Search Results

Search found 25391 results on 1016 pages for 'update notification'.

Page 957/1016 | < Previous Page | 953 954 955 956 957 958 959 960 961 962 963 964  | Next Page >

  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

    Read the article

  • HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

    - by pableu
    Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

    Read the article

  • Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

    - by tbehunin
    When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

    Read the article

  • Does this incorporate JavaScript closures?

    - by alex
    In trying to learn JavaScript closures, I've confused myself a bit. From what I've gathered over the web, a closure is... Declaring a function within another function, and that inner function has access to its parent function's variables, even after that parent function has returned. Here is a small sample of script from a recent project. It allows text in a div to be scrolled up and down by buttons. var pageScroll = (function() { var $page, $next, $prev, canScroll = true, textHeight, scrollHeight; var init = function() { $page = $('#secondary-page'); // reset text $page.scrollTop(0); textHeight = $page.outerHeight(); scrollHeight = $page.attr('scrollHeight'); if (textHeight === scrollHeight) { // not enough text to scroll return false; }; $page.after('<div id="page-controls"><button id="page-prev">prev</button><button id="page-next">next</button></div>'); $next = $('#page-next'); $prev = $('#page-prev'); $prev.hide(); $next.click(scrollDown); $prev.click(scrollUp); }; var scrollDown = function() { if ( ! canScroll) return; canScroll = false; var scrollTop = $page.scrollTop(); $prev.fadeIn(500); if (scrollTop == textHeight) { // can we scroll any lower? $next.fadeOut(500); } $page.animate({ scrollTop: '+=' + textHeight + 'px'}, 500, function() { canScroll = true; }); }; var scrollUp = function() { $next.fadeIn(500); $prev.fadeOut(500); $page.animate({ scrollTop: 0}, 500); }; $(document).ready(init); }()); Does this example use closures? I know it has functions within functions, but is there a case where the outer variables being preserved is being used? Am I using them without knowing it? Thanks Update Would this make a closure if I placed this beneath the $(document).ready(init); statement? return { scrollDown: scrollDown }; Could it then be, if I wanted to make the text scroll down from anywhere else in JavaScript, I could do pageScroll.scrollDown(); I'm going to have a play around on http://www.jsbin.com and report back

    Read the article

  • Spring.Net Message Selectors with compound statements don't seem to be working

    - by Jonathan Beerhalter
    I'm using Spring.NET to connect to ActiveMQ and do some fairly simple pub sub routing. Everything works fine when my selector is a simple expression like Car='Honda' but if I try a compound expression like Car='Honda' AND Make='Pilot' I never get any matches on my subscription. Here's the code to generate the subscription, does anyone see where I might be doing something wrong? public bool AddSubscription(string topicName, Dictionary<string,string> selectorList, GDException exp) { try { ActiveMQTopic topic = new ActiveMQTopic(topicName); string selectorString = ""; if (selectorList.Keys.Count == 0) { // Select all items for this topic selectorString = "2>1"; } else { foreach (string key in selectorList.Keys) { selectorString += key + " = '" + selectorList[key] + "'" + " AND "; } selectorString = selectorString.Remove(selectorString.Length - 5, 5); } IMessageConsumer consumer = this._subSession.CreateConsumer(topic, selectorString, false); if (consumer != null) { _consumers.Add(consumer); consumer.Listener += new MessageListener(HandleRecieveMessage); return true; } else { exp.SetValues("Error adding subscription, null consumer returned"); return false; } } catch (Exception ex) { exp.SetValues(ex); return false; } } And then the code to send the message, which seems simple enough to me public void SendMessage(GDPubSubMessage messageToSend) { if (!this.isDisposed) { if (_producers.ContainsKey(messageToSend.Topic)) { IBytesMessage bytesMessage = this._pubSession.CreateBytesMessage(messageToSend.Payload); foreach (string key in messageToSend.MessageProperties.Keys) { bytesMessage.Properties.SetString(key, messageToSend.MessageProperties[key]); } _producers[messageToSend.Topic].Send(bytesMessage, false, (byte)255, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(1)); } else { ActiveMQTopic topic = new ActiveMQTopic(messageToSend.Topic); _producers.Add(messageToSend.Topic, this._pubSession.CreateProducer(topic)); IBytesMessage bytesMessage = this._pubSession.CreateBytesMessage(messageToSend.Payload); foreach (string key in messageToSend.MessageProperties.Keys) { bytesMessage.Properties.SetString(key, messageToSend.MessageProperties[key]); } _producers[messageToSend.Topic].Send(bytesMessage); } } else { throw new ObjectDisposedException(this.GetType().FullName); } } 07/102009: Update Ok, found the problem bytesMessage.Properties.SetString(key, messageToSend.MessageProperties[key]); This justs sets a single property, so my messages are only being tagged with a single property, hence the combo subscription never gets hit. Anyone know how to add more properties? You'd think bytesMessage.Properties would have a Add method, but it doesn't.

