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  • Using C code in c#

    - by karthik
    When i googled to find the way to change the window style i could find the code in "C" language How can i use the snippet below in my c# application, so that i can hide the Title Bar of external application ? I have not used "C" before.. //Finds a window by class name [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr FindWindow(string lpClassName, string lpWindowName); //Sets a window to be a child window of another window [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr SetParent(IntPtr hWndChild, IntPtr hWndNewParent); //Sets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int SetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex, int dwNewLong); //Gets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int GetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex); //assorted constants needed public static int GWL_STYLE = -16; public static int WS_CHILD = 0x40000000; //child window public static int WS_BORDER = 0x00800000; //window with border public static int WS_DLGFRAME = 0x00400000; //window with double border but no title public static int WS_CAPTION= WS_BORDER | WS_DLGFRAME; //window with a title bar /* This function sets the parent of the window with class ClassClass to the form/control the method is in. */ public void Reparent() { //get handle of parent form (.net property) IntPtr par = this.Handle; //get handle of child form (win32) IntPtr child = FindWindow("ClassClass", null); //set parent of child form SetParent(child, par); //get current window style of child form int style = GetWindowLong(child, GWL_STYLE); //take current window style and remove WS_CAPTION from it SetWindowLong(child, GWL_STYLE, (style & ~WS_CAPTION)); }

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  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

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  • Flex web application: prevent framerate drop when window is invisible

    - by JayPea
    So there's been a new "feature" in the flash player since version 10.1, which reduces the player's framerate to 2 fps when the application window is out of view. This is good news for performance, but it can break some functionality, such as the Timer class. I have an application which uses a Timer to display a countdown. Given the nature of the application, it is required for the Timer to complete its countdown even if the user is not there to see it. Imagine that you need to give the user only 10 seconds to perform a task. If the user minimizes the window halfway through the counter, they can take as much time as they want and still have 5 seconds left when they return to the window. This apparently can not be avoided with the newer flash players. In Air applications there is the backgroundFrameRate property which can be set to prevent this behavior, but this is part of the WindowedApplication class, so it seems that it is not available in a web application. Does anyone know a way to keep a constant frame rate even when the window is not visible? Thanks

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  • Static files in (Java) App Engine not accessible.

    - by fiXedd
    The example documentation says that you simply need to place your files in war/ (or a subdirectory) and they should be accessible from the host (as long as they aren't JSPs or in WEB-INF). For example, if you place foo.css in war/ then you should be able to access it at http://localhost:8080/foo.css. However, this isn't working for me at all. NONE of my static files are accessible. The docs on appengine-web.xml say that you can also specifically denote certain types as static. I've tried this as well and it makes no difference. Am I missing something obvious? UPDATE: Turns out one of the mappings in my web.xml was a little too aggressive. The following was the culprit: <servlet> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <servlet-class>MainServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> It seems that it was grabbing everything that wasn't grabbed be one of the other rules, which I don't understand because there was no * on the end of the url-pattern. It also seems to be directly contradictory to the documentation that says: Note: Static files, files that are served verbatim to users such as images, CSS or JavaScript, are handled separately from paths mentioned in the deployment descriptor. A request for a URL path that matches a path to a file in the WAR that's considered a static file will serve the file, regardless of servlet and filter mappings in the deployment descriptor. You can exclude files from those treated as static files using the appengine-web.xml file. So, how can I have a rule that matches the base of my domain (eg. http://www.example.com/) and still allows the static files to filter through?

