

  Read the article

• why i^=j^=i^=j isn't equal to *i^=*j^=*i^=*j

  - by klvoek

  In c , when there is variables (assume both as int) i less than j , we can use the equation i^=j^=i^=j to exchange the value of the two variables. For example, let int i = 3, j = 5; after computed i^=j^=i^=j, I got i = 5, j = 3 . What is so amazing to me. But, if i use two int pointers to re-do this , with *i^=*j^=*i^=*j , use the example above what i got will be i = 0 and j = 3. Then, describe it simply: In C 1 int i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this i = 5, j=3 2 int i = 3, j= 5; int *pi = &i, *pj = &j; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj; // after this, $pi = 0, *pj = 5 In JavaScript var i=3, j=5; i^=j^=i^=j; // after this, i = 0, j= 3 the result in JavaScript makes this more interesting to me my sample code , on ubuntu server 11.0 & gcc #include <stdio.h> int main(){ int i=7, j=9; int *pi=&i, *pj=&j; i^=j^=i^=j; printf("i=%d j=%d\n", i, j); i=7, j==9; *pi^=*pj^=*pi^=*pj printf("i=%d j=%d\n", *pi, *pj); } however, i had spent hours to test and find out why, but nothing means. So, please help me. Or, just only i made some mistake???

  Read the article

• Cannot access resource defined in app.xaml

  - by DerKlaus

  I am using Visual Studio 2010 RC1. I define a resource "Brush2" in app.xaml_: <Application x:Class="VideoThumbnails.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="MainWindow.xaml"> <Application.Resources> <RadialGradientBrush x:Key="Brush2" RadiusX="1" RadiusY="1" GradientOrigin="0.3,0.3"> <GradientStop Color="White" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop Color="#ffc0c0" Offset="1"/> </RadialGradientBrush> </Application.Resources> </Application> In my Mainwindow I am trying to use that resource: ... <Border Margin="4,2" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="4" ToolTip="{Binding Path=FullPath}" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Background="{StaticResource Brush2}"> ... No matter what I do it always raises an exception at runtime (Resource not found). I changed build action without success. How can I use resources defined in app.xaml?

  Read the article

• Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

  - by user169867

  I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

  Read the article

• VS 2008 C++ build output?

  - by STingRaySC

  Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

  Read the article

• Is there a way to control how pytest-xdist runs tests in parallel?

  - by superselector

  I have the following directory layout: runner.py lib/ tests/ testsuite1/ testsuite1.py testsuite2/ testsuite2.py testsuite3/ testsuite3.py testsuite4/ testsuite4.py The format of testsuite*.py modules is as follows: import pytest class testsomething: def setup_class(self): ''' do some setup ''' # Do some setup stuff here def teardown_class(self): '''' do some teardown''' # Do some teardown stuff here def test1(self): # Do some test1 related stuff def test2(self): # Do some test2 related stuff .... .... .... def test40(self): # Do some test40 related stuff if __name__=='__main()__' pytest.main(args=[os.path.abspath(__file__)]) The problem I have is that I would like to execute the 'testsuites' in parallel i.e. I want testsuite1, testsuite2, testsuite3 and testsuite4 to start execution in parallel but individual tests within the testsuites need to be executed serially. When I use the 'xdist' plugin from py.test and kick off the tests using 'py.test -n 4', py.test is gathering all the tests and randomly load balancing the tests among 4 workers. This leads to the 'setup_class' method to be executed every time of each test within a 'testsuitex.py' module (which defeats my purpose. I want setup_class to be executed only once per class and tests executed serially there after). Essentially what I want the execution to look like is: worker1: executes all tests in testsuite1.py serially worker2: executes all tests in testsuite2.py serially worker3: executes all tests in testsuite3.py serially worker4: executes all tests in testsuite4.py serially while worker1, worker2, worker3 and worker4 are all executed in parallel. Is there a way to achieve this in 'pytest-xidst' framework? The only option that I can think of is to kick off different processes to execute each test suite individually within runner.py: def test_execute_func(testsuite_path): subprocess.process('py.test %s' % testsuite_path) if __name__=='__main__': #Gather all the testsuite names for each testsuite: multiprocessing.Process(test_execute_func,(testsuite_path,))

  Read the article

• How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

  - by Hoàng Long

  Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

  Read the article

• Newbie question: When to use extern "C" { //code } ?

  - by Russel

  Hello, Maybe I'm not understanding the differences between C and C++, but when and why do we need to use: extern "C" { ? Apparently its a "linkage convention"? I read about it briefly and noticed that all the .h header files included with MSVS surround their code with it. What type of code exactly is "C code" and NOT "C++ code"? I thought C++ included all C code? I'm guessing that this is not the case and that C++ is different and that standard features/functions exist in one or the other but not both (ie: printf is C and cout is C++), but that C++ is backwards compatible though the extern "C" declaration. Is this correct? My next question depends on the answer to the first, but I'll ask it here anyway: Since MSVS header files that are written in C are surrounded by extern "C" { ... }, when would you ever need to use this yourself in your own code? If your code is C code and you are trying to compile it in a C++ compiler, shouldn't it work without problem because all the standard h files you include will already have the extern "C" thing in them with the C++ compiler? Do you have to use this when compiling in C++ but linking to alteady built C libraries or something? Please help clarify this for me... Thanks! --Keith