    Read the article

  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

    Read the article

  • WPF multibound textblock not updating

    - by Superstringcheese
    I want to create a program which calculates how long it will take to repeat a process a certain number of times. I've scaled this down a lot for this example. So, I have some textboxes which are bound to properties in a class: Count: <TextBox x:Name="txtCount" Text="{Binding Count, Mode=TwoWay}" Width="50"/> Days: <TextBox x:Name="txtDays" Text="{Binding Days, Mode=TwoWay}" Width="50"/> and a textblock which is multibound like so: <TextBlock x:Name="tbkTotal"> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="Days: {0}, Count: {1}"> <Binding Path="Days" /> /* This isn't updating */ <Binding Path="Count" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> My DataContext is set in the Window1.xaml.cs file. public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); Sample sample = new Sample(); this.DataContext = sample; } I can update the multibound textblock with the Count property just fine, but the Days property always shows 0, even though the Days input accurately reflects changes. I believe that this is because my accessors are different for Days - namely, the Set method. This class is in a different file. public class Sample : INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _count; private TimeSpan _span; public int Count { get { return _count; } set { _count = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("Count"); /* Doesn't seem to be needed, actually */ } } public TimeSpan Span { get { return _span; } } /* The idea is to provide a property for Days, Hours, Minutes, etc. as conveniences to the inputter */ public double Days { get { return _span.Days; } set { TimeSpan ts = new TimeSpan(); double val = value > 0 ? value : 0; ts = TimeSpan.FromDays(val); _span.Add(ts); NotifyPropertyChanged("Span"); /* Here I can only get it to work if I notify that Span has changed - doesn't seem to be aware that the value behind Days has changed. */ } } private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string property) { if (null != this.PropertyChanged) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(property)); } } public Sample() { _count = 0; _span = new TimeSpan(); } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; }

    Read the article

  • How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

    - by scott jarvis
    I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

    Read the article

  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Displaying pic for user through a question's answer

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, I am trying to display the profile pic of a user. The application I have set up allows users to create questions and answers (I am calling answers 'sites' in the code) the view in which I am trying to do so is in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file. It might also be of note that I am using the Paperclip gem. Here is the set up: Associations Users class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions, :dependent => :destroy has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :through => :sites , :dependent => :destroy has_many :pics, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy end Questions class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user end Answers (sites) class Site < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question belongs_to :user has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "250x250>" } end Pics class Pic < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :profile_pic, :styles => { :small => "100x100" } belongs_to :user end The /views/questions/show.html.erb is rendering the partial /views/sites/_site.html.erb which is calling the Answer (site) with: <% div_for site do %> <%=h site.description %> <% end %> I have been trying to do things like: <%=image_tag site.user.pic.profile_pic.url(:small) %> <%=image_tag site.user.profile_pic.url(:small) %> etc. But that is obviously wrong. My error directs me to the Questions#show action so I am imagining that I need to define something in there but not sure what. Is is possible to call the pic given the current associations, placement of the call, and if so what Controller additions do I need to make, and what line of code will call the pic? UPDATE: Here is the QuestionsController#show code: def show @question = Question.find(params[:id]) @sites = @question.sites.all(:select => "sites.*, SUM(likes.like) as like_total", :joins => "LEFT JOIN likes AS likes ON likes.site_id = sites.id", :group => "sites.id", :order => "like_total DESC") respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @question } end end

