Search Results

Search found 90062 results on 3603 pages for 'code templates'.

Page 964/3603 | < Previous Page | 960 961 962 963 964 965 966 967 968 969 970 971  | Next Page >

  • VB6 Game Development : Don't ask me why :-)

    - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com
    Hi All, I am developing a game in VB6 (plz don't ask me why :) ). The storyboard is ready and a rough implementation is underway. I am following a "pure-software-rendering" approach. (i.e. no DirectX, no openGL etc.) Amongst many others, the following "serious" problems exist: 2D alpha transparency reqd. to implement overlays. Parallax implementation to give depth-of-field illusion. Capturing mouse-scroll events globally (as in FPS-es; mapping them to changing weapon). Async sound play with absolute "zero-lag". Any ideas anyone. Please suggest any well documented library/ocx or sample-code. Plz do provide solutions with max performance and with as little overhead as possible. Also, anyone who has developed any games, and would be open to sharing her/his code would be highly appreciated. (any well-acknowledged VB games whose source-code i can study??) Thank You

    Read the article

  • singledispatch in class, how to dispatch self type

    - by yanxinyou
    Using python3.4. Here I want use singledispatch to dispatch different type in __mul__ method . The code like this : class Vector(object): ## some code not paste @functools.singledispatch def __mul__(self, other): raise NotImplementedError("can't mul these type") @__mul__.register(int) @__mul__.register(object) # Becasue can't use Vector , I have to use object def _(self, other): result = Vector(len(self)) # start with vector of zeros for j in range(len(self)): result[j] = self[j]*other return result @__mul__.register(Vector) # how can I use the self't type @__mul__.register(object) # def _(self, other): pass # need impl As you can see the code , I want support Vector*Vertor , This has Name error Traceback (most recent call last): File "p_algorithms\vector.py", line 6, in <module> class Vector(object): File "p_algorithms\vector.py", line 84, in Vector @__mul__.register(Vector) # how can I use the self't type NameError: name 'Vector' is not defined The question may be How Can I use class Name a Type in the class's method ? I know c++ have font class statement . How python solve my problem ? And it is strange to see result = Vector(len(self)) where the Vector can be used in method body .

    Read the article

  • WCF - Return object without serializing?

    - by Mayo
    One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

    Read the article

  • Java Equivalent of C++ .dll?

    - by Matt D
    So, I've been programming for a while now, but since I haven't worked on many larger, modular projects, I haven't come across this issue before. I know what a .dll is in C++, and how they are used. But every time I've seen similar things in Java, they've always been packaged with source code. For instance, what would I do if I wanted to give a Java library to someone else, but not expose the source code? Instead of the source, I would just give a library as well as a Javadoc, or something along those lines, with the public methods/functions, to another programmer who could then implement them in their own Java code. For instance, if I wanted to create a SAX parser that could be "borrowed" by another programmer, but (for some reason--can't think of one in this specific example lol) I don't want to expose my source. Maybe there's a login involved that I don't want exploited--I don't know. But what would be the Java way of doing this? With C++, .dll files make it much easier, but I have never run into a Java equivalent so far. (I'm pretty new to Java, and a pretty new "real-world" programmer, in general as well)

    Read the article

  • Where to turn upon realizing I can't program my way out of a paper bag?

    - by luminarious
    I have no job and just enough money to get by until April or so. While looking for work, I figured I might as well go through with a pet project, a browser based card game. Make it nice and free, collect donations and maybe earn enough for a movie ticket to escape reality for a while. I have dabbled in web development a bit. I can make simple stuff happen with JS/PHP if I follow tutorials. I designed my own art blog's template - http://luminarious.tumblr.com. I can visualise the game working in my head, flowcharts and everything. But then I tried to go deeper with Javascript and almost had an aneurysm before understanding what a closure is. Wether I suck at learning, have ADD or fail epically at productivity, I have not got much done. Coming up with ideas, screen mock-ups and so forth was very enjoyable, but actual implementation.. not so much. In fact, I cry a bit every time I think about the time someone competent could have finished this in. I'd like to excuse myself with my ENTP personality type, but that hardly solves anything. Rather, I'd like to know to get from A (bunch of ideas with little semblance to a web app) to B (something to proudly show others) while being unable to pay anyone? Are there any secret techniques for learning? Is there any way to get mentoring or code review? Is there anyone with too much free time willing to code for me? How to trust someone to not steal my code when I ask for assistance? Is there anything I should have asked instead of any of those?

