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• Using the ASP.NET membership provider database with your own database?

  - by Shaharyar

  Hello everybody, We are developing an ASP.NET MVC Application that currently uses it's own databse ApplicationData for the domain models and another one Membership for the user management / membership provider. We do access restrictions using data-annotations in our controllers. [Authorize(Roles = "administrators, managers")] This worked great for simple use cases. As we are scaling our application our customer wants to restrict specific users to access specific areas of our ApplicationData database. Each of our products contains a foreign key referring to the region the product was assembled in. A user story would be: Users in the role NewYorkManagers should only be able to edit / see products that are assembled in New York. We created a placeholder table UserRightsRegions that contains the UserId and the RegionId. How can I link both the ApplicationData and the Membership databases in order to work properly / having cross-database-key-references? (Is something like this even possible?) All help is more than appreciated!

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• Trying to use an Xslt for an xml in asp.net

  - by Josemalive

  Hello, i have the following xslt sheet: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:variable name="nhits" select="Answer[@nhits]"></xsl:variable> <xsl:output method="html" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <xsl:call-template name="resultsnumbertemplate"/> </div> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="resultsnumbertemplate"> <xsl:value-of select="$nhits"/> matches found </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> And this is the xml that im trying to mix with the previous xslt: <Answer xmlns="exa:com.exalead.search.v10" context="n%3Dsl-ocu%26q%3Dlavadoras" last="9" estimated="false" nmatches="219" nslices="0" nhits="219" start="0"> <time> <Time interrupted="false" overall="32348" parse="0" spell="0" exec="1241" synthesis="15302" cats="14061" kwds="14061"> <sliceTimes>15272 </sliceTimes> </Time> </time> </Answer> Im using a xslcompiledtransform and that's working fine: XslCompiledTransform transformer = new XslCompiledTransform(); transformer.Load(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("xslt\\" + requestvariables["xslsheet"].ToString())); transformer.Transform(xmlreader, null, writer); My problems comes when im trying to put into a variable the "nhits" attribute value placed on the Answer element, but i'm not rendering anything using my xslt sheet. Do you know what could be the cause? Could be the xmlns attribute in my xml file? Thanks in advance. Best Regards. Jose

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• Is it just me? I find LINQ to XML to be sort of cumbersome, compared to XPath.

  - by Cheeso

  I am a C# programmer, so I don't get to take advantage of the cool XML syntax in VB. Dim itemList1 = From item In rss.<rss>.<channel>.<item> _ Where item.<description>.Value.Contains("LINQ") Or _ item.<title>.Value.Contains("LINQ") Using C#, I find XPath to be easier to think about, easier to code, easier to understand, than performing a multi-nested select using LINQ to XML. Look at this syntax, it looks like Greek swearing: var waypoints = from waypoint in gpxDoc.Descendants(gpx + "wpt") select new { Latitude = waypoint.Attribute("lat").Value, Longitude = waypoint.Attribute("lon").Value, Elevation = waypoint.Element(gpx + "ele") != null ? waypoint.Element(gpx + "ele").Value : null, Name = waypoint.Element(gpx + "name") != null ? waypoint.Element(gpx + "name").Value : null, Dt = waypoint.Element(gpx + "cmt") != null ? waypoint.Element(gpx + "cmt").Value : null }; All the casting, the heavy syntax, the possibility for NullPointerExceptions. None of this happens with XPath. I like LINQ in general, and I use it on object collections and databases, but my first go-round with querying XML led me right back to XPath. Is it just me? Am I missing something? EDIT: someone voted to close this as "not a real question". But it is a real question, stated clearly. The question is: Am I misunderstanding something with LINQ to XML?

