Search Results

Search found 25579 results on 1024 pages for 'complex event processing'.

Page 936/1024 | < Previous Page | 932 933 934 935 936 937 938 939 940 941 942 943  | Next Page >

  • WordPress: Using a Where Clause With A Custom Field

    - by Steve Wilkison
    I have a bunch of events that are listed on a particular page. Each event is a post. I need them to display in the order in which they occur, NOT the order of the posting date. So, I've created a custom field called TheDate and enter in the date in this format for each one: 20110306. Then, I wrote my query like this: query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); Works perfectly and displays the events in the correct order. However, I also want it to ONLY display dates from today onward. I don't want it to display dates which have passed. It seems the way to do this is with a "filter." I tried this, but it doesn't work. $todaysdate = date('Ymd'); query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); function filter_where( $where = '' ) { $where .= "meta_value_num >= $todaysdate"; return $where; } add_filter( 'posts_where', 'filter_where' ); I figure it's just a matter of where I'm using this filter, I probably have it in the wrong place. Or maybe the filter itself is bad. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to design a data model that deals with (real) contracts?

    - by Geoffrey
    I was looking for some advice on designing a data model for contract administration. The general life cycle of a contract is thus: Contract is created and in a "draft" state. It is viewable internally and changes may be made. Contract goes out to vendor, status is set to "pending" Contract is rejected by vendor. At this state, nothing can be done to the contract. No statuses may be added to the collection. Contract is accepted by vendor. At this state, nothing can be done to the contract. No statuses may be added to the collection. I obviously want to avoid a situation where the contract is accepted and, say, the amount is changed. Here are my classes: [EnforceNoChangesAfterDraftState] public class VendorContract { public virtual Vendor Vendor { get; set; } public virtual decimal Amount { get; set; } public virtual VendorContact VendorContact { get; set; } public virtual string CreatedBy { get; set; } public virtual DateTime CreatedOn { get; set; } public virtual FileStore Contract { get; set; } public virtual IList<VendorContractStatus> ContractStatus { get; set; } } [EnforceCorrectWorkflow] public class VendorContractStatus { public virtual VendorContract VendorContract { get; set; } public virtual FileStore ExecutedDocument { get; set; } public virtual string Status { get; set; } public virtual string Reason { get; set; } public virtual string CreatedBy { get; set; } public virtual DateTime CreatedOn { get; set; } } I've omitted the filestore class, which is basically a key/value lookup to find the document based on its guid. The VendorContractStatus is mapped as a many-to-one in Nhibernate. I then use a custom validator as described here. If anything but draft is returned in the VendorContractStatus collection, no changes are allowed. Furthermore the VendorContractStatus must follow the correct workflow (you can add a rejected after a pending, but you can't add anything else to the collection if a reject or accepted exists, etc.). All sounds alright? Well a colleague has argued that we should simply add an "IsDraft" bool property to VendorContract and not accept updates if IsDraft is false. Then we should setup a method inside of VendorContractStatus for updating the status, if something gets added after a draft, it sets the IsDraft property of VendorContract to false. I do not like this as it feels like I'm dirtying up the POCOs and adding logic that should persist in the validation area, that no rules should really exist in these classes and they shouldn't be aware of their states. Any thoughts on this and what is the better practice from a DDD perspective? From my view, if in the future we want more complex rules, my way will be more maintainable over the long run. Say we have contracts over a certain amount to be approved by a manager. I would think it would be better to have a one-to-one mapping with a VendorContractApproval class, rather than adding IsApproved properties, but that's just speculation. This might be splitting hairs, but this is the first real gritty enterprise software project we've done. Any advice would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Setting left/top position not working in IE

    - by Brian
    Hello, In a custom ASP.NET AJAX control, i have this to do some repositioning. var dims = Sys.UI.DomElement.getBounds(control); this.get_element().style.position = "absolute"; //Sys.UI.DomElement.setLocation(this.get_element(), dims.x, (dims.y + dims.height)); this.get_element().style.left = dims.x; this.get_element().style.top = (dims.y + dims.height); getBounds simply returns the x/y and width/height. I use this to set the left/top, but in IE, it's doubling; say the coordinates are 500, 20; when it sets this on the element, its actually setting to 1000, 40. Any ideas why? In firefox, this works correctly. this.get_element() returns the correct element and all, but it's not setting correctly, even though event logging says it's the correct coordinates. When using setLocation too, it doesn't work in either... What else in my code may be affecting it? JQuery isn't an option here too. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Record the timestamps of slide changes during a live Powerpoint presentation?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I am planning to implement a lecture capture solution. One of the requirements is to record both the presenter and the slideshow. The presenter is recorded with a videocamera obviously, and the slideshow will probably be captured using a tool like Camtasia. Now during playback three components are visible: the presenter, the slides and a table of contents. Clicking a chapter title in the TOC causes the video to navigate to the corresponding section. This means that a mapping must be made between chapter titles and their timestamps in the video. Usually a change of topic is accompanied with a slide change in the Powerpoint presentation. So the timestamps could be deduced from the slidechanges. However, this requires me to detect slide changes during the live presentation. And I don't know how to do that. Anyone here knows how to do detect slide changes? Is there a Powerpoint API where I can connect event handlers or something like that? I'd greatly appreciate your help! Edit This issue is no longer relevant for my current work so this question will not be updated by me. However, you are still free to help others by posting your answers/insights here.

