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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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  • Personal Cache vs Memcache?

    - by Kerry
    I have a personal caching class, which can be seen here ( based off WordPress' ): http://pastie.org/988427 I recently learned about memcache and it said to memcache EVERYTHING: http://highscalability.com/blog/2010/5/17/7-lessons-learned-while-building-reddit-to-270-million-page.html My first thought was just to keep my class with the current functions and make it use memcache instead -- is there any downside to doing this? The main difference I see is that memcache stays on with the server from page to page, while mine is for 1 page load. The problem I see arising, and this is with any system, is that they're dynamic. They change all the time. Whether its search results, visible products, etc. etc. If it's all cached, won't the create a problem? Is there a way to handle this? Obviously if something is bringing back the same results everytime it would be cached, but that's why I was doing it on a per page load basis. I'm sure there is a way to handle this, or is the cache time usually set between 5 minutes and an hour?

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  • How do I get column names to print in this C# program?

    - by Kevin
    I've cobbled together a C# program that takes a .csv file and writes it to a datatable. Using this program, I can loop through each row of the data table and print out the information contained in the row. The console output looks like this: --- Row --- Item: 1 Item: 545 Item: 507 Item: 484 Item: 501 I'd like to print the column name beside each value, as well, so that it looks like this: --- Row --- Item: 1 Hour Item: 545 Day1 KW Item: 507 Day2 KW Item: 484 Day3 KW Item: 501 Day4 KW Can someone look at my code and tell me what I can add so that the column names will print? I am very new to C#, so please forgive me if I've overlooked something. Here is my code: // Write load_forecast data to datatable. DataTable loadDT = new DataTable(); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"c:\load_forecast.csv"); string[] headers = sr.ReadLine().Split(','); foreach (string header in headers) { loadDT.Columns.Add(header); // I've added the column headers here. } while (sr.Peek() > 0) { DataRow loadDR = loadDT.NewRow(); loadDR.ItemArray = sr.ReadLine().Split(','); loadDT.Rows.Add(loadDR); } foreach (DataRow row in loadDT.Rows) { Console.WriteLine("--- Row ---"); foreach (var item in row.ItemArray) { Console.Write("Item:"); Console.WriteLine(item); // Can I add something here to also print the column names? } }

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  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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  • JSF how to temporary disable validators to save draft

    - by Swiety
    I have a pretty complex form with lots of inputs and validators. For the user it takes pretty long time (even over an hour) to complete that, so they would like to be able to save the draft data, even if it violates rules like mandatory fields being not typed in. I believe this problem is common to many web applications, but can't find any well recognised pattern how this should be implemented. Can you please advise how to achieve that? For now I can see the following options: use of immediate=true on "Save draft" button doesn't work, as the UI data would not be stored on the bean, so I wouldn't be able to access it. Technically I could find the data in UI component tree, but traversing that doesn't seem to be a good idea. remove all the fields validation from the page and validate the data programmaticaly in the action listener defined for the form. Again, not a good idea, form is really complex, there are plenty of fields so validation implemented this way would be very messy. implement my own validators, that would be controlled by some request attribute, which would be set for standard form submission (with full validation expected) and would be unset for "save as draft" submission (when validation should be skipped). Again, not a good solution, I would need to provide my own wrappers for all validators I am using. But as you see no one is really reasonable. Is there really no simple solution to the problem?

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  • Why use Entity Framework over Linq2SQL ...

    - by Refracted Paladin
    To be clear, I am not asking for a side by side comparision which has already been asked Ad Nauseum here on SO. I am also Not asking if Linq2Sql is dead as I don't care. What I am asking is this.... I am building internal apps only for a non-profit organization. I am the only developer on staff. We ALWAYS use SQL Server as our Database backend. I design and build the Databases as well. I have used L2S successfully a couple of times already. Taking all this into consideration can someone offer me a compelling reason to use EF instead of L2S? I was at Code Camp this weekend and after an hour long demonstration on EF, all of which I could have done in L2S, I asked this same question. The speakers answer was, "L2S is dead..." Very well then! NOT! (see here) I understand EF is what MS WANTS us to use in the future(see here) and that it offers many more customization options. What I can't figure out is if any of that should, or does, matter for me in this environment. One particular issue we have here is that I inherited the Core App which was built on 4 different SQL Data bases. L2S has great difficulty with this but when I asked the aforementioned speaker if EF would help me in this regard he said "No!"