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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  • Serializing and deserializing a map with key as string

    - by Grace K
    Hi! I am intending to serialize and deserialize a hashmap whose key is a string. From Josh Bloch's Effective Java, I understand the following. P.222 "For example, consider the case of a harsh table. The physical representation is a sequence of hash buckets containing key-value entries. Which bucket an entry is placed in is a function of the hash code of the key, which is not, in general guaranteed to be the same from JVM implementation to JVM implementation. In fact, it isn't even guranteed to be the same from run to run on the same JVM implementation. Therefore accepting the default serialized form for a hash table would constitute a serious bug. Serializing and deserializing the hash table could yield an object whose invariants were seriously corrupt." My questions are: 1) In general, would overriding the equals and hashcode of the key class of the map resolve this issue and the map can be correctly restored? 2) If my key is a String and the String class is already overriding the hashCode() method, would I still have problem described above. (I am seeing a bug which makes me think this is probably still a problem even though the key is String with overriding hashCode.) 3)Previously, I get around this issue by serializing an array of entries (key, value) and when deserializing I would reconstruct the map. I am wondering if there is a better approach. 4) If the answers to question 1 and 2 are that I still can't be guaranteed. Could someone explain why? If the hashCodes are the same would they go to the same buckets across JVMs? Thanks, Grace

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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • WCF client binding configuration in program code

    - by smarsha
    I have the following class that configures security, encoding, and token parameters but I am having trouble adding a BasicHttpBinding to specify a MaxReceivedMessageSize. Any insight would be appreciated. public class MultiAuthenticationFactorBinding { public static Binding CreateMultiFactorAuthenticationBinding() { HttpsTransportBindingElement httpTransport = new HttpsTransportBindingElement(); CustomBinding binding = new CustomBinding(); binding.Name = "myCustomBinding"; TransportSecurityBindingElement messageSecurity = TransportSecurityBindingElement.CreateUserNameOverTransportBindingElement(); messageSecurity.AllowInsecureTransport = true; messageSecurity.EnableUnsecuredResponse = true; messageSecurity.MessageSecurityVersion = MessageSecurityVersion.WSSecurity11WSTrust13WSSecureConversation13WSSecurityPolicy12; messageSecurity.SecurityHeaderLayout = SecurityHeaderLayout.Strict; messageSecurity.IncludeTimestamp = true; messageSecurity.SetKeyDerivation(false); TextMessageEncodingBindingElement Quota = new TextMessageEncodingBindingElement(MessageVersion.Soap11, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); Quota.ReaderQuotas.MaxDepth = 32; Quota.ReaderQuotas.MaxStringContentLength = Int32.MaxValue; Quota.ReaderQuotas.MaxArrayLength = 16384; Quota.ReaderQuotas.MaxBytesPerRead = 4096; Quota.ReaderQuotas.MaxNameTableCharCount = 16384; X509SecurityTokenParameters clientX509SupportingTokenParameters = new X509SecurityTokenParameters(); clientX509SupportingTokenParameters.InclusionMode = SecurityTokenInclusionMode.AlwaysToRecipient; clientX509SupportingTokenParameters.RequireDerivedKeys = false; messageSecurity.EndpointSupportingTokenParameters.Endorsing.Add(clientX509SupportingTokenParameters); //binding.ReceiveTimeout = new TimeSpan(0,0,300); binding.Elements.Add(Quota); binding.Elements.Add(messageSecurity); binding.Elements.Add(httpTransport); return binding; } }

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  • How to write a file that called from a database on a page?

    - by Mehmet Kaleli
    Hi. I have a "news" page that belongs to a company. All news have a header, detail and html page and they come from database. So i have to print those html pages in a repeater on my "news.aspx". But i couldnt write dynamically. How can i do it or is there anyway else? <asp:Repeater ID="news" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="news_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="newsid" runat="server" Value='<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsid") %>' /> <tr> <td class="haberler-sayfasi-habermetni" style="width:580px;padding-bottom:30px;"> <h1 class="haberler-sayfasi-haberbasligi" style="background-image:url(images/haber-ikon.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat;padding-left:25px;"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsheader") %>/h1> <br /> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsspot") %> <br /><br /> <% **Response.WriteFile('dynamical filename with path');** %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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  • How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

    - by Thomas Rynne
    We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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  • WCF REST adding data using POST or PUT 400 Bad Request