    Read the article

  • MAAttachedWindow hide

    - by Montecorte
    I had the same problem that The-Kenny at this post but I fixed it adding the windowDidResignKey: method on the MAAttachedWindow.m, but now my problem is that when I click outside the StatusBar item keeps blue background and when I click another time on the status item it goes normally and I have to click a second time on it to show the window. I tried to add a method in the CustomView (the view of the status item) that do the same thing that te mouseDown method: - (void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)event { NSRect frame = [[self window] frame]; NSPoint pt = NSMakePoint(NSMidX(frame), NSMidY(frame)); NSLog(@"%g,%g",pt.x,pt.y); clicked = !clicked; [controller toggleAttachedWindowAtPoint:pt]; [self setNeedsDisplay:YES];} my method is: - (void)windowDidResignKey { NSLog(@"Resigned"); NSRect frame = [[self window] frame]; NSPoint pt = NSMakePoint(NSMidX(frame), NSMidY(frame)); NSLog(@"%g,%g",pt.x,pt.y); clicked = !clicked; [controller toggleAttachedWindowAtPoint:pt]; [self setNeedsDisplay:YES];} I call this method in the windowDidResignKey that I have defined on MAAttachedWindow.m, but this method dont call correctly the toggleAttachedWindowAtPoint method, I dont know exactly why, it's only called when I click another time over the status item If anybody knows how to do that any help would be fine. Thank you so much :)

    Read the article

  • Question regarding ideal database implementation for iPhone app

    - by Jeff
    So I have a question about the ideal setup for an app I am getting ready to build. The app is basically going to be a memorization tool and I already have an sqlite database full of content that I will be using for the app. The user will navigate through the contents of the database(using the uipickerview), and select something for memorization. If that row or cell of data is selected, it is put into a pool or a uitableview that is dedicated to showing which items you have in your "need to memorize" pool. When you go to that tableview, you can select the row, and the actual data would be populated. All information in the tableview would be deletable, in the event that they don't want it there anymore... Thats it. I know that with database interfacing, there are a few different options out there, in this particular setup, is core data the easiest approach? Is there any other way that would be better? I am just kind of looking for a point in the right direction, any help is greatly appreciated!!

    Read the article

  • DataGridView update datasource directly after changed Checkbox value

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a System.Windows.Forms DataGridView that is bound to a List<MyObject>. The class MyObject contains a boolean property that is bound to DataGridViewCheckboxCell within the DataGridView. public class MyObject { public decimal DefaultValue {get; set; } public bool HasCustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CurrentValue { get { return HasCustomValue ? CustomValue : DefaultValue; } } If I change the value of HasCustomValue another (readonly) property CurrentValue changes it's value, too. That is done by implementing the INotifyPropertyChanged event (I left that part in the source example for simplicity) If I changed HasCustomValue from outside the DataGridView, the column bound to CurrentValue gets updated immediately. Howevery, If the users enables/disables the checkbox, HasCustomValue is not changed in the underlying datasource unless he leaves the column by clicking with the mouse or pressing the TAB key. Is there a way to force the grid to update the datasource directly after changing a checkbox value? If I bind a Control Property I have the ability to set the DataSourceUpdateMode to Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged but I haven't found anything like that in a DataGridView

    Read the article

  • Bubble sort dropped images based on their names

    - by user2259784
    I have written a simple bubble sort function that sort an array of Image objects based on image names. For some reason my function is not swapping the elements of array when needed ( basically new assignment is not working) Here is my code : listOfFiles = event.dataTransfer.files; sortImages(listOfFiles); function sortImages(listOfFiles) { var re = /[0-9]/; var temp; for( var index=0; index < listOfFiles.length ; index++) { for ( var index2=0; index2 < listOfFiles.length-1 ; index2++) { var one = parseFloat(re.exec(listOfFiles[index2].name )); var two = parseFloat(re.exec(listOfFiles[index2+1].name)); console.log(one + " : " + two); if (one > two) { console.log(listOfFiles[index2+1]); console.log(listOfFiles[index2]); //following three lines don't work temp = listOfFiles[index2+1]; listOfFiles[index2+1] = listOfFiles[index2]; listOfFiles[index2] = temp; console.log(listOfFiles[index2+1]); console.log(listOfFiles[index2]); } } } }