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  • How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

    - by prepbgg
    My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

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  • Uploading to S3 using Curl

    - by Carl Crawley
    Hi All, I'm currently using cURL to upload a file from my server to S3 using AJAX to call the script. So I have the following: $fullfilepath = '/server/sitepath/files/' . $_POST['file']; $upload_url = 'https://'.$_POST['buckets'].'.s3.amazonaws.com/'; $params = array( 'key'=>$_POST['key'], 'AWSAccessKeyId'=>$_POST['AWSAccessKeyId'], 'acl'=>$_POST['acl'], 'success_action_status'=>$_POST['success_action_status'], 'policy'=>$_POST['policy'], 'signature'=>$_POST['signature'], 'Content-Type'=>$_POST['Content-Type'], 'file'=>"@$fullfilepath" ); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $upload_url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $params); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); echo $response; However, I'm getting an S3 error as follows when it posts and I'm unsure why because I'm not passing JSON to it. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Error><Code>InvalidPolicyDocument</Code><Message>Invalid Policy: Invalid JSON.</Message><RequestId>B29469C6151BE0E8</RequestId><HostId>BFPk6W2kt1b6hTtx0mEq6dWdN/IhO0gNR5bct//7LAOwJxm1C3PrxS4RPv1blzJ8</HostId></Error> I've googled it for the last hour or so and can't seem to figure it out. If I change the order of the Array fields, it gives me a different error - I believe the order of the posted fields is important somehow. any help would be much appreciated! C

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  • Python and a "time value of money" problem.

    - by jamieb
    (I asked this question earlier today, but I did a poor job of explaining myself. Let me try again) I have a client who is an industrial maintenance company. They sell service agreements that are prepaid 20 hour blocks of a technician's time. Some of their larger customers might burn through that agreement in two weeks while customers with fewer problems might go eight months on that same contract. I would like to use Python to help model projected sales revenue and determine how many billable hours per month that they'll be on the hook for. If each customer only ever bought a single service contract (never renewed) it would be easy to figure sales as monthly_revenue = contract_value * qty_contracts_sold. Billable hours would also be easy: billable_hrs = hrs_per_contract * qty_contracts_sold. However, how do I account for renewals? Assuming that 90% (or some other arbitrary amount) of customers renew, then their monthly revenue ought to grow geometrically. Another important variable is how long the average customer burns through a contract. How do I determine what the revenue and billable hours will be 3, 6, or 12 months from now, based on various renewal and burn rates? I assume that I'd use some type of recursive function but math was never one of my strong points. Any suggestions please? Edit: I'm thinking that the best way to approach this is to think of it as a "time value of money" problem. I've retitled the question as such. The problem is probably a lot more common if you think of "monthly sales" as something similar to annuity payments.

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  • lots of backbone views - performance issues?

    - by ksol
    tl;dr: I wonder if having lots (100+ for the moment, potentially up to 1000/2000 or more) of backbone views (as a cell of a table) is too heavy or not The project I'm working on revolves around a planning view. There one row per user that covers 6 hours of a day, each hour splitted in 4 slots of 15mn. This planning is used to add "reservations" when clicking on a slot, and should handle hovering of the correct slots, and also handle when it is NOT possible to make a reservation - ie. prevent user click on an "unavailable" slot. There is many reasons why a slot can't be clicked on: the user is not available at this time, or the user is in a reservation; or the app needs to "force" a delay slot between two reservations. Reservations (a div) are rendered in a slot (a cell of a table), and by toying with dimensions, hovers the right number of slots. All this screen is handled with backbone. So For each slot I'm hovering on, I need to check wether I can do a reservation here or not. As of this moment, I use this by toying with the data attributes on the slots : when a reservation object is added, the slots covered are "enhanced with (among others) the reservation object (the backbone view object). But in some cases I don't quite have a grasp on now, it mixes up, and when the reservation view is removed, the slots are not "cleaned up" : the previous class is not reset correctly. It is probably something I've done wrong or badly, but this is only going to get heavier; I think I should use another class of Backbone views here, but I'm afraid the number of slots and thereof of views objects will be high and cause performance issue. I don't know mush about js perf so I'd like to have some feedback before jumping on that train. Any other advice on how to do this would be quite welcomed too. Thanks for your time. If this is not clear enough, tell me, I'll try and rephrase it.

