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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • yet another question about migrating to Java

    - by aloneguid
    Hi, There are plenty similar questions, but maybe responses to this one will save a developer's life :) I want to migrate to Java. The reasons are very clear: all the .NET vacancies are client and windows oriented (Silverlight developer, ASP.NET developer, WPF developer etc.) and none of them are any interest to me. I worked with .NET since it's beginning as our company decided to invest in .NET having C++ stack and all the natual problems, so I was just blindly following and actually enjoyed it as the products were mostly server oriented with mixed C++/C# code. Today I have beforementioned problem - can't find an inspiring job. I'd rather kill myself than start working on a Silverlight or WPF project. Searching Java vacancies shows promising results, however they all require a huge java-related technology stack and experience. The question is is there any chance to find a job quickly and without dramatic salary drop (I know that Java guys are usually better paid, so there must be a kind of a credit) and if not, how must time and effort does it take to migrate (my .NET knowledge mostly includes server-oriented technologies like NHibernate, WCF, threading, sockets, ASP.NET web services, Enterprise Library, NInject etc etc etc, and (still) some C++ leftovers). Thanks!

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  • nginx with passenger

    - by Luc
    Hello, I'm trying to move from Apache + Passenger to Nginx + passenger on my Ubuntu Lucid Lynx box. When I install passenger, sudo gem install passenger and cd /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-2.2.14/bin sudo ./passenger-install-nginx-module everything is fine (no error). Nginx is downloaded / compiled and installed at the same time (when selecting the first option during passenger installation). By default it is installed in /opt/nginx. I end up with the configuration file /opt/nginx/conf/nginx.conf (this conf file was automatically updated with passenger config). The thing I do not understand is that I also have the configuration file /etc/nginx/nginx.conf... what is the purpose of this one when it seems that the conf file in /opt/... is the main one ? When I run /etc/init.d/nginx start, it starts correclty saying that /etc/nginx/nginx.conf is ok... Does it mean that it does not check the other conf file ? I have updated /etc/init.d/nginx script and add /opt/nginx/sbin at the beginning of the PATH and it seems the correct conf file is taken into account. It seems like I have 2 nginx installations where I only relied on passenger to install it... Thanks a lot for your help, I am kind of lost here :) Luc

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  • Adding libraries to a project in xcode - symbols not found

    - by kudorgyozo
    I am trying to make an iphone app in xcode that uses pjsip. The problem is I don't know how to link the libraries. I have the ARM version of the libraries in this folder in mac os x. /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone In Xcode: I have specified the library and header search paths like this: for includes: /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjlib/include /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjlib-util/include /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjmedia/include /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjnath/include /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjsip/include for libraries: /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjlib/lib /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjlib-util/lib /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjmedia/lib /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjnath/lib /Users/kudorgyozo/pjsip_iphone/pjsip/lib and then using the "Other linker flags" : -lpj-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjlib-util-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjmedia-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjmedia-audiodev-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjmedia-codec-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjsdp-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjnath-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjsip-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjsip-simple-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjsip-ua-arm-apple-darwin9 -lpjsua-arm-apple-darwin9 Is this OK like this? Because it gives me symbol(s) not found errors. I think no symbol is found from the "included" libraries. I don't know what is wrong i'm just beginning to understand how building an app works under linux based systems i've only done programming in C# before.

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  • Getting proper indentation using XMLBuilder in a helper

    - by Robbie
    I'm attempting to use a view helper to create some dynamic links based on if you're logged in or not. What I want returned, for sake of easy code readability, is: <ul class="right"> <li><a href="#">Login</a></li> <li><a href="#">Register</a></li> </ul> In the view helper I have this Ruby code: def loginh xm = Builder::XmlMarkup.new(:indent=>2, :margin=>4) xm.ul("class" => "right") { xm.li('class' => 'text') { xm.text("test") } } end In the view, the line that calls login helper is already indented 4 levels. Because of this, the first line gets 'skewed', so in the view I have: <%= loginh %> Which results in: <ul class="right"> <li class="text"> <text>test</text> </li> </ul> You can see it works perfectly, except for the first line. It would appear that the first line is affected by the indent before <%= loginh % is called. I can easily remedy this by removing the indentation prior to <%= loginh % - but in essence I'd be sacrificing code readability for markup readability. Which isn't what I'm looking to do. Is there any way I could remove the beginning whitespace?