  Read the article

• C++ destructor called on array index - why

  - by tge

  The following code (from Apache Tuscany SDO C++) occasionally (actually very rarely) causes subsequent crashes and I don't understand what's going on. The following statement is in DataObjectImpl.cpp (see stack below): PropertyImpl* DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl(unsigned int index) { ... 904 PropertyList props = getType().getProperties(); 905 if (index < props.size()) 906 { 907 return (PropertyImpl*)&props[index]; ... causes the following stack (all omitted frames above and below look plausible): Note: #11 libtuscany_sdo.dll!std::vector<>::~vector<> [c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\vector:559] Note: #12 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::PropertyList::~PropertyList [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\propertylist.cpp:60] Note: #13 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:907] Note: #14 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getSDOValue [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:3845] The actual question is - why is the destructor of PropertyList called?? As stated, the stack looks OK otherwise, also the vector destructor, as PropertyList has a member std::vector<PropertyImplPtr plist; and the array index operator of PropertyList just calls the array index of the plist member. And, even more puzzling (to me), why this happens only occasionally ... Many thx!!

  Read the article

• Add less than integer variable to string search

  - by user1691832

  I'm scanning a text document for certain installed programs on a computer and looking for an easy way to include a greater or less than variable in the string I'm scanning for. Here is a very ugly and cumbersome example of what I'm using currently and while it works as a temporary fix, isn't practical or sustainable. If CheckBox2.Checked Then sReader.Close() If text.Contains("Adobe Flash Player 11 Plugin") And text.Contains("Adobe Flash Player 11 ActiveX") Then Else If text.Contains("Adobe Flash Player 12 Plugin") And text.Contains("Adobe Flash Player 12 ActiveX") Then Else If text.Contains("Adobe Flash Player 13 Plugin") And text.Contains("Adobe Flash Player 13 ActiveX") Then Else '(Goes ahead and does a silent install of the missing or outdated program) So far I've run into this problem with both Adobe Flash and Java RTE and am certain to run into it with future programs. Essentially I need to scan for "Adobe Flash Player (Any number less than 11) Plugin" , "Adobe Flash Player (Any number less than 11) ActiveX" , "Java (number less than 9) Update (any number)". I'm sure whatever solution is offered can likely be adapted to similar programs I'm likely to encounter later. Thanks ----- Edit ----- I've since tried the following code but it always returns the "Found" messagebox, even when no version of adobe flash is present in the file it is scanning. If CheckBox2.Checked Then sReader.Close() Dim options As RegexOptions = RegexOptions.None Dim regex As Regex = New Regex("Adobe Flash Player (?<version>\d+) (Plugin|ActiveX)", options) Dim input As String = "Adobe Flash Player 11 Plugin" ' Get match Dim match As Match = regex.Match(input) Dim version As String = match.Groups("version").Value If (match.Success) Then MessageBox.Show("Version 11 or higher found, skipping install") Else MessageBox.Show("Version 11 or higher not found, installing Version 11")

  Read the article

• ajax login problem

  - by rdanee

  $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

  Read the article

• What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

  - by James Wiseman

  I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

  Read the article

• Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

  - by seth

  Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

  Read the article

• Linked list example using threads

  - by Carl_1789

  I have read the following code of using CRITICAL_SECTION when working with multiple threads to grow a linked list. what would be the main() part which uses two threads to add to linked list? #include <windows.h> typedef struct _Node { struct _Node *next; int data; } Node; typedef struct _List { Node *head; CRITICAL_SECTION critical_sec; } List; List *CreateList() { List *pList = (List*)malloc(sizeof(pList)); pList->head = NULL; InitializeCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); return pList; } void AddHead(List *pList, Node *node) { EnterCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); node->next = pList->head; pList->head = node; LeaveCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); } void Insert(List *pList, Node *afterNode, Node *newNode) { EnterCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); if (afterNode == NULL) { AddHead(pList, newNode); } else { newNode->next = afterNode->next; afterNode->next = newNode; } LeaveCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); } Node *Next(List *pList, Node *node) { Node* next; EnterCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); next = node->next; LeaveCriticalSection(&pList->critical_sec); return next; }

  Read the article

• How should I organize my mvc templates?

  - by CatZ

  Hi, In the new version of MVC we have been given display and editor templates. I was wondering how to make the best possible use of these. I was at first thinking in the line of creating one for a collection and one for an item in the case I want to display either as a list or single but it does not really make sense to me. I'll show you what I mean and please comment if this is wrong. I have trouble figuring it out myself. <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<DisplayPhoneModel>>" %> <% foreach (var item in Model){%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => item) %> <%}%> So in my tiny reality that would for every item in the model search for a display template for DisplayPhoneModel. That display template could then simply look like. <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<DisplayPhoneModel>" %> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.PhoneType) %>&nbsp;<%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.PhoneNumber) %> So, question is if there is a better way to handle this? Am I at all on the right path?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 915 916 917 918 919 920 921 922 923 924 925 926  | Next Page >