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  • Rotate and Save Image - C#

    - by Taylor
    Hello, I'm trying to rotate and save an image, along with returning a BitmapSource. I pass in the rotation value (90 or -90) and the full path to the image I want to rotate to the method shown here. It works fine if I start and stop my application between calling this method. however, if the application calls rotate multiple times the rotate only happens once. I know the original image must be cached in memory, because if I pass values 90, 180, 270 I see the rotations work. I want to be able to pass in a value of 90 or -90 and have that rotate and save the original image. How can I make the rotate work for each call? Is there a way to clear the cached value of the image? If I don't set the BitmapCacheOption to OnLoad, I am unable to transform and save the image since the image is "being used by another process". public BitmapImage Rotate(int val, string path) { //create a new image from existing file. Image image = new Image(); BitmapImage logo = new BitmapImage(); logo.BeginInit(); logo.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; logo.UriSource = new Uri(path); logo.EndInit(); image.Source = logo; BitmapSource img = (BitmapSource)(image.Source); //rotate image and save CachedBitmap cache = new CachedBitmap(img, BitmapCreateOptions.None, BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad); TransformedBitmap tb = new TransformedBitmap(cache, new RotateTransform(val)); TiffBitmapEncoder encoder = new TiffBitmapEncoder(); encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(tb)); using (FileStream file = File.OpenWrite(path)) { encoder.Save(file); } //update page view BitmapImage bi = new BitmapImage(); bi.BeginInit(); bi.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; bi.UriSource = new Uri(path); bi.EndInit(); return bi; }

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  • Wrong item checked when filtering ListView in android

    - by aspartame
    I have a ListView with multiple choice entries where some are checked from the beginning using setItemChecked(position, true); I combine this with the filtering option setTextFilterEnabled(true) so it's easy to find a specific entry in the list. The problem is that when I filter the list the entries switch position in the list view. Take for example three entries: 'A', 'B' and 'C' where 'C' is checked beforehand (i.e. the entry at position 3 in the list). When I type a 'C' on the keyboard, only the 'C' entry is displayed (as intended). Now 'C' is not checked anymore, since the entry has moved from the checked position 3 to the unchecked position 1 in the list. This behavior leads to some not very welcome effects in the app. Is there a way to "move the selection with the filtering", i.e. bind the checked state to the entry and not to its initial position in the list? Or do I need to find a new approach? Thanks, Linus

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  • Automatic (keyless) styles not applied when in a MergedDictionaries in another assembly

    - by Catalin DICU
    I moved the styles and templates xaml files form my application (.exe) project to a library project (.dll) because I want to use them in multiple applications. In App.xaml I have: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/MyApplication.Common;component/Resources/All.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> In All.xaml (in the Common assembly) : <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Templates.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Converters.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> With this code keyless styles in Styles.xaml aren't applied. Instead, if I reference them directly in App.xaml, it works : <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/MyApplication.Common;component/Resources/Styles.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/MyApplication.Common;component/Resources/Templates.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/MyApplication.Common;component/Resources/Converters.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> Can anyone explain why it happens ?

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  • How to prevent latex memory overflow

    - by drasto
    I've got a latex macro that makes small pictures. In that picture I need to draw area. Borders of that area are quadratic bezier curves and that area is to be filled. I did not know how to do it so currently I'm "filling" the area by drawing a plenty of bezier curves inside it... This slows down typeseting and when a macro is used multiple times (so tex is drawing really a lot of quadratic bezier curves) it produces following error: ! TeX capacity exceeded, sorry [main memory size=3000000]. How can I prevent this error ? (by freeing memory after macro or such...) Or even better how do I fill the area determined by two quadratic bezier curves? Code that produces error: \usepackage{forloop} \usepackage{picture} \usepackage{eepic} ... \linethickness{\lineThickness\unitlength}% \forloop[\lineThickness]{cy}{\cymin}{\value{cy} < \cymax}{% \qbezier(\ax, \ay)(\cx, \value{cy})(\bx, \by)% }% Here are some example values for variables: \setlength{\unitlength}{0.01pt} \lineThickness=20 %cy is just a counter - inital value is not important \cymin=450 \cymax=900 %from following only the difference between \ax and \bx is important \ax=0 \ay=0 \bx=550 \by=0 Note: To reproduce the error this code have to execute approximately 150 times (could be more depending on your latex memory settings). Thanks a lot for any help