    Read the article

  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

    Read the article

  • apt-get install fuse - MAKEDEV not installed, skipping device node creation

    - by holms
    This happened with command apt-get dist-upgrade to upgrade to debian jessie, after which I've tried to remove fuse, and install it again. Same error: root@msgapp:/dev# apt-get install fuse Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done The following NEW packages will be installed: fuse 0 upgraded, 1 newly installed, 0 to remove and 0 not upgraded. Need to get 0 B/69.9 kB of archives. After this operation, 191 kB of additional disk space will be used. Selecting previously unselected package fuse. (Reading database ... 39354 files and directories currently installed.) Preparing to unpack .../fuse_2.9.3-10_amd64.deb ... Unpacking fuse (2.9.3-10) ... Processing triggers for man-db (2.6.7.1-1) ... Setting up fuse (2.9.3-10) ... MAKEDEV not installed, skipping device node creation. device node not found dpkg: error processing package fuse (--configure): subprocess installed post-installation script returned error exit status 2 Errors were encountered while processing: fuse E: Sub-process /usr/bin/dpkg returned an error code (1) UPDATE Reinstalling makedev gives another problem: root@msgapp:/dev# apt-get install makedev Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done The following NEW packages will be installed: makedev 0 upgraded, 1 newly installed, 0 to remove and 0 not upgraded. Need to get 0 B/42.6 kB of archives. After this operation, 129 kB of additional disk space will be used. Selecting previously unselected package makedev. (Reading database ... 39347 files and directories currently installed.) Preparing to unpack .../makedev_2.3.1-93_all.deb ... Unpacking makedev (2.3.1-93) ... Processing triggers for man-db (2.6.7.1-1) ... ySetting up makedev (2.3.1-93) ... /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation. /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation. /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation. There's ticket raised, and their fix doesn't give any result: root@msgapp:/dev# cd /dev && ./MAKEDEV fuse /run/udev or .udevdb or .udev presence implies active udev. Aborting MAKEDEV invocation.

    Read the article

  • Multiple task in one page?(php - mysql - jquery)

    - by python
    My goal is to build an application in a page that can be use multiple task(crud) for example in this html code.there are multiple submit,multiple action in the same page after (user submit (CURD) it will load result table below.) In juery how Can I do this.? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#button1").click(function(){ $('form#crudform').attr({action: "script_1.php"}); $('form#crudform').submit(); }); $("#button2").click(function(){ $('form#crudform').attr({action: "script_2.php"}); $('form#crudform').submit(); }); $("#button3").click(function(){ $('form#crudform').attr({action: "script_3.php"}); $('form#crudform').submit(); }); }); </script> Form CRUD: <form id="crudform" method="post"> <p>Name: <input type="text" name="name"/></p> <p>Age: <input type="text" name="age"/></p> <input type="button" id="button1" value="Cancel" /> <input type="button" id="button2" value="Save" /> <input type="button" id="button3" value="Update" /> </form> Result: <form id="result" method="post"> <table border="1"> <tr> <tr><td></td><td>Name</td><td>Age</td> </tr> <tr><td><input type="checkbox" name="name1"></td><td>Name1</td><td>10</td><tr> <tr><td><input type="checkbox" name="name1"></td><td>Name2</td><td>15</td></tr> <tr><td><input type="checkbox" name="name3"></td><td>Name3</td><td>16</td></tr> </table> <input type="button" id="button4" value="change" /> <input type="button" id="button5" value="drop" /> </form> Anybody know the tutorials relating ..with my tasks.or tips,guide.....are welconme :)

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter not returning me to upload form after image upload.