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  • Insert multiple line breaks into a JavaScript string (regex) (CodeMirror)

    - by PJH
    I have a few strings and I would like to insert some line breaks into them at certain points. I figured out a few of the logistics but as a whole I can't seem to crack this problem, probably because I have limited experience with regex. Basically I have a long string of XML tags that is all on one line. I want to add line breaks at certain points to get the data more formatted and looking nice. I am using CodeMirror to display this data on a webpage but for some reason its all on line #1. So I need to go from something like this: <Sample><Name></Name><PhoneNumber><AreaCode></AreaCode><Number></Number></PhoneNumber></Sample> To something like this: <Sample> <Name></Name> <PhoneNumber> <AreaCode></AreaCode> <Number></Number> </PhoneNumber> </Sample> CodeMirror will take care of the rest of the formatting all I need to do is insert the line breaks in the right spot using regex or a loop of some sort. The Tags will or can change so I am guessing regex has to be used. I have had success inserting line breaks with \n and &#xD but can't seem to get regex to detect the proper locations. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. UPDATE I overlooked this but the brackets are in fact being sent as < and > So example tag would look like: &lt;PhoneNumber&gt; or &lt;/PhoneNumber&gt; So basically need to insert a \n after every &gt; that is a closing tag or a beginning tag that contains children tags.

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  • Suppress indentation after environment in LaTeX

    - by David
    I'm trying to create a new environment in my LaTeX document where indentation in the next paragraph following the environment is suppressed. I have been told (TeXbook and LaTeX source) that by setting \everypar to {\setbox0\lastbox}, the TeX typesetter will execute this at the beginning of the next paragraph and thus remove the indentation: \everypar{\setbox0\lastbox} So this is what I do, but to no effect (following paragraph is still indented): \newenvironment{example} {\begin{list} {} {\setlength\leftmargin{2em}}} {\end{list}\everypar{\setbox0\lastbox}} I have studied LaTeX's internals as well as I could manage. It seems that the \end routine says \endgroup and \par at some point, which may be the reason LaTeX ignores my \everypar setting. \global doesn't help either. I know about \noindent but want to do this automatically. Example document fragment: This is paragraph text. This is paragraph text, too. \begin{example} \item This is the first item in the list. \item This is the second item in the list. \end{example} This is more paragraph text. I don't want this indented, please. Internal routines and switches of interest seem to be \@endpetrue, \@endparenv and others. Thanks for your help.

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

    - by thangnguyen
    I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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  • Is there any way to combine transparency and "ajax usability" with HTML templates

    - by Sam
    I'm using HTML_Template_Flexy in PHP but the question should apply to any language or template library. I am outputting a list of relatively complex objects. In the beginning I just iterated over a list of the objects and called a toHtml method on them. When I was about to have my layout designer look over the template I noticed that it was too opaque and that he would have ended up looking through and/or editing many additional php source files to see what really gets generated by the toHtml method. So I extracted most of the HTML strings in the php classes up to the template which made for one clear file where you can see the whole page structure at once. However this causes problems when you want to add an object to the list using javascript. Then I have to keep the old toHtml method and maintain both the main template and the html strings at the same time, so I can output just the HTML for a new object that should be added to the page. So I'm back to the idea of using smaller templates for the objects that make up the page, but I was wondering if there was some easy way of having my cake and eating it too by having one template that shows the whole page but also the mini-templates for smaller objects on the page. Edit: Yes, updating the page is not a problem at all. My concern is with having both maintainability and transparency of the template files. If I have one single template for the whole page, then I must maintain mini-templates of the objects that are shown on the page. If I just have the mini-templates and include them from the higher-level template it becomes more difficult to look at the top-level html and imagine what the end result will look like.

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  • JavaScript: input validation in the keydown event

    - by c411
    Hi, I'm attempting to do info validation against user text input in the process of keydown event. The reason that I am trying to validate in the keydown event is because I do not want to display the characters those that are considered to be illegal in the input box at the beginning. The validation I am writing is like this, function validateUserInput(){ var code = this.event.keyCode; if ((code<48||code>57) // numerical &&code!==46 //delete &&code!==8 //back space &&code!==37 // <- arrow &&code!==39) // -> arrow { this.event.preventDefault(); } } I can keep going like this, however I am seeing drawbacks on this implmentation. Those are, for example, Conditional statement become longer and longer when I put more conditions to be examined. keyCodes can be different by browsers. I have to not only check what is not legal but also have to check what are exceptionals. In above examples, delete,backspace, and arrow keys are exceptionals. But the feature that I don't want to lose is having not to display the input in the textarea unless it passes the validation. (In case the user try to put illegal characters in the textarea, nothing should appear at all) That is why I am not doing validation upon keyup event. So my question is, Are there better ways to validate input in keydown event than checking keyCode by keyCode? Are there other ways to capture the user inputs other than keydown event before browser displays it? And a way to put the validation on it? Thanks for the help in advance.