    Read the article

  • JPA/Hibernate Parent/Child relationship

    - by NubieJ
    Hi I am quite new to JPA/Hibernate (Java in general) so my question is as follows (note, I have searched far and wide and have not come across an answer to this): I have two entities: Parent and Child (naming changed). Parent contains a list of Children and Children refers back to parent. e.g. @Entity public class Parent { @Id @Basic @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "PARENT_ID", insertable = false, updatable = false) private int id; /* ..... */ @OneToMany(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "PARENT_ID", referencedColumnName = "PARENT_ID", nullable = true) private Set<child> children; /* ..... */ } @Entity public class Child { @Id @Basic @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "CHILD_ID", insertable = false, updatable = false) private int id; /* ..... */ @ManyToOne(cascade = { CascadeType.REFRESH }, fetch = FetchType.EAGER, optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "PARENT_ID", referencedColumnName = "PARENT_ID") private Parent parent; /* ..... */ } I want to be able to do the following: Retrieve a Parent entity which would contain a list of all its children (List), however, when listing Parent (getting List, it of course should omit the children from the results, therefore setting FetchType.LAZY. Retrieve a Child entity which would contain an instance of the Parent entity. Using the code above (or similar) results in two exceptions: Retrieving Parent: A cycle is detected in the object graph. This will cause infinitely deep XML... Retrieving Child: org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: xxxxxxxxxxx, no session or session was closed When retrieving the Parent entity, I am using a named query (i.e. calling it specifically) @NamedQuery(name = "Parent.findByParentId", query = "SELECT p FROM Parent AS p LEFT JOIN FETCH p.children where p.id = :id") Code to get Parent (i.e. service layer): public Parent findByParentId(int parentId) { Query query = em.createNamedQuery("Parent.findByParentId"); query.setParameter("id", parentId); return (Parent) query.getSingleResult(); } Why am I getting a LazyInitializationException event though the List property on the Parent entity is set as Lazy (when retrieving the Child entity)?

    Read the article

  • Resizing FileReference image then reuploading, only reuploads original image.

    - by pfunc
    I can;t figure out how to do this. Someone selects and image after calling FileReference.browse(). I take that image and make a thumbnail in flash. Then I upload that image like so: var newFileReq:URLRequest = new URLRequest(FILE_UPLOAD_TEMP); newFileReq.contentType = "application/octet-stream"; var fileReqVars:URLVariables = new URLVariables(); fileReqVars.image = myThumbImage; fileReqVars.folder = "Thumbs"; newFileReq.data = fileReqVars; newFileReq.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; //upload the first image fileRef.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onFirstFileUp); fileRef.upload(newFileReq, "Filedata"); All this does it upload the original image. How do I change the fileRef to upload the new thumb? I have traced out the size of the "myThumbImage" and it is correct. I have placed it visually on the stage after creating the thumb, and it seems like it works. But when I upload it to an aspx page (that basically just throws it into a folder), it uploads the original larger image.

    Read the article

  • Using awk to return only certain chunks of data

    - by Koriar
    I'm not 100% certain how to phrase my question simply, so I apologize if this has been answered somewhere and I was just unable to find it. What I have are debug logs with authentication packets in them along with a bunch of other output. I need to search through about 2 million lines of logs to find every packet that contains a certain mac address. The packets look something like this (slightly censored): -----------------[ header ]----------------- Event: Authd-Response (1900) Sequence: -54 Timestamp: 1969-12-31 19:30:00 (0) ---------------[ attributes ]--------------- Auth-Result = Auth-Accept Service-Profile-SID = 53 Service-Profile-SID = 49 RADIUS-Access-Accept-Attr/WiMAX-Capability = 0x(numbers) Session-Timeout = 3600 Service-Profile-SID = 4 Service-Profile-SID = 29 Chargeable-User-Identity = "(Numbers)" User-Password = "(the MAC address I'm looking for)" -------------------------------------------- However there are about 10 different possible types with different possible lengths. They all start with the header line and end with the all-dashes line. I've had success using awk to get the code blocks themselves using this: awk '/-----------------\[ header \]-----------------/,/--------------------------------------------/' filename.txt But I was hoping to be able to use it to return only the packets which contain the MAC address that I need. I've been trying to figure this out for a few days now and I'm pretty stuck. I could try and write a bash script, but I could swear that I've used awk to do something like this before...