    - by Drew
    I'm still very new to codeigniter. The issue i'm having is that the file uploads fine and it writes to the database without issue but it just doesn't return me to the upload form. Instead it stays in the do_upload and doesn't display anything. Even more bizarrely there is some source code behind the scenes. Can someone tell my what it is i'm doing wrong because I want to be returning to my upload form after submission. Thanks in advance. Below is my code: Controller: function do_upload() { if($this->Upload_model->do_upload()) { $this->load->view('home/upload_form'); }else{ $this->load->view('home/upload_success', $error); } } Model: function do_upload() { $config['upload_path'] = './uploads/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2000'; $this->load->library('upload', $config); if ( ! $this->upload->do_upload()) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else { $data = $this->upload->data(); $full_path = 'uploads/' . $data['file_name']; $spam = array( 'image_url' => $full_path, 'url' => $this->input->post('url') ); $id = $this->input->post('id'); $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update('NavItemData', $spam); return true; } } View (called upload_form): <html> <head> <title>Upload Form</title> </head> <body> <?php if(isset($buttons)) : foreach($buttons as $row) : ?> <h2><?php echo $row->image_url; ?></h2> <p><?php echo $row->url; ?></p> <p><?php echo $row->name; ?></p> <p><?php echo anchor("upload/update_nav/$row->id", 'edit'); ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php endif; ?> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

    - by Larry
    I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

    Read the article

  • Problems with MYSQL database

    - by shinjuo
    I have a database that worked fine until I decided to add a log onto the page. here is what I have now: <body> <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'POST') { require("serverInfo.php"); mysql_query("UPDATE `cardLists` SET `AmountLeft` = `AmountLeft` + ".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['Add'])." WHERE `cardID` = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['Cards'])."'"); echo "\"" .$_POST['Add'] ."\" has been added to the inventory amount for the card \"". $_POST['Cards']. "\""; mysql_query("INSERT INTO `log` (`changes`, `amount`, `cardID`, `person`, Date)VALUES('ADDED','$_POST['Add']','$_POST['Cards']', '$_POST['Person']', NOW())"); mysql_close($link); } ?> <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post"> <?php require("serverInfo.php"); ?> <?php $res = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM cardLists order by cardID") or die(mysql_error()); echo "<select name = 'Cards'>"; while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($res)) { echo "<option value=\"$row[cardID]\">$row[cardID]</option>"; } echo "</select>"; ?> Amount to Add: <input type="text" name="Add" maxlength="8" /> Changes Made By: <select name="Person"> <option value="justin">Justin</option> <option value="chris">Chris</option> <option value="matt">Matt</option> <option value="dan">Dan</option> <option value="tim">Tim</option> <option value="amanda">Amanda</option> </select> <input type="submit" name ="submit" onClick= "return confirm( 'Are you sure you want to add this amount?');"> </form> <br /> <input type="button" name="main" value="Return To Main" onclick="window.location.href='index.php';" /> </body> </html> it works fine until I added the: mysql_query("INSERT INTO `log` (`changes`, `amount`, `cardID`, `person`, Date)VALUES('ADDED','$_POST['Add']','$_POST['Cards']', '$_POST['Person']', NOW())"); mysql_close($link); Can anyone see what is going on?

    Read the article

  • git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

    - by Gauthier
    I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

    Read the article

  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

    Read the article

  • MySQL - Calculating fields on the fly vs storing calculated data

    - by Christian Varga
    Hi Everyone, I apologise if this has been asked before, but I can't seem to find an answer to a question that I have about calculating on the fly vs storing fields in a database. I read a few articles that suggested it was preferable to calculate when you can, but I would just like to know if that still applies to the following 2 examples. Example 1. Say you are storing data relating to a car. You store the fuel tank size in litres, and how many litres it uses per 100km. You also want to know how many KMs it can travel, which can be calculated from the tank size and economy. I see 2 ways of doing this: When a car is added or updated, calculate the amount of KMs and store this as a static field in the database. Every time a car is accessed, calculate the amount of KMs on the fly. Because the cars economy/tank size doesn't change (although it could be edited), the KMs is a pretty static value. I don't see why we would calculate it every single time the car is accessed. Wouldn't this waste cpu time as opposed to simply storing it in a separate field in the database and calculating only when a car is added or updated? My next example, which is almost an entirely different question (but on the same topic), relates to counting children. Let's say we have a app which has categories and items. We have a view where we display all the categories, and a count of all the items inside each category. Again, I'm wondering what's better. To perform a MySQL query to count all the items in each category every single time the page is accessed? Or store the count in a field in the categories table and update when an item is added / deleted? I know it is redundant to store anything that can be calculated, but I worry that calculating fields or counting records might be slow as opposed to storing the data in a field. If it's not then please let me know, I just want to learn about when to use either method. On a small scale I guess it wouldn't matter either way, but apps like Facebook, would they really count the amount of friends you have every time someone views your profile or would they just store it as a field? I'd appreciate any responses to both of these scenarios, and any resource that might explain the benefits of calculating vs storing. Thanks in advance, Christian

    Read the article

  • How to download file into string with progress callback?