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  • Take screenshot with Selenium: WaitForPageToLoad does not wait long enough

    - by OregonGhost
    I'm trying to get screenshots from a web page with multiple browsers. Just experimenting with Selenium RC, I wrote code like this: var sel = new DefaultSelenium(server, 4444, target, url); sel.Start(); sel.Open(url); sel.WaitForPageToLoad("30000"); var imageString = sel.CaptureScreenshotToString(); This basically works, but in most cases the screenshot is of a blank browser window, because the page is not yet ready for display. It kind of works if I add a sleep just after the WaitForPageToLoad, but that slows down the fast browsers and/or may be to short for the slower browsers (or under load). A typical solution for this seems to be to wait for the presence of a certain element. However, this is meant as a simple generic solution to get a screenshot of a local web page with as many browsers as possible (to test the layout) and I don't want to have to enter certain element names or whatever. It's a simple tool where you just enter the Selenium Server URL and the URL you want to test, and get the screenshots back. Any advice?

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  • Using Mapping Models to migrate between Core Data Object Models

    - by westsider
    I have a fairly simply scheme. Essentially, Run <-- Data (where a Run holds a data, e.g., Temperature, sampled from some sort of sensor). Now, it seems that sensors can have more than one measurement (e.g., Temperature and Humidity). So, a single Run could have multiple data samples. Hence, Run <-- Sample and Sample <-- Data. (And for simplicity I am leaving Run <-- Data in place, for now.) If I create a new mapping model, then things generally work - except that no new Samples are created, no relationships are established between Runs and Samples nor between Samples and Datas. I am trying to get mapping model to migrate my model but even the slightest change to the generated mapping model results in Cocoa error 134110. For example, if I take the "Sample" mapping (which has no Source) and set its Source to 'Run' (so that I can set Sample's inverse relationship 'run' appropriately) then the mapping changes its name to "RunToSample". There are two relationships handled in this mapping: data and run. The data property gets set automatically to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "DataToData", $source.dataSet) Following this example, I set the run property to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToRun", $source) Similarly, I set the 'sample' property mapping in RunToRun to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToSample", $source) and the 'sample' property in DataToData to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToSample", $source.run) So, what, I wonder, is going wrong? I have tried various permutations, such as leaving the 'inverse' relationships unspecified. But I continue to get the same error (134110) regardless. I imagine that this is a lot easier than it seems and that I am missing some fundamental but minor piece. I have also tried subclassing NSEntityMigrationPolicy and overriding -createDestinationInstancesForSourceInstance: but these efforts have met with much the same results. Thanks in advance for any pointers or (relevant :-) advice.

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  • Boto - How to delete a record set from route53 -Tried to delete resource record set but it was not found

    - by Tampa
    I am using the following to delete route53 records. I get no error messages. conn = Route53Connection(aws_access_key_id, aws_secret_access_key) changes = ResourceRecordSets(conn, zone_id) change = changes.add_change("DELETE",sub_domain, "A", 60,weight=weight,identifier=identifier) change.add_value(ip_old) changes.commit() all required fields are present and they match..weight, identifier, ttl=60 etc.\ e.g. test.com. A 111.111.111.111 60 1 id1 test.com. A 111.111.111.222 60 1 id2 I want to delete 111.111.111.222 and the record set. So, what is the proper way to delete a record set? For a record set, I will have multiple values that are distinguished by a unique identifier. When an ip address becomes in active I want to remove from route53. I am using a a poor mans load balancing. Here is the meta of the record want to delete. {'alias_dns_name': None, 'alias_hosted_zone_id': None, 'identifier': u'15754-1', 'name': u'hui.com.', 'resource_records': [u'103.4.xxx.xxx'], 'ttl': u'60', 'type': u'A', 'weight': u'1'} Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/ubuntu/workspace/rtbopsConfig/classes/redis_ha.py", line 353, in <module> deleteRedisSubDomains(aws_access_key_id, aws_secret_access_key,platform=platform,sub_domain=sub_domain,redis_domain=redis_domain,zone_id=zone_id,ip_address=ip_address,weight=1,identifier=identifier) File "/home/ubuntu/workspace/rtbopsConfig/classes/redis_ha.py", line 341, in deleteRedisSubDomains changes.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/boto-2.3.0-py2.7.egg/boto/route53/record.py", line 131, in commit return self.connection.change_rrsets(self.hosted_zone_id, self.to_xml()) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/boto-2.3.0-py2.7.egg/boto/route53/connection.py", line 291, in change_rrsets body) boto.route53.exception.DNSServerError: DNSServerError: 400 Bad Request <?xml version="1.0"?> <ErrorResponse xmlns="https://route53.amazonaws.com/doc/2011-05-05/"><Error><Type>Sender</Type><Code>InvalidChangeBatch</Code><Message>Tried to delete resource record set hui.com., type A, SetIdentifier 15754-1 but it was not found</Message></Error><RequestId>9972af89-cb69-11e1-803b-7bde5b9c457d</RequestId></ErrorResponse> Thanks