    Read the article

  • Modify onclick function with jQuery

    - by Chris Barr
    I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

    Read the article

  • Problems with overriding OnPaint and grabbing mouse events in C# UserControl containing other controls

    - by MoreThanChaos
    I've made a control which contains few other controls like PictureBox, Label and TextBox. But I'm having two problems: 1. I tried to paint some things on top of my control and when I'm overriding OnPaint, it results that things I try to draw are under controls that my control contains. Areas on which I would like to draw intersect with controls in ways that are not easy to predict. I mean that it includes something drawn on controls inside as well as on base of control. Is there a simple way to draw something on top of all contents of my control? Setting ForeColor to Transparent isn't a solution that would help me much. 2. I have a problem with grabbing mouse click events when I place my control on a form and add click event handling. It only works when I click on an area not occupied by controls inside. I would like the whole control to react to clicks and other actions like it was one consistent control. How can I redirect/handle these clicks to make them work the way I want? Thanks in advance for any tips

    Read the article

  • Looping through Markers with Google Maps API v3 Problem

    - by Oscar Godson
    I'm not sure why this isn't working. I don't have any errors, but what happens is, no matter what marker I click on, it clicks the 3rd one (which is the last one out of 4 markers. Array starts at 0, obviously) and shows the number "3", which is correct for THAT one, but I'm not clicking that one. Here is most of my code, just not the array of [place-name, coordinates] (var locations, which you will see): function initialize() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(45.522015,-122.683811); var settings = { zoom: 15, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI:true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.SATELLITE }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); var infowindow = new Array(); var marker = new Array(); for(x in locations){ console.log(x); infowindow[x] = new google.maps.InfoWindow({content: x}); marker[x] = new google.maps.Marker({title:locations[x][0],map:map,position:locations[x][1]}); google.maps.event.addListener(marker[x], 'click', function() {infowindow[x].open(map,marker[x]);}); } } initialize() The console.log output is (its correct, and what i expect): 0 1 2 3 So, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I format Custom Data and display in autocomplete when source is an DB

    - by Andres Scarpone
    so I'm trying to get some info in the auto-complete widget like it's shown in the JQuery UI demo Demo, the only problem is they use a variable that they fill with the data they want to show, I instead want to access the data and the different description and stuff using a Data Base in MySQL, for this I have changed the source to use another php page that looks up the info. here is the code for the Auto-complete, I really don't understand the methods so I haven't changed it from the basic search. This is the JS: $(document).ready((function(){ $( "#completa" ).autocomplete({ source: "buscar.php", minLength: 1, focus: function (event, ui){ $("#completa").val(ui.item.val); return false; }; })); This is what I have in buscar.php: <?php $conec = mysql_connect(localhost, root, admin); if(!$conec) { die(mysql_error()); } else { $bd = mysql_select_db("ve_test",$conec ); if(!$bd) { die(mysql_error()); } } $termino = trim(strip_tags($_GET['term']));//Obtener el termino que envia el autocompletar $qstring = "SELECT name, descripcion FROM VE_table WHERE name LIKE '%".$termino."%'"; $result = mysql_query($qstring);//Solicitud a la Base de Datos while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result,MYSQL_ASSOC))//Realizar un LOOP sobre los valores obtenidos { $row['value']=htmlentities(stripslashes($row['name'])); $row_set[] = $row;//build an array } echo json_encode($row_set);//Enviar los datos al autocompletar en codificacion JSON, Altamente Necesario. ?

    Read the article

  • Child Activity in Android

    - by Martin Marinov
    So I have two Activities. The main is called Main, and the child one is called Child. When a button is clicked in the main activity it triggers the following piece of code: Intent i = new Intent(Main.this, Child.class); Main.this.startActivity(i); That opens the Child activity. As soon as I call finish() or press the back button within the child activity instead of going back to the main one, the app just closes. Can you give me a hint where the problem might be :( P.S. By trial and error I found out that if edit AndroidManifest.xml and add android:theme="@android:style/Theme.Dialog" within the declaration of Child the back button and calling finish() behaves as expected: closes the child activity and brings the main into focus. The problem is that when I start typing in an EditText the screen starts flickering (rather bizzare). So I can't use it as a dialog. My main activity uses the camera, so that might be making problems. Although when the child activity is started, the onPause event is fired and it stops the camera until onResume is called.