    - by Kaminari
    I would like to use the WebClient (or there is another better option?) but there is a problem. I understand that opening up the stream takes some time and this can not be avoided. However, reading it takes a strangely much more amount of time compared to read it entirely immediately. Is there a best way to do this? I mean two ways, to string and to file. Progress is my own delegate and it's working good. FIFTH UPDATE: Finally, I managed to do it. In the meantime I checked out some solutions what made me realize that the problem lies elsewhere. I've tested custom WebResponse and WebRequest objects, library libCURL.NET and even Sockets. The difference in time was gzip compression. Compressed stream lenght was simply half the normal stream lenght and thus download time was less than 3 seconds with the browser. I put some code if someone will want to know how i solved this: (some headers are not needed) public static string DownloadString(string URL) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Headers["User-Agent"] = "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.1.249.1045 Safari/532.5"; client.Headers["Accept"] = "application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; client.Headers["Accept-Encoding"] = "gzip,deflate,sdch"; client.Headers["Accept-Charset"] = "ISO-8859-2,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3"; Stream inputStream = client.OpenRead(new Uri(URL)); MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); const int size = 32 * 4096; byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; if (client.ResponseHeaders["Content-Encoding"] == "gzip") { inputStream = new GZipStream(inputStream, CompressionMode.Decompress); } int count = 0; do { count = inputStream.Read(buffer, 0, size); if (count > 0) { memoryStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); } } while (count > 0); string result = Encoding.Default.GetString(memoryStream.ToArray()); memoryStream.Close(); inputStream.Close(); return result; } I think that asyncro functions will be almost the same. But i will simply use another thread to fire this function. I dont need percise progress indication.

    Read the article

  • how to wait multiple function processing to finish

    - by user351412
    I have a problem about multiple function processing , listed as below code, the main function is btnEvalClick, I have try to use alter native 1and 2 to wait the function not move to next record before theprocessed function finish, but it does not work //private function btnEvalClick(event:Event):void { // var i:int; // for(i= 0; i < (dataArr1.length); i++) { // dispatchEvent( new FlexEvent('test') ); // callfunc1('cydatGMX'); //call function 1 // callfun2('cydatGMO'); //call function 1 // editSave(); //save record (HTTP) //## Alternative 1 //if (String(event) == 'SAVEOK') { // RecMov('next'); //move record if save = OK //} //## Alternative 2 //while (waitfc == '') // if waitfc not 'OK' continue looping //{ // z = z + 1; //} // RecMov('next'); //Move to next record to process //} //private function callfunc1(tasal:String):void { // var mySO :SharedObject; // var myDP: Array; // var i:int; // var prm:Array; // try // { // mySO = SharedObject.getLocal(tasal,'/'); // prm = mySO.data.txt.split('?'); // for(i=0; i < (prm.length - 1); i++) { // myDP = prm[i].toString().split('^'); // if ( myDP[0].toString() == String(dataArr1[dg].MatrixCDCol)){ // myDPX = myDP; // break; // } // } // } // catch (err:Error) { // Alert.show('Limit object creation fail (' + tasal + '), please retry ); // } //} //private function editSave():void //{ // var parameters:* = // { // 'CertID': CertIDCol.text, 'AssetID': AssetIDCol.text, 'CertDate': cdt, //'Ccatat': CcatatCol.text, 'CertBy': CertByCol.text, 'StatusID': StatusIDCol.text, //'UpdDate': lele, 'UpdUsr': ApplicationState.instance.luNm }; // doRequest('Update', parameters, saveItemHandler); //} //private function doRequest(method_name:String, parameters:Object, callback:Function):void // { // add the method to the parameters list // parameters['method'] = (method_name + 'ASC'); // gateway.request = parameters; // var call:AsyncToken = gateway.send(); // call.request_params = gateway.request; // call.handler = callback; // } //private function saveItemHandler(e:Object):void // { // if (e.isError) // { // Alert.show('Error: ' + e.data.error); // } // else // { // Alert.show('Record Saved..'); // waitfc = 'OK'; // dispatchEvent( new FlexEvent('SAVEOK') ); // } // }