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  • Why is it assumed that send may return with less than requested data transmitted on a blocking socke

    - by Ernelli
    The standard method to send data on a stream socket has always been to call send with a chunk of data to write, check the return value to see if all data was sent and then keep calling send again until the whole message has been accepted. For example this is a simple example of a common scheme: int send_all(int sock, unsigned char *buffer, int len) { int nsent; while(len 0) { nsent = send(sock, buffer, len, 0); if(nsent == -1) // error return -1; buffer += nsent; len -= nsent; } return 0; // ok, all data sent } Even the BSD manpage mentions that ...If no messages space is available at the socket to hold the message to be transmitted, then send() normally blocks... Which indicates that we should assume that send may return without sending all data. Now I find this rather broken but even W. Richard Stevens assumes this in his standard reference book about network programming, not in the beginning chapters, but the more advanced examples uses his own writen (write all data) function instead of calling write. Now I consider this still to be more or less broken, since if send is not able to transmit all data or accept the data in the underlying buffer and the socket is blocking, then send should block and return when the whole send request has been accepted. I mean, in the code example above, what will happen if send returns with less data sent is that it will be called right again with a new request. What has changed since last call? At max a few hundred CPU cycles have passed so the buffer is still full. If send now accepts the data why could'nt it accept it before? Otherwise we will end upp with an inefficient loop where we are trying to send data on a socket that cannot accept data and keep trying, or else? So it seems like the workaround, if needed, results in heavily inefficient code and in those circumstances blocking sockets should be avoided at all an non blocking sockets together with select should be used instead.

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  • Python pixel manipulation library

    - by silinter
    So I'm going through the beginning stages of producing a game in Python, and I'm looking for a library that is able to manipulate pixels and blit them relatively fast. My first thought was pygame, as it deals in pure 2D surfaces, but it only allows pixel access through pygame.get_at(), pygame.set_at() and pygame.get_buffer(), all of which lock the surface each time they're called, making them slow to use. I can also use the PixelArray and surfarray classes, but they are locked for the duration of their lifetimes, and the only way to blit them to a surface is to either copy the pixels to a new surface, or use surfarray.blit_array, which requires creating a subsurface of the screen and blitting it to that, if the array is smaller than the screen (if it's bigger I can just use a slice of the array, which is no problem). I don't have much experience with PyOpenGL or Pyglet, but I'm wondering if there is a faster library for doing pixel manipulation in, or if there is a faster method, in Pygame, for doing pixel manupilation. I did some work with SDL and OpenGL in C, and I do like the idea of adding vertex/fragment shaders to my program. My program will chiefly be dealing in loading images and writing/reading to/from surfaces.

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  • gdb reverse debugging error

    - by Werner
    Hi, i started to try reverse debugging with gdb 7, followin the tutorial: http://www.sourceware.org/gdb/wiki/ProcessRecord/Tutorial and I thought, great! Then I started to debug a real program which gives an error at the end. So I run it with gdb, and I put a breakpoint just before the place I think the error appears. Then I type "record" in order to start to recrd actions for future reverse-debugging. But after some steps I get Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGTRAP, Trace/breakpoint trap. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) n Single stepping until exit from function memcpy, which has no line number information. Process record doesn't support instruction 0xf0d at address 0x2aaaab4c4b4e. Process record: failed to record execution log. Program received signal SIGABRT, Aborted. 0x00002aaaab4c4b4e in memcpy () from /lib64/libc.so.6 Before I look at in in detail, I wonder if this feature is still buggy, or if I should start to record from the beginning. Where this "record" error happens, just an object is created as a copy of other: Thanks

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Which JavaScript framework for me?

    - by LeonixSolutions
    This is not to be a subjective question; nor is it intended to start a religious war. Which JavaScript framework for me? Until now, I haven't coded any JS at all (no biggy, it's just another language). I have been set in my ways and eschewed any client-side code, lest the user have JS turned off, or try to "just change this a little, to see what happens" - and then expect me to support it. So, until now it has all been server-side, with PHP and an ODBC compliant database. However, I am beginning to see advantages to client-side input validation and improved graphical experience for users which would help me to produce more professional web-based applications. I am looking for a framework which : doesn't have a steep learning curve is full-featured, although that does not mean that the one with the most features wins (remember the 80/20 rule) is mature an stable (even if still in development) integrates well with common IDEs if possible. I use NetBeans for PHP (and occasionally MS visual studio for C# (I seem to have drifted away from Eclipse)) allows me to develop web sites/apps for mobile devices support for Goggle charts (or other charting) would be a bonus has good AJAX/JSON support, but I imagine that they all do Taking that into consideration, is there a "right" framework for me, or does it not really matter? I looked briefly at JQuery and JQueryGui and liked what I saw, but I really don't have time, owing to deadlines, to try them all out and see which one suits me, much as I know that I ought to.