    Read the article

  • Timer takes 10 ms more then interval

    - by Praveen
    Hi All, I am using a timer with interval 50 miliseconds. But in the timer's tick event when I print the time it's always 62 or 65 ms. I don't understand why it's taking 10 ms more. Please can some one have look into this. Here is the code I am using. static int _counter; System.Timers.Timer _timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); _timer.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(_timer_Elapsed); _timer.Start(); } void _timer_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString("{hh:mm:ss.fff}")); _counter++; if (_counter == 20) _timer.Stop(); } And this the output: {01:59:08.381} {01:59:09.393} {01:59:10.407} {01:59:11.421} {01:59:12.435} {01:59:13.449} {01:59:14.463} {01:59:15.477} {01:59:16.491} {01:59:17.505} {01:59:18.519} {01:59:19.533} {01:59:20.547} {01:59:21.561} {01:59:22.575} {01:59:23.589} {01:59:24.603} {01:59:25.615} {01:59:26.629} {01:59:27.643}

    Read the article

  • Does className exist in Mootools ?

    - by anna mae
    Hi, I want to update this very simple JS to Mootools 1.2 and it's not easy. This function : function changeclass(x){ document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass0"; document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass" + x; } is triggered in the DOM by : <div id="someclass"> a href="javascript: changeclass(0)">Unstyled</a a href="javascript: changeclass(1)">link one</a a href="javascript: changeclass(2)">link two</a a href="javascript: changeclass(3)">link three</a </div> to call the according CSS classes like : .ziclass1 h1{ color: rgb(142,11,0); font-family: Verdana; font-size: 2.5em; letter-spacing: 0.1em; } and changes the layout accordingly in : <div id="content" class="ziclass3"> ... </div> I know I can add an event to the triggers like : $(#someclass.each(function(element,index) { element.addEvent('click', function(){ //some code }); But, how do I get #content class classname ? Through an array ? I am a bit confused here. I'd be really grateful for any help to set me on the right track

    Read the article

  • Passing a WHERE clause for a Linq-to-Sql query as a parameter

    - by Mantorok
    Hi all This is probably pushing the boundaries of Linq-to-Sql a bit but given how versatile it has been so far I thought I'd ask. I have 3 queries that are selecting identical information and only differ in the where clause, now I know I can pass a delegate in but this only allows me to filter the results already returned, but I want to build up the query via parameter to ensure efficiency. Here is the query: from row in DataContext.PublishedEvents join link in DataContext.PublishedEvent_EventDateTimes on row.guid equals link.container join time in DataContext.EventDateTimes on link.item equals time.guid where row.ApprovalStatus == "Approved" && row.EventType == "Event" && time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) orderby time.StartDate select new EventDetails { Title = row.EventName, Description = TrimDescription(row.Description) }; The code I want to apply via a parameter would be: time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) Is this possible? I don't think it is but thought I'd check out first. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Trouble determining onclick's target

    - by pwseo
    I've tried and tried... and I can't seem to make this work in IE (tested version 6) Can anybody help me? IE complains about an error but refuses to tell which error it is... var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i].getAttribute("class") == "info-link") { a[i].onclick = function(e) { e = e || window.event; var target = e.srcElement || e.target; var info = target.parentNode.getElementsByTagName("div")[0]; if (info.style.display == "none" || info.style.display == "") { info.style.display = "block"; } else { info.style.display = "none"; } return false; } } } <div class="auxdata"> <a href="#" class="info-link">Esta questão possuí dados anexos. Clique para ver.</a> <div style="display: none;" class="info-inner"> <!-- variable stuff here --> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

    - by Panindra
    i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

    Read the article

  • Segmentation fault in Qt application framework

    - by yan bellavance
    this generates a segmentation fault becuase of "QColor colorMap[9]";. If I remove colorMap the segmentation fault goes away. If I put it back. It comes back. If I do a clean all then build all, it goes away. If I increase its arraysize it comes back. On the other hand if I reduce it it doesnt come back. I tired adding this array to another project and What could be happening. I am really curious to know. I have removed everything else in that class. This widget subclassed is used to promote a widget in a QMainWindow. class LevelIndicator : public QWidget { public: LevelIndicator(QWidget * parent); void paintEvent(QPaintEvent * event ); float percent; QColor colorMap[9]; int NUM_GRADS; }; the error happens inside ui_mainwindow.h at one of these lines: hpaFwdPwrLvl->setObjectName(QString::fromUtf8("hpaFwdPwrLvl")); verticalLayout->addWidget(hpaFwdPwrLvl); I know i am not providing much but I will give alink to the app. Im trying to see if anyone has a quick answer for this.

    Read the article

  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 932 933 934 935 936 937 938 939 940 941 942 943  | Next Page >