    Read the article

  • User to be validated against nested security groups in Windows.

    - by user412272
    Hi, This is my first post here and after much looking around I have come here with my question. Will really appreciate a fast response. I am faced with a problem to validate user credentials of the currently logged on user against a group in Windows. The user membership to a group can be through other groups also ie nested membership. Eg. User U is a part of group G1. Group G1 is a part of another group G2. The requirement is that when the user is validated against group G2, the validations should succeed. The user can be a local or AD user but the group will always be a local group ( or domain local group if created directly on a DC). I have tried using WindowsPrincipal.IsInRole() method, but it seems to be checking only for direct membership to a group. I also tried UserPrincipal.GetAuthorizationGroups() for the current user, but it also doesnt seem to be doing recursive search. I am posting a code snippet of the working code below, but this code is taking much more than acceptable time. bool CheckUserPermissions(string groupName) { WindowsIdentity currentUserIdentity = System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); bool found = false; PrincipalContext context= new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Machine); GroupPrincipal group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, groupName); if (group!= null) { foreach (Principal p in group.GetMembers(true)) { if (p.Sid == currentUserIdentity.User) { found = true; break; } } group.Dispose(); } return found; }

    Read the article

  • JavaScript Fails to load content correctly on start

    - by Gaz_Edge
    I have inherited an image gallery constructed using javascript. I believe it uses a variation of JQuery, but it seems to have been heavily edited. The gallery loads the first image on page load. Each image has comments below them. There are forward and backward arrows that move between images. The problem I seem to have is that if there is a comment on image one, it is not loaded on page start, the only way to get it to display is to click forward to the next image, then click back to image one. The comment is then shown. All the comments are loaded into a script in the header under var sent_comments = [{COMMENTS}] The comment HTML code on loading is as follows; <div id="comments_container"> <div id="comments"> </div> </div> Once I have clicked to image two and then back to image one, the code is; <div id="comments_container"> <div id="comments"> SOME COMMENT </div> </div> Previous image button is: <a class="prev save_state" href="#"> <img src="/next.png?" alt="Next"> </a> Im new to javascript so not really sure what I will need to do to ensure the comment is loaded for the first image when the page loads. Code here: http://static.albumexposure.net/assets/presentation-9f47b054d96f9ec2459e89619a5fe9b4.js http://static.albumexposure.net/assets/presentations/book-699d82a2beb39df264e54c5d2578e0e4.js

    Read the article

  • How can I remove all users in an Active Directory group?

    - by Beavis
    I'm trying to remove all users from an AD group with the following code: private void RemoveStudents() { foreach (DirectoryEntry childDir in rootRefreshDir.Children) { DirectoryEntry groupDE = new DirectoryEntry(childDir.Path); for (int counter = 0; counter < groupDE.Properties["member"].Count; counter++) { groupDE.Properties["member"].Remove(groupDE.Properties["member"][counter]); groupDE.CommitChanges(); groupDE.Close(); } } } The rootRefreshDir is the directory that contains all the AD groups (childDir). What I'm finding here is that this code does not behave correctly. It removes users, but it doesn't do it after the first run. It does "some". Then I run it again, and again, and again - depending on how many users need to be deleted in a group. I'm not sure why it's functioning this way. Can someone help fix this code or provide an alternative method to delete all users in a group? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Need help configuring Castle-Windsor