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  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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  • Android - overlay small check icon over specific image in gridview or change border

    - by oscar
    I've just asked a question about an hour ago, while waiting for replies, I've thought maybe I can achieve what I want differently. I was thinking of changing the image but it would be better if I could perhaps overlay something over the top of complete levels in the gridview i.e a small tick icon At the moment, when a level has been completed I am storing that with sharedpreferences So I have a gridView layout to display images that represent levels. Let's just say for this example I have 20 levels. When one level is complete is it possible to overlay the tick icon or somehow highlight the level image. Maybe change the border of the image?? Here are the image arrays I use int[] imageIDs = { R.drawable.one, R.drawable.two, R.drawable.three, R.drawable.four, R.drawable.five, R.drawable.six etc....... and then I have my code to set the images in gridView. Obviously there is more code in between. public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ImageView imageView; if (convertView == null) { imageView = new ImageView(context); imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(140, 140)); imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageView.setPadding(5, 5, 5, 5); } else { imageView = (ImageView) convertView; } imageView.setImageResource(imageIDs[position]); return imageView; would it be possible to do any of the above, even the border method would be fine. Thanks for any help

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  • Problems sorting by date

    - by Nathan
    I'm attempting to only display data added to my database 24 hours ago or less. However, for some reason, the code I've written isn't working, and both entries in my database, one from 1 hour ago, one from 2 days ago, show up. Is there something wrong with my equation? Thanks! public void UpdateValues() { double TotalCost = 0; double TotalEarned = 0; double TotalProfit = 0; double TotalHST = 0; for (int i = 0; i <= Program.TransactionList.Count - 1; i++) { DateTime Today = DateTime.Now; DateTime Jan2013 = DateTime.Parse("01-01-2013"); //Hours since Jan12013 int TodayHoursSince2013 = Convert.ToInt32(Math.Round(Today.Subtract(Jan2013).TotalHours)); //7 int ItemHoursSince2013 = Program.TransactionList[i].HoursSince2013; //Equals 7176, and 7130 if (ItemHoursSince2013 - TodayHoursSince2013 <= 24) { TotalCost += Program.TransactionList[i].TotalCost; TotalEarned += Program.TransactionList[i].TotalEarned; TotalProfit += Program.TransactionList[i].TotalEarned - Program.TransactionList[i].TotalCost; TotalHST += Program.TransactionList[i].TotalHST; } } label6.Text = "$" + String.Format("{0:0.00}", TotalCost); label7.Text = "$" + String.Format("{0:0.00}", TotalEarned); label8.Text = "$" + String.Format("{0:0.00}", TotalProfit); label10.Text = "$" + String.Format("{0:0.00}", TotalHST); }

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  • E-Commerce Security: Only Credit Card Fields Encrypted?!

    - by bizarreunprofessionalanddangerous
    I'd like your opinions on how a major bricks-and-mortar company is running the security for its shopping Web site. After a recent update, when you are logged into your shopping account, the session is now not secured. No 'https', no browser 'lock'. All the personal contact info, shopping history -- and if I'm not mistaken submit and change password -- are being sent unencrypted. There is a small frame around the credit card fields that is https. There's a little notice: "Our website is secure. Our website uses frames and because of this the secure icon will not appear in your browser" On top of this the most prominent login fields for the site are broken, and haven't gotten fixed for a week or longer (giving the distinct impression they have no clue what's going on and can't be trusted with anything). Now is it just me -- or is this simply incomprehensible for a billion dollar company, significant shopping site, in the year 2010. No lock. "We use frames" (maybe they forget "Best viewed in IE4"). Customers complaining, as you can see from their FAQ "explaining" why you aren't seeing https. I'm getting nowhere trying to convince customer service that they REALLY need to do something about this, and am about to head for the CEO. But I just want to make sure this is as BIZARRE and unprofessional and dangerous a situation as I think it is. (I'm trying to visualize what their Web technical team consists of. I'm getting A) some customer service reps who were given a 3 hour training course on Web site maintenance, B) a 14 year old boy in his bedroom masquerading as a major technical services company, C) a guy in a hut in a jungle with an e-commerce book from 1996.)