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  • How to link C# and C++ assemblies into a single executable

    - by swingkid
    I have VS2008 solution containg a project that generates a C# executable that references a project that generates a dll containing both C++/CLI and unmanaged C++. I would like to merge these into a single executable, as the C++ dll contains security code that I want to embed in the main executable. I cannot use ILMerge, as the dll contains both managed and unmanaged code. The suggested solution seems to be to use link.exe to link the C# assembly with the C++ object files. This is what I am trying to do. I manually edited the project file for the c# executable to generate a netmodule. I added a post build step to the executable project to run link.exe to link the c# netmodule and the compiled C++ object files together, then run mt.exe to merge the assembly manifests created by both projects. This runs successfully, but the exe still contains a reference to and uses the c++ types defined in the dll generated by the normal build process for the C++ project. I then specified /NOASSEMBLY in the project settings for the C++ dll, so it also generates a netmodule. In the C# project, I removed the reference to the C++ project, but added a project dependancy in the solution. I manually edited the C# project file to include similar to: <ItemGroup> <AddModules Include="..\Debug\librarycode.netmodule" /> </ItemGroup> i.e. to reference the C++ netmodule that is now generated by the C++ project. However, now the linker step in my post build event fails with: error LNK2027: unresolved module reference 'librarycode.netmodule' fatal error LNK1311: 1 unresolved module references: This is entirely understandable, as I am not linking in the librarycode netmodule; I am linking in the C++ object files used to generate the netmodule instead. So in short, how do I merge a c# executable and C++ object files into a single assembly? What have I missed? My source of reference so far (appart from the link.exe command link reference etc on MSDN) are the two following articles: http://blogs.msdn.com/texblog/archive/2007/04/05/linking-native-c-into-c-applications.aspx http://www.hanselman.com/blog/MixingLanguagesInASingleAssemblyInVisualStudioSeamlesslyWithILMergeAndMSBuild.aspx I have a demonstration solution that shows my workings so far, if this helps. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • Which combing css technique?

    - by DotnetShadow
    Hi there, Which of the following would you say is the best way to go when combining files for CSS: Say I have a master.css file that is used across all pages on my website (page1.aspx, page2.aspx) Page1.aspx - A specific page that has some unique css that is only ever used on that page, so I create a page1.css and it also uses another css grids.css Page2.aspx - Another specific page that is different from all other pages on the site and is different to page1.aspx, I'll name this page2.aspx and make a page2.css this doesn't use grids.css So would you combine the scripts as: Option1: Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,grids.css when visiting page1 Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page2.css when visiting page2 Benefits: Page specific, rendering quicker since only selectors for that page need to be matched up no unused selectors Drawback: Multiple combinations of master.css + page specific hence master.css has to be downloaded for each page Option2: Combine all scripts whether a page needs them or not csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,page2.css,grids.css (master, page1 and page2) that way it gets cached as one. The problem is that rendering maybe slower since it will have to try and match EVERY selector in the css with selectors on the page even the missing ones, so in the case of page2.aspx that doesn't use grids.css the selectors in grids.css will need to be parsed to see if they are in page2 which means rendering will be slow Benefits: One file will ever be downloaded and cached doesn't matter what page you visit Drawback: Unused selectors will need to be parsed by the browser slower rendering Option3: Leave the master file on it's own and only combine other scripts (the benefit of this is because master is used across all pages there is a chance that this is cached so doesn't need to keep on downloading csshandler.axd?d=Master.css csshandler.axd?d=page1.css,grids.css Benefits: master.css file can be cached doesn't matter what page you visit. Not many unused selectors as page spefic is applied Drawback: Initially minimum of 2 HTTP request will have to be made What do you guys think? Cheers DotnetShadow