    - by Jonathas Costa
    I have these base interfaces and providers in one assembly (Assembly1): public interface IEntity { } public interface IDao { } public interface IReadDao<T> : IDao where T : IEntity { IEnumerable<T> GetAll(); } public class NHibernate<T> : IReadDao<T> where T : IEntity { public IEnumerable<T> GetAll() { return new List<T>(); } } And I have this implementation inside another assembly (Assembly2): public class Product : IEntity { public string Code { get; set; } } public interface IProductDao : IReadDao<Product> { IEnumerable<Product> GetByCode(string code); } public class ProductDao : NHibernate<Product>, IProductDao { public IEnumerable<Product> GetByCode(string code) { return new List<Product>(); } } I want to be able to get IRead<Product> and IProductDao from the container. I am using this registration: container.Register( AllTypes.FromAssemblyNamed("Assembly2") .BasedOn(typeof(IReadDao<>)).WithService.FromInterface(), AllTypes.FromAssemblyNamed("Assembly1") .BasedOn(typeof(IReadDao<>)).WithService.Base()); The IReadDao<Product> works great. The container gives me ProductDao. But if I try to get IProductDao, the container throws ComponentNotFoundException. How can I correctly configure the registration?

    Read the article

  • Coding the R-ight way - avoiding the for loop

    - by mropa
    I am going through one of my .R files and by cleaning it up a little bit I am trying to get more familiar with writing the code the r-ight way. As a beginner, one of my favorite starting points is to get rid of the for() loops and try to transform the expression into a functional programming form. So here is the scenario: I am assembling a bunch of data.frames into a list for later usage. dataList <- list (dataA, dataB, dataC, dataD, dataE ) Now I like to take a look at each data.frame's column names and substitute certain character strings. Eg I like to substitute each "foo" and "bar" with "baz". At the moment I am getting the job done with a for() loop which looks a bit awkward. colnames(dataList[[1]]) [1] "foo" "code" "lp15" "bar" "lh15" colnames(dataList[[2]]) [1] "a" "code" "lp50" "ls50" "foo" matchVec <- c("foo", "bar") for (i in seq(dataList)) { for (j in seq(matchVec)) { colnames (dataList[[i]])[grep(pattern=matchVec[j], x=colnames (dataList[[i]]))] <- c("baz") } } Since I am working here with a list I thought about the lapply function. My attempts handling the job with the lapply function all seem to look alright but only at first sight. If I write f <- function(i, xList) { gsub(pattern=c("foo"), replacement=c("baz"), x=colnames(xList[[i]])) } lapply(seq(dataList), f, xList=dataList) the last line prints out almost what I am looking for. However, if i take another look at the actual names of the data.frames in dataList: lapply (dataList, colnames) I see that no changes have been made to the initial character strings. So how can I rewrite the for() loop and transform it into a functional programming form? And how do I substitute both strings, "foo" and "bar", in an efficient way? Since the gsub() function takes as its pattern argument only a character vector of length one.

    Read the article

  • Controlling race condition at startup.

    - by Will Hartung
    I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

    Read the article

  • Insert and remove Template textbox column in grid view

    - by user1545215
    class TextColumn : ITemplate { private string controlId; private string cssClass; public TextColumn(string id, string cssClass = "inputFromTo") { controlId = id; this.cssClass = cssClass; } public void InstantiateIn(Control container) { TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = controlId; txt.CssClass = cssClass; container.Visible = true; container.Controls.Add(txt); } } /******************* Add column code snippet ***************/ TemplateField dentry = new TemplateField(); TemplateField dexit = new TemplateField(); TemplateField dslack = new TemplateField(); dentry.ItemTemplate = new TextColumn("txtHH" + nameCount + "DEntry"); dexit.ItemTemplate = new TextColumn("txtHH" + nameCount + "DExit"); dslack.ItemTemplate = new TextColumn("txtHH" + nameCount + "DSlack"); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.Insert(startPoint, dentry); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.Insert(startPoint + 1, dexit); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.Insert(startPoint + 2, dslack); /***************** Remove column code snippet ************/ gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.RemoveAt(startPoint - 1); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.RemoveAt(startPoint - 2); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.RemoveAt(startPoint - 3); // after executing this code all the columns vanish. Anyone know how to remove this text box template column?

    Read the article

  • How can I get back into my main processing thread?