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  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

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  • Attaching event on the fly with prototype

    - by andreas
    Hi, I've been scratching my head over this for an hour... I have a list of todo which has done button on each item. Every time a user clicks on that, it's supposed to do an Ajax call to the server, calling the marking function then updates the whole list. The problem I'm facing is that the new list has done buttons as well on each item. And it doesn't attach the click event anymore after first update. How do you attach an event handler on newly updated element with prototype? Note: I've passed evalScripts: true to the updater wrapper initial event handler attach <script type="text/javascript"> document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $$('.todo-done a').each(function(a) { $(a).observe('click', function(e) { var todoId = $(this).readAttribute('href').substr(1); new Ajax.Updater('todo-list', $.utils.getPath('/todos/ajax_mark/done'), { onComplete: function() { $.utils.updateList({evalScripts: true}); } }); }); }) }); </script> updateList: <script type="text/javascript"> var Utils = Class.create({ updateList: function(options) { if(typeof options == 'undefined') { options = {}; } new Ajax.Updater('todo-list', $.utils.getPath('/todos/ajax_get'), $H(options).merge({ onComplete: function() { $first = $('todo-list').down(); $first.hide(); Effect.Appear($first, {duration: 0.7}); new Effect.Pulsate($('todo-list').down(), {pulses: 1, duration: 0.4, queue: 'end'}); } }) ); } }) $.utils = new Utils('globals'); </script> any help is very much appreciated, thank you :)

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  • Remotely connecting two non-local computers with sockets

    - by Velizar Hristov
    This question seems like something very obvious to ask, and yet I spent more than an hour trying to find an answer. First I host and wait for someone to connect. Then, from another instance of the application, I try to connect with a socket - for the constructor, I use InetAddress, port. The port is always right, and everything works if I use "localhost" for the address. However, if I type my IP, I get an IOException. I even sent the application to someone else, gave him my IP, and it didn't work. The aim of the application is to connect two computers. It's in Java. Here is the relevant code. Server: ServerSocket serverSocket = new ServerSocket(port); Socket clientSocket = serverSocket.accept(); Client: InetAddress a = InetAddress.getByName(ip); Socket s = new Socket(a, port); I don't get past that. Obviously, the values of int port and String ip are taken from text fields. Edit: the purpose of my application is to connect two non-local computers.

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  • Correct Time Display

    - by Matthew
    Guys, I''m looking to get this correct and i'm getting a bit fustrated with this. What I want to do is get hours and days and weeks correct. Example: if this post is < 60min old then have it read: Posted Less then 1 minute ago if this post is < 120min old then have it read: Posted 1 hour ago if this post is 120min old then have it read: Posted 1 hours ago if this post is < 1440min old then have it read: Posted 1 day ago if this post is 1440min old then have it read: Posted 2 days ago Is that right?? This is what I have so far: if (lapsedTime < 60) { return '< 1 mimute'; } else if (lapsedTime < (60*60)) { return Math.round(lapsedTime / 60) + 'minutes'; } else if (lapsedTime < (12*60*60)) { return Math.round(lapsedTime / 2400) + 'hr'; } else if (lapsedTime < (24*60*60)) { return Math.round(lapsedTime / 3600) + 'hrs'; } else if (lapsedTime < (7*24*60*60)) { return Math.round(lapsedTime / 86400) + 'days'; } else { return Math.round(lapsedTime / 604800) + 'weeks'; }

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  • Querying datetime.datetime on appengine acts different then dev server help!

    - by Alon Carmel
    Hey, I'm having some trouble with stuff that work locally and dont work on the app engine python environment: Basically, i want to get a program from an epg between ranges of date and time. i know i cannot do two where < so i saw a suggestion to save the dates as list as datetime.datetime which i did. [datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 10, 14, 25), datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 10, 15, 0)] This is ok. but when i try to compare to it: progranon = get_object(Programs2Channel, 'channel_id =', channelobj.key(), 'endstartdate >', programstart_minex, 'endstartdate <', programstart_minex ) This for some reason works locally, but fails to retrieve the data on the app engine. *Im using Google app engine django patch which uses the get_object to retrieve data in transactions. Please help. Here are more details: this is the LIST: [datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 13, 10, 45), datetime.datetime(2010, 5, 13, 11, 30)] #this is the query: programstart = ""+year+"-"+month+"-"+day+" "+hour+":"+minute programstart_minex = datetime.strptime(programstart, "%Y-%m-%d %H:%M") progranon = Programs2Channel.gql('WHERE channel_id = :channelid AND endstartdate > :programstartx AND endstartdate < :programstartx',channelid = channelobj.key(),programstartx=programstart_minex).get()

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  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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  • binding a command inside a listbox item to a property on the viewmodel parent

    - by giddy
    I've been working on this for about an hour and looked at all related SO questions. My problem is very simple: I have HomePageVieModel: HomePageVieModel +IList<NewsItem> AllNewsItems +ICommand OpenNewsItem My markup: <Window DataContext="{Binding HomePageViewModel../> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=AllNewsItems}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNews}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=NewsContent}" /> </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> The list shows fine with all the items, but for the life of me whatever I try for the Command won't work: <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel, AncestorLevel=1}}"> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel,**Mode=FindAncestor}**}"> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel,**Mode=TemplatedParent}**}"> I just always get : System.Windows.Data Error: 4 : Cannot find source for binding with reference .....