    Read the article

  • Resize AIR app window while dragging

    - by matt lohkamp
    So I've noticed Windows 7 has a disturbing tendency to prevent you from dragging the title bar of windows off the top of the screen. If you try - in this case, using an air app with a draggable area at the bottom of the window, allowing you to push the top of the window up past the screen - it just kicks the window back down far enough that the title bar is at the top of what it considers the 'visible area.' One solution would be to resize the app window as it moves, so that the title bar is always where windows wants it. How would you resize the window while you're dragging it, though? Would you do it like this? dragHitArea.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_DOWN, function(e:MouseEvent):void{ stage.nativeWindow.height += 50; stage.nativeWindow.startMove(); stage.nativeWindow.height -= 50; }); see what's going on there? When I click, I'm doing startMove(), which is hooking into the OS' function for dragging a window around. I'm also increasing and decreasing the height of the window by 50 pixels - which should give me no net increase, right? Wrong - the first '.height +=' gets executed, but the '.height -=' after the .startMove() never runs. Why? update - If you're curious, I'm programming an air widget with fly-out menus which expand rightwards and upwards - and since those element can only be displayed within the boundaries of the application window itself (even though the window is set to be chromeless and transparent) I have to expand the application's borders to include the area that the menu 'pops up' into. In the extreme case, with the widget positioned bottom left, and the menus expanded completely across to the right side and top edge of the screen, the application area could very well cover the entire desktop. The problem is, when it's expanded like this, if the user drags it up and to the right, it causes the 'title bar' area of the application window to move above the top edge of the desktop area, where it would normally be unreachable; and Windows automatically re-positions the window back below that edge once the .startMove() operation is completed. So what I want to do is continually resize the height of the application so that the visual effect will be the same for the user, but for the benefit of the operating system the window's title bar will never be above that top boundary of the desktop area.

    Read the article

  • validate uniqueness amongst multiple subclasses with Single Table Inheritance

    - by irkenInvader
    I have a Card model that has many Sets and a Set model that has many Cards through a Membership model: class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :sets, :through => :memberships end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card belongs_to :set validates_uniqueness_of :card_id, :scope => :set_id end class Set < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships validates_presence_of :cards end I also have some sub-classes of the above using Single Table Inheritance: class FooCard < Card end class BarCard < Card end and class Expansion < Set end class GameSet < Set validates_size_of :cards, :is => 10 end All of the above is working as I intend. What I'm trying to figure out is how to validate that a Card can only belong to a single Expansion. I want the following to be invalid: some_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 25 ) first_expansion = Expansion.new second_expansion = Expansion.new first_expansion.cards = some_cards second_expansion.cards = some_cards first_expansion.save # Valid second_expansion.save # **Should be invalid** However, GameSets should allow this behavior: other_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 10 ) first_set = GameSet.new second_set = GameSet.new first_set.cards = other_cards # Valid second_set.cards = other_cards # Also valid I'm guessing that a validates_uniqueness_of call is needed somewhere, but I'm not sure where to put it. Any suggestions? UPDATE 1 I modified the Expansion class as sugested: class Expansion < Set validate :validates_uniqueness_of_cards def validates_uniqueness_of_cards membership = Membership.find( :first, :include => :set, :conditions => [ "card_id IN (?) AND sets.type = ?", self.cards.map(&:id), "Expansion" ] ) errors.add_to_base("a Card can only belong to a single Expansion") unless membership.nil? end end This works when creating initial expansions to validate that no current expansions contain the cards. However, this (falsely) invalidates future updates to the expansion with new cards. In other words: old_exp = Expansion.find(1) old_exp.card_ids # returns [1,2,3,4,5] new_exp = Expansion.new new_exp.card_ids = [6,7,8,9,10] new_exp.save # returns true new_exp.card_ids << [11,12] # no other Expansion contains these cards new_exp.valid? # returns false ... SHOULD be true

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 953 954 955 956 957 958 959 960 961 962 963 964  | Next Page >