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  • Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords

    - by luiscubal
    It is currently said that MD5 is partially unsafe. Taking this into consideration, I'd like to know which mechanism to use for password protection. Is “double hashing” a password less secure than just hashing it once? Suggests that hashing multiple times may be a good idea. How to implement password protection for individual files? Suggests using salt. I'm using PHP. I want a safe and fast password encryption system. Hashing a password a million times may be safer, but also slower. How to achieve a good balance between speed and safety? Also, I'd prefer the result to have a constant number of characters. The hashing mechanism must be available in PHP It must be safe It can use salt (in this case, are all salts equally good? Is there any way to generate good salts?) Also, should I store two fields in the database(one using MD5 and another one using SHA, for example)? Would it make it safer or unsafer? In case I wasn't clear enough, I want to know which hashing function(s) to use and how to pick a good salt in order to have a safe and fast password protection mechanism. EDIT: The website shouldn't contain anything too sensitive, but still I want it to be secure. EDIT2: Thank you all for your replies, I'm using hash("sha256",$salt.":".$password.":".$id) Questions that didn't help: What's the difference between SHA and MD5 in PHP Simple Password Encryption Secure methods of storing keys, passwords for asp.net How would you implement salted passwords in Tomcat 5.5

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  • Autoloading Development or Production configs (best practices)

    - by Xeoncross
    When programming sites you usually have one set of config files for the development environment and another set for the production server (or one file with both settings). I am assuming all projects should be handled by version control like git or svn. Manual file transfers (like FTP) is wrong on so many levels. How you enable/disable the correct settings (so that your system knows which ones to use) is a problem for me. Each system I work on just kind of jimmy-rigs a solution. Below are the 3 methods I know of and I am hoping that someone can submit a more elegant solutions. 1) File Based The system loads a folder structure based on the URL requested. /site.com /site.fakeTLD /lib index.php For example, if the url is http://site.com then the system loads the production config files located in the site.com folder. However, if I'm working on the site locally I visit http://site.fakeTLD to work on the local copy of the site. To setup this I edit my hosts file and add site.fakeTLD to point to my own computer (127.0.0.1/localhost) and then create a vhost in apache. So now I can work on the codebase locally and then push to the server without any trouble. The problem is that this is susceptible to a "host" injection attack. So someone loading site.com could set the host to site.fakeTLD and then the system would load my development config files instead of production. 2) Config Based The config files contain on section for development - and one for production. The problem is that each time you go to push your changes to the repo you have to edit the file to specify which set of config options should be used. $use = 'production'; //'development'; This leaves the repo open to human error should one of the developers forget to enable the right setting. 3) File System Check Based All the development machines have an extra empty file called "development.txt" or something. Each time the system loads it checks for this file - if found then it knows it is in development mode - if missing then it knows it is in production mode. Since the file is NEVER ADDED to the repo then it will never be pushed (and checked out) on the production machine. However, this just doesn't feel right and causes a slight slow down since all filesystem checks are slow. Is there anyway that the server can auto-detect wither to use the development or production configs?

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  • What is the proper query to get all the children in a tree?