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• HTTPSConnection module missing in Python 2.6 on CentOS 5.2

  - by d2kagw

  Hi guys, I'm playing around with a Python application on CentOS 5.2. It uses the Boto module to communicate with Amazon Web Services, which requires communication through a HTTPS connection. When I try running my application I get an error regarding HTTPSConnection being missing: "AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSConnection'" Google doesn't really return anything relevant, I've tried most of the solutions but none of them solve the problem. Has anyone come across anything like it? Here's the traceback: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./chatter.py", line 114, in <module> sys.exit(main()) File "./chatter.py", line 92, in main chatter.status( ) File "/mnt/application/chatter/__init__.py", line 161, in status cQueue.connect() File "/mnt/application/chatter/tools.py", line 42, in connect self.connection = SQSConnection(cConfig.get("AWS", "KeyId"), cConfig.get("AWS", "AccessKey")); File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/sqs/connection.py", line 54, in __init__ self.region.endpoint, debug, https_connection_factory) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/connection.py", line 418, in __init__ debug, https_connection_factory) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/connection.py", line 189, in __init__ self.refresh_http_connection(self.server, self.is_secure) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/site-packages/boto-1.7a-py2.6.egg/boto/connection.py", line 247, in refresh_http_connection connection = httplib.HTTPSConnection(host) AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSConnection'

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• Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

  - by maddy

  Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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• Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

  - by maddy

  Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

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• conditional update records mysql query

  - by Shakti Singh

  Hi, Is there any single msql query which can update customer DOB? I want to update the DOB of those customers which have DOB greater than current date. example:- if a customer have dob 2034 update it to 1934 , if have 2068 updated with 1968. There was a bug in my system if you enter date less than 1970 it was storing it as 2070. The bug is solved now but what about the customers which have wrong DOB. So I have to update their DOB. All customers are stored in customer_entity table and the entity_id is the customer_id Details is as follows:- desc customer_entity -> ; +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_set_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | website_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | email | varchar(255) | NO | MUL | | | | group_id | smallint(3) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | increment_id | varchar(50) | NO | | | | | store_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | 0 | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | is_active | tinyint(1) unsigned | NO | | 1 | | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 11 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the DOB is stored in the customer_entity_datetime table the column value contain the DOB. but in this table values of all other attribute are also stored such as fname,lname etc. So the attribute_id with value 11 is DOB attribute. mysql> desc customer_entity_datetime; +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | value_id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | value | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) Thanks.

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• Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

  - by dmckee

  I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

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• How to use a int2 database-field as a boolean in Java using JPA/Hibernate

  - by mg

  Hello... I write an application based on an already existing database (postgreSQL) using JPA and Hibernate. There is a int2-column (activeYN) in a table, which is used as a boolean (0 = false (inactive), not 0 = true (active)). In the Java application i want to use this attribute as a boolean. So i defined the attribute like this: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private boolean active; @Column(name="activeYN") public boolean isActive() { return this.active; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } But there ist an exception because Hibernate expects an boolean database-field and not an int2. Can i do this mapping i any way while using a boolean in java?? I have a possible solution for this, but i don't really like it: My "hacky"-solution is the following: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private short active_USED_BY_JPA; //short because i need int2 /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. Use the method isActive() */ @Column(name="activeYN") public short getActive_USED_BY_JPA() { return this.active_USED_BY_JPA; } /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. * Use the method setActive(boolean active) */ public void setActive_USED_BY_JPA(short active) { this.active_USED_BY_JPA = active; } @Transient //jpa will ignore transient marked methods public boolean isActive() { return getActive_USED_BY_JPA() != 0; } @Transient public void setActive(boolean active) { this.setActive_USED_BY_JPA = active ? -1 : 0; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } Are there any other solutions for this problem? The "hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto"-value in the hibernate configuration is set to "validate". (sorry, my english is not the best, i hope you understand it anyway)..

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• Writing language converter in ANTLR

  - by Stefan

  I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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• grails scaffolding broken

  - by damian

  Grails scaffoldin does not work in my grails application. When I go from the main page to the specific controller page it output something like this: Error 500: Servlet: default URI: /myapp/myDomain/list Exception Message: Tag [sortableColumn] is missing required attribute [title] or [titleKey] at /webTestDummyDomain/list:25 Caused by: Error processing GroovyPageView: Tag [sortableColumn] is missing required attribute [title] or [titleKey] at /myDomain/list:25 Class: /myDomain/list At Line: [25] Code Snippet: Code snippet empty. If I try to create a new app scaffold works perfectly. Additional data: Application Status * App version: 0.1 * Grails version: 1.2.2 * JVM version: 1.6.0_20 * Controllers: 11 * Domains: 10 * Services: 19 * Tag Libraries: 26 Installed Plugins * i18n - 1.2.2 * filters - 1.2.2 * logging - 1.2.2 * core - 1.2.2 * tomcat - 1.2.2 * webtest - 2.0.4 * functionalTest - 1.2.7 * yui - 2.7.0.1 * rest - 0.3 * jquery - 1.4.2.1 * bubbling - 2.1.2 * urlMappings - 1.2.2 * groovyPages - 1.2.2 * servlets - 1.2.2 * dataSource - 1.2.2 * controllers - 1.2.2 * codecs - 1.2.2 * jqueryUi - 1.8-SNAPSHOT * grailsUi - 1.2-SNAPSHOT * domainClass - 1.2.2 * mimeTypes - 1.2.2 * scaffolding - 1.2.2 * converters - 1.2.2 * hibernate - 1.2.2 * validation - 1.2.2 * services - 1.2.2 Can you give me any pointer?