    - by user55474
    HI How do i add data using wcf rest architecture. I dont want to use the channelfactory to call my method. Something similar to the webrequest and webresponse used for GET. Something similar to the ajax WebServiceProxy restInvoke Or do i always have to use the Webchannelfactory implementation I am getting a 400 BAD request by using the following Dim url As String = "http://localhost:4475/Service.svc/Entity/Add" Dim req As WebRequest = WebRequest.Create(url) req.Method = "POST" req.ContentType = "application/xml; charset=utf-8" req.Timeout = 30000 req.Headers.Add("SOAPAction", url) Dim xEle As XElement xEle = <Entity xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <Name>Entity1</Name> </Entity> Dim sXML As String = xEle .Value req.ContentLength = sXML.Length Dim sw As New System.IO.StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream()) sw.Write(sXML) sw.Close() Dim res as HttpWebResponse = req.GetResponse() Sercice Contract is as follows <OperationContract()> _ <WebInvoke(Method:="PUT", UriTemplate:="Entity/Add")> _ Function AddEntity(ByVal e1 As Entity) DataContract is as follows <Serializable()> _ <DataContract()> _ Public Class Entity private m_Name as String <DataMember()> _ Public Property Name() As String Get Return m_Name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) m_Name = value End Set End Property End Class thanks

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  • How to Specify Columntype in fluent nHibernate?

    - by Bipul
    I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

    - by egervari
    I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

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  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

    - by Idsa
    Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

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  • python gui events out of order

    - by dave
    from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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  • Why can I call a non-const member function pointer from a const method?

    - by sdg
    A co-worker asked about some code like this that originally had templates in it. I have removed the templates, but the core question remains: why does this compile OK? #include <iostream> class X { public: void foo() { std::cout << "Here\n"; } }; typedef void (X::*XFUNC)() ; class CX { public: explicit CX(X& t, XFUNC xF) : object(t), F(xF) {} void execute() const { (object.*F)(); } private: X& object; XFUNC F; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { X x; const CX cx(x,&X::foo); cx.execute(); return 0; } Given that CX is a const object, and its member function execute is const, therefore inside CX::execute the this pointer is const. But I am able to call a non-const member function through a member function pointer. Are member function pointers a documented hole in the const-ness of the world? What (presumably obvious to others) issue have we missed?

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  • juqery image fading with tabs

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i am trying my best to figure out how to go about doing this: I have 2 tabs. When the page loads tab1 is selected automatically. This shows the tab as 1.0 transparency while tab2 stays at 0.7. Once the user clicks on tab2, tab1 goes to 0.7 transparency and tab2 goes to 1.0. However, i can not seem to get it to do that! Here is my code: function checkTab(theTab) { $('#tab1').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); if ($("#tabActive").val() == theTab) { $(theTab).fadeTo(250, 1); } } $(document).ready(function() { $('#tab1').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab1')}); $('#tab2').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab2')}); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tabActive').val('tab1'); }); </script> <li class="stats"><img src="images/Stats.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab1" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab1');" /></li> <li class="cal"><img src="images/cal.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab2" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab2');" /></li> <input name="tabActive" id="tabActive" type="text" /> Any help would be great! :) David

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  • .change(function) can control two command

    - by klox
    dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

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  • Why doesn't this data binding work?

    - by Qwertie
    I have a ViewModel class that contains a list of points, and I am trying to bind it to a Polyline. The Polyline picks up the initial list of points, but does not notice when additional points are added even though I implement INotifyPropertyChanged. What's wrong? <StackPanel> <Button Click="Button_Click">Add!</Button> <Polyline x:Name="_line" Points="{Binding Pts}" Stroke="Black" StrokeThickness="5"/> </StackPanel> C# side: // code-behind _line.DataContext = new ViewModel(); private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // The problem is here: NOTHING HAPPENS ON-SCREEN! ((ViewModel)_line.DataContext).AddPoint(); } // ViewModel class public class ViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public PointCollection Pts { get; set; } public ViewModel() { Pts = new PointCollection(); Pts.Add(new Point(1, 1)); Pts.Add(new Point(11, 11)); } public void AddPoint() { Pts.Add(new Point(25, 13)); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("Pts")); } }

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  • Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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  • jqtouch load content with ajax