    - by Nathan Adams
    Lets say I have the following MySQL structure: CREATE TABLE `domains` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `domain` CHAR(50) NOT NULL, `parent` INT(11) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MYISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=10 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (1,'.com',0); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (2,'example.com',1); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (3,'sub1.example.com',2); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (4,'sub2.example.com',2); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (5,'s1.sub1.example.com',3); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (6,'s2.sub1.example.com',3); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (7,'sx1.s1.sub1.example.com',5); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (8,'sx2.s2.sub1.example.com',6); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (9,'x.sub2.example.com',4); In my mind that is enough to emulate a simple tree structure: .com | example / \ sub1 sub2 ect My problem is that give sub1.example.com I want to know all the children of sub1.example.com without using multiple queries in my code. I have tried joining the table to itself and tried to use subqueries, I can't think of anything that will reveal all the children. At work we are using MPTT to keep in hierarchal order a list of domains/subdomains however, I feel that there is an easier way to do it. I did some digging and someone did something similar but they required the use of a function in MySQL. I don't think for something simple like this we would need a whole function. Maybe I am just dumb and not seeing some sort of obvious solution. Also, feel free to alter the structure.

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  • Asynchronously populate datagridview in Windows Forms application

    - by dcryptd
    howzit! I'm a web developer that has been recently requested to develop a Windows forms application, so please bear with me (or dont laugh!) if my question is a bit elementary. After many sessions with my client, we eventually decided on an interface that contains a tabcontrol with 5 tabs. Each tab has a datagridview that may eventually hold up to 25,000 rows of data (with about 6 columns each). I have successfully managed to bind the grids when the tab page is loaded and it works fine for a few records, but the UI freezes when I bound the grid with 20,000 dummy records. The "freeze" occurs when I click on the tab itself, and the UI only frees up (and the tab page is rendered) once the bind is complete. I communicated this to the client and mentioned the option of paging for each grid, but she is adament w.r.t. NOT wanting this. My only option then is to look for some asynchronous method of doing this in the background. I don't know much about threading in windows forms, but I know that I can use the BackgroundWorker control to achieve this. My only issue after reading up a bit on it is that it is ideally used for "long-running" tasks and I/O operations. My questions: How does one determine a long-running task? How does one NOT MISUSE the BackgroundWorker control, ie. is there a general guideline to follow when using this? (I understand that opening/spawning multiple threads may be undesirable in certain instances) Most importantly: How can I achieve (asychronously) binding of the datagridview after the tab page - and all its child controls - loads. Thank you for reading this (ahem) lengthy query, and I highly appreciate any responses/thoughts/directions on this matter! Cheers!

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  • Help with pregreplace and uniqid for jquery dialog boxes

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that runs preg_replace on each comment users post and puts matches in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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  • Python beginner having trouble running code

    - by Protean
    For some reason this code will not seem to run in the interpreter. When I hit F5 nothing happens, not even the debugger seems to recognize it. I assume it has something to do with the class, as when removed the interpreter seems to recognize the rest of the code. Please tell me what I am doing wrong. Edit: I have restarted the interpreter multiple times, any other piece of code I try to load runs fine, just this one is having trouble. print ('Why won't this work?') class sorting_class: def __init__(self): self.order = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd'] self.globali = 0 self.orderi = 0 self.sortedlist = [] def sort(self, array): carry, leave = [] for arrayi in array: print ('run', arrayi) if self.order[self.orderi] == arrayi[self.globali]: carry.append(arrayi) else: if self.globali != 0: leave.append(arrayi) return carry, leave def srt(self, array): globalii = 0 carry, leave = my.sort(array) while len(self.sortedlist) != len(array): if len(self.carry) == 1: self.sortedlist.append(carry) arrayt = leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi = 0 carry, leave = my.sort(arrayt) elif len(self.carry) == 0: if len(self.leave) != 0: arrayt = leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi += 1 my.sort(arrayt) else: self.arrayt globalii += 1 self.orderi = globalii self.globali = 0 my.sort(arrayt) self.orderi = 0 else: arrayt = carry carry = [] self.globali += 1 carry, leave += my.sort(arrayt) my = sorting_class() x = ['ac', 'bc' ,'ab', 'da'] my.srt(x)

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  • trouble with algorithm

    - by rebel_UA
    David likes number of estimates with base "k" and not a multiple(a%2!=0) of the number of zeros at the end. Set system and the number of the order and print it I need to optimi this algoritm: class David{ private: int k; public: David(); David(int); int operator[] (int); }; David::David(){ k=10; }; David::David(int k){ this->k=k; } int David::operator[] (int n){ int q; int p; int i=1; for(int r=0;r<n;i++){ q=0; p=i; for(;;){ if(p%k) break; if(p==0) break; ++q; p/=k; } if(q%2){ r++; } } return i-1; }