    - by daveomcd
    I have an app that I'm accessing a remote website with NSURLConnection to run some code and then save out some XML files. I am then accessing those XML Files and parsing through them for information. The process works fine except that my User Interface isn't getting updated properly. I want to keep the user updated through my UILabel. I'm trying to update the text by using setBottomBarToUpdating:. It works the first time when I set it to "Processing Please Wait..."; however, in the connectionDidFinishLoading: it doesn't update. I'm thinking my NSURLConnection is running on a separate thread and my attempt with the dispatch_get_main_queue to update on the main thread isn't working. How can I alter my code to resolve this? Thanks! [If I need to include more information/code just let me know!] myFile.m NSLog(@"Refreshing..."); dispatch_sync( dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ [self getResponse:@"http://mylocation/path/to/file.aspx"]; }); [self setBottomBarToUpdating:@"Processing Please Wait..."]; queue = dispatch_queue_create("updateQueue", DISPATCH_QUEUE_CONCURRENT); connectionDidFinishLoading: if ([response rangeOfString:@"Complete"].location == NSNotFound]) { // failed } else { //success dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(),^ { [self setBottomBarToUpdating:@"Updating Contacts..."]; }); [self updateFromXMLFile:@"http://thislocation.com/path/to/file.xml"]; dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(),^ { [self setBottomBarToUpdating:@"Updating Emails..."]; }); [self updateFromXMLFile:@"http://thislocation.com/path/to/file2.xml"]; }

    Read the article

  • Vista seems to prevent .net from reading/updating file attributes.

    - by CFP
    Hello everyone! The following function copies a file from Source & Path to Dest & Path, normally setting file attributes to normal before copying. Yet, a user of my app has reported it to fail when copying readonly files, returning a permissions-related error. The user is however running the code as administrator, and the error happens - quite strangely - on the SetLastWriteTimeUtc line. Although the code reports that the file attributes are set to normal, windows explorer shows that they are set to read only. Sub CopyFile(ByVal Path As String, ByVal Source As String, ByVal Dest As String) If IO.File.Exists(Dest & Path) Then IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.FileAttributes.Normal) IO.File.Copy(Source & Path, Dest & Path, True) If Handler.GetSetting(ConfigOptions.TimeOffset, "0") <> "0" Then IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.FileAttributes.Normal) IO.File.SetLastWriteTimeUtc(Dest & Path, IO.File.GetLastWriteTimeUtc(Dest & Path).AddHours(Handler.GetSetting(ConfigOptions.TimeOffset, "0"))) End If IO.File.SetAttributes(Dest & Path, IO.File.GetAttributes(Source & Path)) End Sub I just fail to see the problem in this code, so after long hours of searching for the solution, I thought one of SO VB.Net Gurus might help :) Thanks a lot. Edit: The actual error is Access to the path '(..)' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.File.OpenFile(String path, FileAccess access, SafeFileHandle& handle) at System.IO.File.SetLastWriteTimeUtc(String path, DateTime lastWriteTimeUtc)

    Read the article

  • How to convert a string to variable name

    - by p1xelarchitect
    I'm loading several external JSON files and want to check if they have been successfully cached before the the next screen is displayed. My strategy is to check the name of the array to see if it an object. My code works perfectly when I check only a single array and hard code the array name into my function. My question is: how can i make this dynamic? not dynamic: (this works) $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); } function checkJSON(){ if(typeof nav_items == "object"){ // success... } } dynamic: (this doesn't work) $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); checkJSON("foo_items"); checkJSON("bar_items"); } function checkJSON(item){ if(typeof item == "object"){ // success... } } here is the a larger context of my code: var loadAttempts = 0; var reloadTimer = false; $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); } function checkJSON(item){ loadAttempts++; //if nav_items exists if(typeof nav_items == "object"){ //if a timer is running, kill it if(reloadTimer != false){ clearInterval(reloadTimer); reloadTimer = false; } console.log("found!!"); console.log(nav_items[1]); loadAttempts = 0; //reset // load next screen.... } //if nav_items does not yet exist, try 5 times, then give up! else { //set a timer if(reloadTimer == false){ reloadTimer = setInterval(function(){checkJSON(nav_items)},300); console.log(item + " not found. Attempts: " + loadAttempts ); } else { if(loadAttempts <= 5){ console.log(item + " not found. Attempts: " + loadAttempts ); } else { clearInterval(reloadTimer); reloadTimer = false; console.log("Giving up on " + item + "!!"); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Which Java debugger do *you* use.