    - by ndrizza
    I am loading this page directly inside of jqtouch. First the page shows "Loading..." Then it should execute a GET Request and refresh the content of the div ("tagcloud") as soon as it get's the content from another php file. (I prefer to load the content this way as otherwise jqtouch freezes for 2 seconds until the content is loaded and then animates to the next page.) <?php $link = $_GET['link']; ?> <div id="TagNews"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1>TagNews</h1> <a href="#" class="back">NZZ</a> </div> <div id="tagcloud">Loading...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get("cloudnews2.php?link=<?php echo $link; ?>", function(data){ document.getElementById("tagcloud").innerHTML = data; }); </script> </div> Howewer, the request never gets loaded. The code is working outside of jqtouch. But inside jqtouch the GET Request doesn't work. I can't figure out why. Could you please help me to do this request?

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  • radio input replacement using jquery

    - by altvali
    It may seem a bit odd to ask this since there are several solutions out there but the fact is that all of them look pretty and none of what i've seem save the input value for form submission the right way. I'm looking for something that will replace all radio inputs with divs that get special classes when they are hovered or clicked, and an input type hidden for every group of radio inputs with the same name, hidden input that will be updated with the value corresponding to the div the user clicks on. Long sentence, i know. Here's what i've come up with: $('input:radio').each(function(){ if (this.style.display!='none') { var inputName = $(this).attr('name'); var inputValue = $(this).attr('value'); var isChecked = $(this).attr('checked'); if (!$('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').length) // if the hidden input wasn't already created $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div><input type="hidden" name="'+inputName+'" value="'+inputValue+'" />'); else{ $(this).replaceWith('<div class="inputRadioButton" id="'+inputName+'X'+inputValue+'"></div>'); if (isChecked) $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); } //this bind doesn't work $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).click(function(){ if($('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').val()!=inputValue){ $('input:hidden[name='+inputName+']').attr({'value':inputValue}); $('div[id*='+inputName+'].inputRadioButton').removeClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); } if (!$("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).hasClass('inputRadioButtonSelected')) $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue).addClass('inputRadioButtonSelected'); }); } }); Please tell me how to fix it. Thank you. Edit I've found the reason. It should normally work but some of my radio inputs generated by an e-commerce software had brackets in them (e.g. id[12] ) and jQuery was parsing that. The fix is adding var inputButton = document.getElementById(inputName+"X"+inputValue); before the bind and replacing $("#"+inputName+"X"+inputValue) with $(inputButton).

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  • Ruby: Why is Array.sort slow for large objects?

    - by David Waller
    A colleague needed to sort an array of ActiveRecord objects in a Rails app. He tried the obvious Array.sort! but it seemed surprisingly slow, taking 32s for an array of 3700 objects. So just in case it was these big fat objects slowing things down, he reimplemented the sort by sorting an array of small objects, then reordering the original array of ActiveRecord objects to match - as shown in the code below. Tada! The sort now takes 700ms. That really surprised me. Does Ruby's sort method end up copying objects about the place rather than just references? He's using Ruby 1.8.6/7. def self.sort_events(events) event_sorters = Array.new(events.length) {|i| EventSorter.new(i, events[i])} event_sorters.sort! event_sorters.collect {|es| events[es.index]} end private # Class used by sort_events class EventSorter attr_reader :sqn attr_reader :time attr_reader :index def initialize(index, event) @index = index @sqn = event.sqn @time = event.time end def <=>(b) @time != b.time ? @time <=> b.time : @sqn <=> b.sqn end end

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  • How to take name in one preg_match

    - by Julianto
    Hello guys, I am trying to extract just the names result from the hypothetical HTML file below. <ul class="cat"> <li>sport</li> <li>movie</li> </ul> <ul class="person-list"> <li>name 1</li> <li>name 2</li> <li>name 3</li> <li>name 4</li> <li>name 5</li> <li>name 6</li> </ul> Ideally, the result should come in an array format like the one below: Array( name 1 , name 2 , name 3 , .......... ) OK I can easily do this with 2 regex matches but I was wondering if I can do it with just one. Thanks in advance!

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