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  • Crazy VS Designer Errors

    - by BlueRaja
    Here's a strange one. After renaming a class, one of my forms began giving me errors in the designer, refusing to open. Funny thing is, the form worked just fine when I ran the program. I began reverting my changes to deduce the problem. I have now reverted completely back to the last commit - in which I know the form was working in the designer - cleaned the solution, and deleted the bin/ and obj/ folders, as well as the *.suo file for good measure. The form still does not display in designer. Here are the errors it gives: Could not find 'MyNamespace.MyControl'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built. The variable 'myControl1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. The variable is both declared and assigned, and MyControl builds fine (again, the form works fine when the program is actually run). Stranger still, if I try to create a new form and drag a MyControl onto it, I get this Entity-Framework error: Failed to create component 'MyControl'. The error message follows: 'System.ArgumentException: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.ChangeConnectionString(String newConnectionString) at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection..ctor(String connectionString) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContect.CreateEntityConnection(String connectionString) etc. etc. There is nothing wrong with my connection string: it worked before, and, again, it works when I actually run the program (the control already exists on the old form from the previous commit). Any ideas whatsoever? I am completely at a loss. [Edit] The only significant code: MyControl.cs public MyControl() { _entities = new MyEFEntities(); //Entity-framework generated class } MyForm.Designer.cs private void InitializeComponent() { this.myControl1 = new MyNamespace.MyControl(); ... this.Controls.Add(this.myControl1); } MyEFDatabase.Designer.cs public MyEFEntities() : base("name=MyEFEntities", "MyEFEntities") { ... } App.Config <connectionStrings> <add name="MyEFEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/MyEFDatabase.csdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.ssdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MyDatabaseServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> I've tried the "replace &quot; with '" trick - didn't help. [Edit2] It is happening to new projects also, but not immediately. Only after fiddling around a bit (it has something to do with adding a many-to-one relationship that EF did not figure out on its own), but I can't figure out the exact steps to reproduce.

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  • MooseX::Types declaration issue, tight test case :)

    - by TJ Thompson
    So after an embarrassing amount of time debugging, I've finally stripped this issue ([http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4621589/perl-moose-typedecorator-error-how-do-i-debug][1]) down to a simple test case. I would humbly request some help understanding why it's failing :) Here is the error message I'm getting: plxc16479 $h2/tmp/tmp18.pl This method [new] requires a single argument. at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/perl/5.12.2/lib64/site_perl/MooseX/Types/TypeDecorator.pm line 91 MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator::new('MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator=HASH(0x655b90)') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/projects/lib/Program-Plist-Pl/lib/Program/Plist/Pl.pm line 10 Program::Plist::Pl::BUILD('Program::Plist::Pl=HASH(0x63d478)', 'HASH(0x63d220)') called at generated method (unknown origin) line 29 Program::Plist::Pl::new('Program::Plist::Pl') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/tmp/tmp18.pl line 10 Wrapper test script: use strict; use warnings; BEGIN {push(@INC, split(':', $ENV{PERL_TEST_LIBS}))}; use Program::Plist::Pl; my $obj = Program::Plist::Pl->new(); Program::Plist::Pl file: package Program::Plist::Pl; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; use Program::Types qw(Pattern); # <-- Removing this fixes error use Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; sub BUILD { my $pattern_obj = Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern->new(); } __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Program::Types file: package Program::Types; use MooseX::Types -declare => [qw(Pattern)]; class_type Pattern, {class => 'Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern'}; 1; And the Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern file: package Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Notes: While I don't need the Pattern type from Program::Types in the above code, I do in other code that is stripped out. The PERL_TEST_LIBS env var I'm pulling INC paths from only contains paths to the project modules. There are no other modules loaded from these paths. It appears the MooseX::Types definition for Pattern is causing problems, but I'm not sure why. Documentation shows the syntax I am using, but it's possible I'm misusing class_type as there isn't much said about it. Intent is to be able to use Pattern for type checking via MooseX::Params::Validate to verify the argument is a 'Program::Plist::Pl::Program' object. I've found that removing the intervening class Program::Plist::Pl from the equation by directly calling Pattern-new from the tmp18.pl wrapper results in no error, even when the Program::Types Pattern type is imported.