    - by mikevdg
    I spend a lot of time debugging applications in Eclipse using JPDA. There are a few issues with the Eclipse debugger which really annoy me. Can anybody recommend plug-ins, better debuggers or perhaps tricks that I don't know of yet? In the "Variables" tab, you can type in and execute bits of Java code. However, you first need to click on something (I usually click on "this") to give it some context. Then, after you've typed in a lengthy Java expression to debug something and "execute" it, your expression gets replaced with the result, so you need to type it in all over again. Is there some better way, such as a console or something that I'm missing? When you're poking through data structures, the presentation in the debugger leaves much to be desired. You see the internal representation of Lists, Maps, StringBuilders etc. What I want to see is what these objects conceptually contain. Is there a way of doing this, perhaps using some other debugger, or an extension or something? When an Exception is thrown, is there some way of inspecting the state of the application where the Exception was thrown? Currently I need to set breakpoints just before the Exception occurs and then try to reproduce it. When I'm stepping over a line with many statements on it, I can't actually see which of those statements is being executed, except by "stepping in" to each one to see where it takes me. If no source code is found, Eclipse just stares blankly at you. You get a helpful screen saying "Class File Editor / Source code not found" which is completely useless. I'd much prefer to be able to step through the bytecodes so I can at least see what is going on. Does anybody know of a Java debugger that does this better than Eclipse?

    Read the article

  • jQuery plugin design pattern for using `this` in private methods?

    - by thebossman
    I'm creating jQuery plugins using the pattern from the Plugins Authoring page: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { // element-specific code here }); return this; }; })(jQuery); My code calls for several private methods that manipulate this. I am calling these private methods using the apply(this, arguments) pattern. Is there a way of designing my plugin such that I don't have to call apply to pass this from method to method? My modified plugin code looks roughly like this: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { method1.apply(this); }); return this; }; function method1() { // do stuff with $(this) method2.apply(this); } function method2() { // do stuff with $(this), etc... } })(jQuery);

    Read the article

  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

    Read the article

  • "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

    - by dbarbosa
    Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

    Read the article

  • Problem with cyrillic symbols in console

    - by woto
    Hi everyone, sorry for bad English. It's Ruby code. s = "???????" `touch #{s}` `cat #{s}` `cat < #{s}` Can anybody tell why it's code fails? With sh: cannot open ???????: No such file But thic code works fine s = "????????" `touch #{s}` `cat #{s}` `cat < #{s}` Problem is only when Russian symbol '?' in the word and with symobol '<' woto@woto-work:/tmp$ locale LANG=ru_RU.UTF-8 LC_CTYPE="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_NUMERIC="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_TIME="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_COLLATE="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_MONETARY="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_MESSAGES="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_PAPER="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_NAME="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_ADDRESS="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_TELEPHONE="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_MEASUREMENT="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_IDENTIFICATION="ru_RU.UTF-8" LC_ALL= woto@woto-work:/tmp$ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [x86_64-linux] woto@woto-work:/tmp$ uname -a Linux woto-work 2.6.32-26-generic #48-Ubuntu SMP Wed Nov 24 10:14:11 UTC 2010 x86_64 GNU/Linux woto@woto-work:/tmp$ lsb_release -a No LSB modules are available. Distributor ID: Ubuntu Description: Ubuntu 10.04.1 LTS Release: 10.04 Codename: lucid

    Read the article

  • Persisting object changes from child form to parent form based on button press.

    - by Shyran
    I have created a form that is used for both adding and editing a custom object. Which mode the form takes is provided by an enum value passed from the calling code. I also pass in an object of the custom type. All of my controls at data bound to the specific properties of the custom object. When the form is in Add mode, this works great as when the controls are updated with data, the underlying object is as well. However, in Edit mode, I keep two variables of the custom object supplied by the calling code, the original, and a temporary one made through deep copying. The controls are then bound to the temporary copy, this makes it easy to discard the changes if the user clicks the Cancel button. What I want to know is how to persist those changes back to the original object if the user clicks the OK button, since there is now a disconnect because of the deep copying. I am trying to avoid implementing a internal property on the Add/Edit form if I can. Below is an example of my code: public AddEditCustomerDialog(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { InitializeComponent(); InitializeCustomer(customer, mode); } private void InitializeCustomer(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { this.customer = customer; if (mode == DialogMode.Edit) { this.Text = "Edit Customer"; this.tempCustomer = ObjectCopyHelper.DeepCopy(this.customer); this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer.PhoneList; } else { this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer.PhoneList; } }

    Read the article

  • Practice of checking 'trueness' or 'equality' of conditional statements - does it really make sense?