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  • Windows Forms: Unable to Click to Focus a MaskedTextBox in a Non TopLevel Form

    - by Overhed
    Like the title says, I've got a Child form being shown with it's TopLevel property set to False and I am unable to click a MaskedTextBox control that it contains (in order to bring focus to it). I can bring focus to it by using TAB on the keyboard though. The child form contains other regular TextBox controls and these I can click to focus with no problems, although they also exhibit some odd behavior: for example if I've got a value in the Textbox and I try to drag-click from the end of the string to the beginning, nothing happens. In fact I can't use my mouse to move the cursor inside the TextBox's text at all (although they keyboard arrow keys work). I'm not too worried about the odd TextBox behavior, but why can't I activate my MaskedTextBox by clicking on it? Below is the code that shows the form: Dim newReportForm As New Form Dim formName As String Dim FullTypeName As String Dim FormInstanceType As Type formName = TreeView1.SelectedNode.Name FullTypeName = Application.ProductName & "." & formName FormInstanceType = Type.GetType(FullTypeName, True, True) newReportForm = CType(Activator.CreateInstance(FormInstanceType), Form) Try newReportForm.Top = CType(SplitContainer1.Panel2.Controls(0), Form).Top + 25 newReportForm.Left = CType(SplitContainer1.Panel2.Controls(0), Form).Left + 25 Catch End Try newReportForm.TopLevel = False newReportForm.Parent = SplitContainer1.Panel2 newReportForm.BringToFront() newReportForm.Show()

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  • what's an effective way to build a csproj file in C#?

    - by jcollum
    I'd like to avoid a command line for this. I've been using the MSBuild API ( Microsoft.Build.Framework and Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine) with code that looks like this: this.buildEngine = new Engine(); BuildPropertyGroup props = new BuildPropertyGroup(); props.SetProperty("Configuration", "Debug"); this.buildEngine.RegisterLogger(this.logger); Project proj = new Project(this.buildEngine); proj.LoadXml(this.projectFileAndPath, ProjectLoadSettings.None); this.buildEngine.BuildProject(proj, "Build"); However I've run into enough problems that I can't find answers for that I'm really wondering if I'm doing this right. First, I can't find the output (there's no bin directory in any of the places where I figured the dll's would end up). Second, I tried building a project that I had made in VS2008 and the line proj.LoadXml( fails for invalid xml encoding. But of course the xml file is valid, since VS2008 can build it (I checked). At this point I'm beginning to wonder if I've picked up some code that's way out of date or a methodology that's been superseded by something else. Opinions?

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  • How select the rest of the word in incremental search in Eclipse?

    - by arberg
    When in incremental search mode in Eclipse, is there a way to select the rest of the word? For example, suppose I want to find the word “handleReservationGranted”. I type Ctrl-f to enter incremental search mode, and start typing the letters “han”. Now suppose I have found the beginning of “handleReservationGranted”. In my search box I have “han”, but I would now like to be able to select the rest of the word, so that the search box contains “handleReservationGranted” instead of “han”. In Xemacs, I can type Ctrl-s, type “han”, and then type Ctrl-w. Now my search term is “handleReservationGranted”, and not “han”. So now if I press Ctrl-s, I find the next occurrence of “handleReservationGranted”. I frequently prefer the incremental search over the search dialog, as the search dialog takes too much space on my screen, and most annoying it frequently hides the found matches. I am using Eclipse Galileo (3.5.2). Ctrl-Shift-L gives me the list of possible shortcuts in the given context, but none seems to fit what I'm looking for.

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  • what's an effective way to build a csproj file in code?

    - by jcollum
    I'd like to avoid a command line for this. I've been using the MSBuild API ( Microsoft.Build.Framework and Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine) with code that looks like this: this.buildEngine = new Engine(); BuildPropertyGroup props = new BuildPropertyGroup(); props.SetProperty("Configuration", "Debug"); this.buildEngine.RegisterLogger(this.logger); Project proj = new Project(this.buildEngine); proj.LoadXml(this.projectFileAndPath, ProjectLoadSettings.None); this.buildEngine.BuildProject(proj, "Build"); However I've run into enough problems that I can't find answers for that I'm really wondering if I'm doing this right. First, I can't find the output (there's no bin directory in any of the places where I figured the dll's would end up). Second, I tried building a project that I had made in VS2008 and the line proj.LoadXml( fails for invalid xml encoding. But of course the xml file is valid, since VS2008 can build it (I checked). At this point I'm beginning to wonder if I've picked up some code that's way out of date or a methodology that's been superseded by something else. Opinions?