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  • Why are there connections open to my databases?

    - by Everett
    I have a program that stores user projects as databases. Naturally, the program should allow the user to create and delete the databases as they need to. When the program boots up, it looks for all the databases in a specific SQLServer instance that have the structure the program is expecting. These database are then loaded into a listbox so the user can pick one to open as a project to work on. When I try to delete a database from the program, I always get an SQL error saying that the database is currently open and the operation fails. I've determined that the code that checks for the databases to load is causing the problem. I'm not sure why though, because I'm quite sure that all the connections are being properly closed. Here are all the relevant functions. After calling BuildProjectList, running "DROP DATABASE database_name" from ExecuteSQL fails with the message: "Cannot drop database because it is currently in use". I'm using SQLServer 2005. private SqlConnection databaseConnection; private string connectionString; private ArrayList databases; public ArrayList BuildProjectList() { //databases is an ArrayList of all the databases in an instance if (databases.Count <= 0) { return null; } ArrayList databaseNames = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < databases.Count; i++) { string db = databases[i].ToString(); connectionString = "Server=localhost\\SQLExpress;Trusted_Connection=True;Database=" + db + ";"; //Check if the database has the table required for the project string sql = "select * from TableExpectedToExist"; if (ExecuteSQL(sql)) { databaseNames.Add(db); } } return databaseNames; } private bool ExecuteSQL(string sql) { bool success = false; openConnection(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, databaseConnection); try { cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); success = true; } catch (SqlException ae) { MessageBox.Show(ae.Message.ToString()); } closeConnection(); return success; } public void openConnection() { databaseConnection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); try { databaseConnection.Open(); } catch(Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString(), "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } public void closeConnection() { if (databaseConnection != null) { try { databaseConnection.Close(); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString(), "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } }

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  • JQuery Simplemodal and Tabs Help Needed

    - by Dave R
    Hi, I've got an asp.net page containing a Textbox with an Autocomplete extender on it. It's setup so the user can type a short reference code into the textbox and then choose from the list of matching codes returned by the autocomplete. On the "select", I then call the server using JQuery. I'm currently using $.get here.... The callback function from $.get checks for "success" and then displays a simple-modal dialog containing info about the item they've just selected. if (sStatus == "success") { $.modal(sText, { overlayClose: true, appendTo:'form', onShow: function(dialog) { $("#ccTargets_tabContainer").tabs(); }, onClose: function(dialog) { $("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>").val(""); $.modal.close(); } }); $.ready(); } One of the bits of info being loaded here is a JQuery TABS setup, so the onShow function of the simplemodal is used to initiate the tabs which are within the simplemodal. Now to the crux of my problem. If I do multiple consecutive "autocompletes" on the same page it all works fine Unless I have selected a different tab on the tabs in the simplemodal ....If I select a different tab, close the simplemodal and then do another autocomplete I get a JQuery error which seems to relate to a selector doing something with the "old" selected tab that was on the "closed" modal. I'm clearly missing some sort of cleardown / initialisation somewhere, but can't find what it is. Help? I've tried "tabs.destroy" before the modal call in the code above and I've tried a $.ready() call as indicated too.... UPDATE: Is it something to do with JQuery Tabs appending my addressbar URL with the selected tab's ID?

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  • CSS - Inheriting layered background images

    - by NNN
    CSS3 supports multiple background images, for example: foo { background-image: url(/i/image1.jpg), url(/i/image2.jpg); } I'd like to be able to add a secondary image to an element with a class though. So for example, say you have a nav menu. And each item has a background image. When a nav item is selected you want to layer on another background image. I do not see a way to 'add' a background image instead of redeclaring the whole background property. This is a pain because in order to do this with multi-backgrounds, you would have to write the base bg image over and over for each item if the items have unique images. Ideally I'd be able to do something like this: li { background: url(baseImage.jpg); } li.selected { background: url(selectedIndicator.jpg); } And have li.selected's end result appear the same if I did: li.selected { background: url(baseImage.jpg), url(selectedIndicator.jpg); } Update: I also tried the following with no luck (I believe backgrounds are not inherited..) li { background: url(baseImage.jpg), none; } li.selected { background: inherit, url(selectedIndicator.jpg); }