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• How to not specify ruleset name when reading from config file?

  - by user102533

  When I read rules from a configuration file, I do something like this: IConfigurationSource configurationSource = new FileConfigurationSource("myvalidation.config"); var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator<Salary>(configurationSource); The config file looks like this: <ruleset name="Default"> <properties> <property name="Address"> <validator lowerBound="10" lowerBoundType="Inclusive" upperBound="15" upperBoundType="Inclusive" negated="false" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.StringLengthValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="String Length Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> My question is - is there a way to not specify the ruleset name? It's not required for me to specify a ruleset name if I am using the attribute approach and I can validate using: ValidationResults results = Validation.Validate(salary); Now when reading from config files, I have to specify the ruleset name. There is no overload of the CreateValidator method that accepts the configuration source without specifying the ruleset name. Also, the xml in the config file requires a name attribute for ruleset

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• ASP.NET RadioButton messing with the name (groupname)

  - by Hojou

  I got a templated control (a repeater) listing some text and other markup. Each item has a radiobutton associated with it, making it possible for the user to select ONE of the items created by the repeater. The repeater writes the radiobutton setting its id and name generated with the default asp.net naming convention making each radiobutton a full 'group'. This means all radiobuttons are independant on each other, which again unfortunately means i can select all radiobuttons at the same time. The radiobutton has the clever attribute 'groupname' used to set a common name so they get grouped together and thus should be dependant (so i can only select one at a time). The problem is - this doesn't work - the repeater makes sure the id and thus the name (which controls the grouping) are different. Since i use a repeater (could have been a listview or any other templated databound control) i can't use the RadioButtonList. So where does that leave me? I know i've had this problem before and solved it. I know almost every asp.net programmer must have had it too, so why can't i google and find a solid solution to the problem? I came across solutions to enforce the grouping by javascript (ugly!) or even to handle the radiobuttons as non-server controls, forcing me to do a Request.Form[name] to read the status. I also tried experimenting with overriding the name attribute on the PreRender event - unfortunately the owning page and masterpage again overrides this name to reflect the full id/name so i end up with the same wrong result. If you have no better solution than i posted, you are still very welcome to post your thoughts - atleast i'll know that my friend 'jack' is right about how messed up 'asp.net' is sometimes ;)

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• Can I make any ASP.NET/HTML element into form-data that posts back to the server?

  - by Giffyguy

  I am using Javascript to alter the innerHTML attribute of a <td> and I need to get that info back in the form submittal. The <td> corrosponds to an <asp:TableCell> on the server-side, where the Text attribute is set to an initial value. The user cannot enter the value in this particular field. Instead, its value is set by me (via client-side script) based on actions that the user performs. But this field is useless to me if I can't see its value on the server-side as well. I'd like to avoid using a read-only textbox, because those are difficult to resize dynamically. Can an <asp:Label> be used as form data? Is there any way to achive this without letting the user manually enter the data? Or is there a simpler way to store a string as a variable somewhere and send it back as form-data?

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• How to use <c:out value=...> taglib

  - by artaxerxe

  I have the class A: package a; public class A { private int x = 9; public int getX() { return x; } } and the ajsp.jsp file: <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib prefix="c" uri="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> </head> <body> <jsp:useBean id = "a" class = "a.A" /> <c:out value = "${a.x}" /> </body> </html> when i run it, it gives an error : org.apache.jasper.JasperException: /ajsp.jsp(11,0) PWC6236: According to TLD or attribute directive in tag file, attribute value does not accept any expressions if instead of <c:out value = "${a.x}" /> i use <jsp:getProperty property="x" name="a"/> it goes perfect. So, what is the problem? Thank advance.