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  • Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

    - by philrabin
    I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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  • Using outer query result in a subquery in postgresql

    - by brad
    I have two tables points and contacts and I'm trying to get the average points.score per contact grouped on a monthly basis. Note that points and contacts aren't related, I just want the sum of points created in a month divided by the number of contacts that existed in that month. So, I need to sum points grouped by the created_at month, and I need to take the count of contacts FOR THAT MONTH ONLY. It's that last part that's tricking me up. I'm not sure how I can use a column from an outer query in the subquery. I tried something like this: SELECT SUM(score) AS points_sum, EXTRACT(month FROM created_at) AS month, date_trunc('MONTH', created_at) + INTERVAL '1 month' AS next_month, (SELECT COUNT(id) FROM contacts WHERE contacts.created_at <= next_month) as contact_count FROM points GROUP BY month, next_month ORDER BY month So, I'm extracting the actual month that my points are being summed, and at the same time, getting the beginning of the next_month so that I can say "Get me the count of contacts where their created at is < next_month" But it complains that column next_month doesn't exist This is understandable as the subquery knows nothing about the outer query. Qualifying with points.next_month doesn't work either. So can someone point me in the right direction of how to achieve this? Tables: Points score | created_at 10 | "2011-11-15 21:44:00.363423" 11 | "2011-10-15 21:44:00.69667" 12 | "2011-09-15 21:44:00.773289" 13 | "2011-08-15 21:44:00.848838" 14 | "2011-07-15 21:44:00.924152" Contacts id | created_at 6 | "2011-07-15 21:43:17.534777" 5 | "2011-08-15 21:43:17.520828" 4 | "2011-09-15 21:43:17.506452" 3 | "2011-10-15 21:43:17.491848" 1 | "2011-11-15 21:42:54.759225" sum, month and next_month (without the subselect) sum | month | next_month 14 | 7 | "2011-08-01 00:00:00" 13 | 8 | "2011-09-01 00:00:00" 12 | 9 | "2011-10-01 00:00:00" 11 | 10 | "2011-11-01 00:00:00" 10 | 11 | "2011-12-01 00:00:00"

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  • How to read a string one letter at a time in python

    - by dan
    I need to convert a string inputed by a user into morse code. The way our professor wants us to do this is to read from a morseCode.txt file, seperate the letters from the morseCode into two lists, then convert each letter to morse code (inserting a new line when there is a space). I have the beginning. What it does is reads the morseCode.txt file and seperates the letters into a list [A, B, ... Z] and the codes into a list ['– – . . – –\n', '. – . – . –\n'...]. We haven't learned "sets" yet, so I can't use that. How would I then take the string that they inputed, go through letter by letter, and convert it to morse code? I'm a bit caught up. Here's what I have right now (not much at all...) morseCodeFile = open('morseCode.txt', 'r') letterList = [] codeList = [] line = morseCodeFile.readline() while line != '': letterList.append(line[0]) codeList.append(line[2:]) line = morseCodeFile.readline() morseCodeFile.close() userInput = input("Enter a string to be converted to morse code or press <enter> to quit ")

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  • Simple imeplementation of admin/staff panel?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: A new project requires a simple panel(page) for admin and staff members that : Preferably will not use SSL or any digital ceritification stuff, a simple login from via http will just be fine. has basic authentication which allows only admin to login as admin, and any staff member as of the group "staff". Ideally, the "credentials(username-hashedpassword pair)" will be stored in MySQL. is simple to configure if there is a package, or the strategy is simple to code. somewhere (PHP session?) somehow (include a script at the beginning of each page to check user group before doing anything?), it will detect any invalid user attempt to access protected page and redirect him/her to the login form. while still keeps high quality in security, something I worry about the most. Frankly I am having little knowledge about Internet security, and how modern CMS such as WordPress/Joomla do with their implementation in this. I only have one thing in my mind that I need to use a salt to hash the password (SHA1?) to make sure any hacker gets the username and password pair across the net cannot use that to log into the system. And that is what the client wants to make sure. But I really not sure where to start, any ideas? Thanks a lot in advance.

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