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  • How does my php function for converting a date to facebook timestamp look? New to PHP.

    - by First2Drown
    any suggestions to make it better? function convertToFBTimestamp($date){ $this_date = date('Y-m-d-H-i-s', strtotime($date)); $cur_date = date('Y-m-d-H-i-s'); list ($this_year, $this_month, $this_day, $this_hour, $this_min, $this_sec) = explode('-',$this_date); list ($cur_year, $cur_month, $cur_day, $cur_hour, $cur_min, $cur_sec) = explode('-',$cur_date); $this_unix_time = mktime($this_hour, $this_min, $this_sec, $this_month, $this_day, $this_year); $cur_unix_time = mktime($cur_hour, $cur_min, $cur_sec, $cur_month, $cur_day, $cur_year); $cur_unix_date = mktime(0, 0, 0, $cur_month, $cur_day, $cur_year); $dif_in_sec = $cur_unix_time - $this_unix_time; $dif_in_min = (int)($dif_in_sec / 60); $dif_in_hours = (int)($dif_in_min / 60); if(date('Y-m-d',strtotime($date))== date('Y-m-d')) { if($dif_in_sec < 60) { return $dif_in_sec." seconds ago"; } elseif($dif_in_sec < 120) { return "about a minute ago"; } elseif($dif_in_min < 60) { return $dif_in_min." minutes ago"; } else { if($dif_in_hours == 1) { return $dif_in_hours." hour ago"; } else { return $dif_in_hours." hours ago"; } } } elseif($cur_unix_date - $this_unix_time < 86400 ) { return strftime("Yesterday at %l:%M%P",$this_unix_time); } elseif($cur_unix_date - $this_unix_time < 259200) { return strftime("%A at %l:%M%P",$this_unix_time); } else { if($this_year == $cur_year) { return strftime("%B, %e at %l:%M%P",$this_unix_time); } else { return strftime("%B, %e %Y at %l:%M%P",$this_unix_time); } } }

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  • Pushing a local mercurial repository to a remote server or cloning at server from local

    - by Samaursa
    I have a local repository that I have now decided to push to a remote server (for example, I have a host that allows mercurial repositories and I am also trying to push to bitbucket). The repository has a lot of files and is a little more than 200mb. Locally, I am able to clone the repository without problems. Now I have a lot of changes in this repository, and I have wasted a couple of days trying to figure out how to get the remote server to clone my repository. I cannot get hg serve to work outside of the LAN. I have tried everything. So instead, I created a new repository at the remote servers (both at the host and bitbucket) with nothing in it. Now I am pushing the complete repository that I have locally to these remote locations. So far it has been unsuccessful, as the push operation is stuck on searching for changes and does not give me any other useful output. I have let it go for about an hour with no change. Now my questions is, what am I doing wrong as far as hg serve is concerned? I can access it locally but not remotely (through DynDns - I have configured it properly and the router forwards the ports correctly) so that I can get the server to clone the repository the first time after which I will be pushing to it. My second question is, assuming the clone at server does not work (for example, if I was to push my current repository to bitbucket), is creating an empty repository at the server and then pushing a local repository to the new remote repository ok? Is that the source of the searching for changes problem? Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated.

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  • PHP Missing Function In Older Version

    - by Umair Ashraf
    My this PHP function converts a datetime string into more readable way to represent passed date and time. This is working perfect in PHP version 5.3.0 but on the server side it is PHP version 5.2.17 which lacks this function. Is there a way I can fix this efficiently? This is not only a function which needs this "diff" function but there are many more. public function ago($dt1) { $interval = date_create('now')->diff(date_create($dt1)); $suffix = ($interval->invert ? ' ago' : '-'); if ($v = $interval->y >= 1) return $this->pluralize($interval->y, 'year') . $suffix; if ($v = $interval->m >= 1) return $this->pluralize($interval->m, 'month') . $suffix; if ($v = $interval->d >= 1) return $this->pluralize($interval->d, 'day') . $suffix; if ($v = $interval->h >= 1) return $this->pluralize($interval->h, 'hour') . $suffix; if ($v = $interval->i >= 1) return $this->pluralize($interval->i, 'minute') . $suffix; return $this->pluralize($interval->s, 'second') . $suffix; }

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