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  • which xml validator will work perfectly for multithreading project

    - by Sunil Kumar Sahoo
    Hi All, I have used jdom for xml validation against schema. The main problem there is that it gives an error FWK005 parse may not be called while parsing The main reason was that multiple of threads working for xerces validation at the same time. SO I got the solution that i have to lock that validation. which is not good So I want to know which xml validator works perfectly for multithreading project public static HashMap validate(String xmlString, Validator validator) { HashMap<String, String> map = new HashMap<String, String>(); long t1 = System.currentTimeMillis(); DocumentBuilder builder = null; try { //obtain lock to proceed // lock.lock(); try { builder = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance().newDocumentBuilder(); // Source source = new DOMSource(builder.parse(new ByteArrayInputStream(xmlString.getBytes()))); validator.validate(new StreamSource(new StringReader(xmlString))); map.put("ISVALID", "TRUE"); logger.info("We have successfuly validated the schema"); } catch (Exception ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); logger.error("NOT2 VALID STRING IS :" + xmlString); map.put("MSG", ioe.getMessage()); // logger.error("IOException while validating the input XML", ioe); } logger.info(map); long t2 = System.currentTimeMillis(); logger.info("XML VALIDATION TOOK:::" + (t2 - t1)); } catch (Exception e) { logger.error(e); } finally { //release lock // lock.unlock(); builder = null; } return map; } Thanks Sunil Kumar Sahoo

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  • LaTeX: bibliography per chapter.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, I am helping a colleague with his PhD thesis and we need to present the bibliography at the end of each chapter. The question is: does anyone have a minimal working example for this case using latex+bibtex? The current document structure that we use is the following: main.tex chap1.tex chap2.tex ... chapn.tex biblio.bib Where main.tex contains packages, document declarations, macros and \includes for each chapter. biblio.bib is the only bibtex file (I think is easier to have all citations in one place). We have searched and tried with different latex packages, reading and following their documentation. Specifically, bibitems and chapterbib. bibitems successfully generates bu*.aux files, but when running bibtex for each one of them, an error occurs since there is no \bibdata element in the .aux file. chapterbib also generates a .aux file, but bibtex finishes with an error caused by using multiple \bibliography{file} in the .tex files (one per chapter). Some coworkers suggested using a separate bibtex file for each chapter, which could be a problem of maintenance in the future when citing the same publications in different chapters. We will like to continue having this document structure, if possible. So, if anyone could shed some light to this problem, we will appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • ASP.NET Ajax - Asynch request has separate session???

    - by Marcus King
    We are writing a search application that saves the search criteria to session state and executes the search inside of an asp.net updatepanel. Sometimes when we execute multiple searches successively the 2nd or 3rd search will sometimes return results from the first set of search criteria. Example: our first search we do a look up on "John Smith" - John Smith results are displayed. The second search we do a look up on "Bob Jones" - John Smith results are displayed. We save all of the search criteria in session state as I said, and read it from session state inside of the ajax request to format the DB query. When we put break points in VS everything behaves as normal, but without them we get the original search criteria and results. My guess is because they are saved in session, that the ajax request somehow gets its own session and saves the criteria to that, and then retrieves the criteria from that session every time, but the non-async stuff is able to see when the criteria is modified and saves the changes to state accordingly, but because they are from two different sessions there is a disparity in what is saved and read. EDIT::: To elaborate more, there was a suggestion of appending the search criteria to the query string which normally is good practice and I agree thats how it should be but following our requirements I don't see it as being viable. They want it so the user fills out the input controls hits search and there is no page reload, the only thing they see is a progress indicator on the page, and they still have the ability to navigate and use other features on the current page. If I were to add criteria to the query string I would have to do another request causing the whole page to load, which depending on the search criteria can take a really long time. This is why we are using an ajax call to perform the search and why we aren't causing another full page request..... I hope this clarifies the situation.

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