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• How to control CSS class applied to ASP.NET 4 Menu with RenderingMode=List

  - by Joe

  I am using an ASP.NET 4.0 Menu control with RenderingMode=List and am struggling with creating the appropriate CSS. Each menu item is represented by an <li tag that contains a nested <a tag with what appear to be fixed class names: <a class="level1" for unselected level 1 menu items <a class="level2" for unselected level 2 menu items <a class="level1 selected" for the selected level 1 menu item ... etc... What I want to do is to is to prevent the currently selected menu item from being "clickable". To do so I tried using: if (menuItem.Selected) menuItem.Selectable = false; This has the desired effect of removing the href attribute from the <a tag but also removes the class attribute - and as a result my CSS can not identify what level the menu item belongs to! Looks to me like a possible bug, but in any case I can't find any documentation describing what CSS class names are used, nor whether there is any way to control this (the old Style properties don't appear to have any effect). Ideally I would like to have "level" class attributes on the <li tags, not just the nested <a tags.

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• How can I get bitfields to arrange my bits in the right order?

  - by Jim Hunziker

  To begin with, the application in question is always going to be on the same processor, and the compiler is always gcc, so I'm not concerned about bitfields not being portable. gcc lays out bitfields such that the first listed field corresponds to least significant bit of a byte. So the following structure, with a=0, b=1, c=1, d=1, you get a byte of value e0. struct Bits { unsigned int a:5; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); (Actually, this is C++, so I'm talking about g++.) Now let's say I'd like a to be a six bit integer. Now, I can see why this won't work, but I coded the following structure: struct Bits2 { unsigned int a:6; unsigned int b:1; unsigned int c:1; unsigned int d:1; } __attribute__((__packed__)); Setting b, c, and d to 1, and a to 0 results in the following two bytes: c0 01 This isn't what I wanted. I was hoping to see this: e0 00 Is there any way to specify a structure that has three bits in the most significant bits of the first byte and six bits spanning the five least significant bits of the first byte and the most significant bit of the second? Please be aware that I have no control over where these bits are supposed to be laid out: it's a layout of bits that are defined by someone else's interface.

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• ReturnUrl = Default.aspx for MVC?

  - by Cynthia

  I'm trying to secure my entire MVC site, so before the Home controller, I added an [Authorize] attribute. Now if you run it from Visual Studio or navigate using the root URL (e.g. http://localhost:2897) it does redirect to the login page, as expected. However the URL in the address bar after redirection looks like this: http://localhost:2897/Account/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fdefault.aspx%3f I haven't tested this out, seeing as I have not implemented my authentication code. However, this looks like a big problem to me, since I do not have a default.aspx in my project! My authentication tag in the web.config looks like this: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" defaultUrl="~/Home/Index" timeout="2880"/> </authentication> Why doesn't it pick up this route as the default ReturnUrl instead of default.aspx?

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• How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

  - by Brecht Machiels

  Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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• T4MVC calling controller methods multiple times?

  - by Maslow

  I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method, not the generated code in T4MVC. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version. Is this a fluke or is it actually calling into the real methods and running my database calling code just to generate the views?

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• Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

  - by maddy

  Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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• Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

  - by user309029

  Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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• pagination in jsf

  - by gurupriyan.e

  I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

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• Request error "enable cookies" while posting app request to LinkedIn

  - by Jay

  Cookie error Hi, I am running S60 SDK 5th with Eclipse pulsar on win 7. I have oauth_token using with this Url https://www.linkedin.com/uas/oauth/authorize?oauth_token=. To get that grant access screen by LinkedIn. I am loading above Url using htmlComponent, and adding HtmlComponent to form and show it. Occasionally when I click on the "Ok I'll Allow It" button (i.e. after the button has been pressed) I get the following error message. "We’re sorry, there was a problem with your request. Please make sure you have cookies enabled and try again." but i'm receiving the response with oauth_token, oauth_token_secret, oauth_callback_confirmed = true, xoauth_request_auth_url, oauth_expires_in. Some buddy please help.

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• Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

  - by Alan_m

  I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

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