    - by senthilkumar1033
    I remember many years back, when I was in school, one of my computer science teachers taught us that it was better to check for 'trueness' or 'equality' of a condition and not the negative stuff like 'inequality'. Let me elaborate - If a piece of conditional code can be written by checking whether an expression is true or false, we should check the 'trueness'. Example: Finding out whether a number is odd - it can be done in two ways: if ( num % 2 != 0 ) { // Number is odd } or if ( num % 2 == 1 ) { // Number is odd } When I was beginning to code, I knew that num % 2 == 0 implies the number is even, so I just put a ! there to check if it is odd. But he was like 'Don't check NOT conditions. Have the practice of checking the 'trueness' or 'equality' of conditions whenever possible.' And he recommended that I use the second piece of code. I am not for or against either but I just wanted to know - what difference does it make? Please don't reply 'Technically the output will be the same' - we ALL know that. Is it a general programming practice or is it his own programming practice that he is preaching to others?

    Read the article

  • Read all sub directories within a certain folder to display a random image.

    - by Andy
    I have this code i have been using....but i need a conditional where it will read all the sub directories of /bg to select an image as opposed to a specific folder if they were on a subpage. Heres my code so far which works perfectly for all subpages to display specific images: //This would tell us its on the homepage if it helps: $this->level() == 0 //This is the code so far $path = '/home/sites/mydomain.co.uk/public_html/public/images/bg/'.$this->slug; $homepagefile = URL_PUBLIC.'public/images/bg/'.$this->slug.'/main.jpg'; $bgimagearray = array(); $iterator = new DirectoryIterator($path); foreach ($iterator as $fileinfo) { if ($fileinfo->isFile() && !preg_match('\.jpg$/', $fileinfo->getFilename())) { $bgimagearray[] = "'" . $fileinfo->getFilename() . "'"; } } $bgimage = array_rand($bgimagearray); ?> <div id="bg"> <div> <table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td><img src="<?php echo $file.trim($bgimagearray[$bgimage], "'"); ?>" alt=""/></td> </tr> </table> </div> </div> Any help would be appreciated, im sure its not rocket science but ive tried a few ways and cant get my head around it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • PHP Multi-Domain Sessions; ini_set Not Working?

    - by SumWon
    Hello, I'm trying to set it up so if you log in to my website the session carries over to all sub-domains of my website. For example, if you go to domain.com and log in, then go to sub.domain.com, you'll already be logged in at sub.domain.com. To my understanding, you would want to use ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com') and then session_start(), then set your session variables, but this isn't working. Example of what I'm doing: Code for domain.com: <?php ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com'); session_start(); $_SESSION['variable'] = 1; ?> Code for sub.domain.com: <?php session_start(); echo $_SESSION['variable']; ?> But $_SESSION['variable'] isn't set. I've also tried using ini_set() in the sub.domain.com code, but it made no difference. I've verified that setting session.cookie_domain is working by using ini_get(). What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Fill fields on a webpage

    - by MajuiF
    Hi everyone, I've already asked this question, but it's still too unclear to me, and it seems people haven't understood what I'm trying to do, so I'll try and be clearer. This website: https://www4.polymtl.ca/poly/poly.html is the website I want to fill. What I would like to be able to do, is modify the values of the "nip", "code", and "naissance" fields with text (for example, code being "majuif"). <input type=password name=code size=8 maxlength=8> <input type=password name=nip size=8 maxlength=8> <input type=password name=naissance size=8 maxlength=8> However, I don't know how to do that. And this is my problem. Should I write another HTML file - I don't know if the word "macro" can be used for that, but I'm pretty sure it can - and insert JavaScript in it? Please note that I'm not a professional in JavaScript or HTML, but I have basics, and still learning. Thanks, -Max.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 960 961 962 963 964 965 966 967 968 969 970 971  | Next Page >