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  • Correct way to initialize dynamic Array in C++

    - by mef
    Hey guys, I'm currently working on a C++ project, where dynamic arrays often appear. I was wondering, what could be the correct way to initialize a dynamic array using the new-operator? A colleague of mine told me that it's a no-no to use new within the constructor, since a constructor is a construct that shouldn't be prone to errors or shouldn't fail at all, respectively. Now let's consider the following example: We have two classes, a more or less complex class State and a class StateContainer, which should be self-explained. class State { private: unsigned smth; public: State(); State( unsigned s ); }; class StateContainer { private: unsigned long nStates; State *states; public: StateContainer(); StateContainer( unsigned long n ); virtual ~StateContainer(); }; StateContainer::StateContainer() { nStates = SOME_DEFINE_N_STATES; states = new State[nStates]; if ( !states ) { // Error handling } } StateContainer::StateContainer( unsigned long n ) { nStates = n; try { states = new State[nStates] } catch ( std::bad_alloc &e ) { // Error handling } } StateContainer::~StateContainer() { if ( states ) { delete[] states; states = 0; } } Now actually, I have two questions: 1.) Is it ok, to call new within a constructor, or is it better to create an extra init()-Method for the State-Array and why? 2.) Whats the best way to check if new succeeded: if (!ptr) std::cerr << "new failed." or try { /*new*/ } catch (std::bad_alloc) { /*handling*/ } 3.) Ok its three questions ;o) Under the hood, new does some sort of ptr = (Struct *)malloc(N*sizeof(Struct)); And then call the constructor, right?

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  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

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  • Same function on multiple div classes doesn't work

    - by Sebass van Boxel
    I'm doing something terribly wrong and just can't find the solution for it. Situation: I've got a number of products with a number of quotes per product. Those quote automatically scroll in a div. If the scroll reaches the last quote is scroll back to the first one. What works: The function basically works when it's applied on 1 div, but when applied on multiple div it doesn't scroll back to the first one or keeps scrolling endlessly. This is the function i've written for this: function quoteSlide(divname){ $total = ($(divname+" > div").size()) $width = $total * 160; $(divname).css('width', ($width)); console.log ($totalleft *-1); if ($width - 160 > $totalleft *-1){ $currentleft = $(divname).css('left'); $step = -160; $totalleft = parseInt($currentleft)+$step; }else{ $totalleft = 0; } $(divname).animate(     { left: $totalleft }, // what we are animating     'slow', // how fast we are animating     'swing', // the type of easing     function() { // the callback }); } It's being executed by something like: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); in combination with a setInterval so it keeps scrolling automatically. This is the jsFiddle where it goes wrong (So applied on more than 1 div) http://jsfiddle.net/FsrbZ/. This is the jsFiddle where everything goes okay. (applied on 1 div) When changing the following: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); }, 3400);? to quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); }, 3400);? it does work... but only on 1 quotecontainer.

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function

    - by Radu Vlad
    I have this functions that should return me the distance from point p to segment line v-w. The problem i have is after some time i receive the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function. I receive it in distToSegmentSquared directly,not even calling the function dist2().Is it any other dist2() anywhere in jquery?I found none... function sqr(x) { return x * x; } function dist2(v, w) { console.log(v); console.log(w); return sqr(v.x - w.x) + sqr(v.y - w.y); } function distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w) { var l2 = dist2(v, w); if (l2 == 0) return dist2(p, v); var t = ((p.x - v.x) * (w.x - v.x) + (p.y - v.y) * (w.y - v.y)) / l2; if (t < 0) return dist2(p, v); if (t > 1) return dist2(p, w); return dist2(p, {x: v.x + t * (w.x - v.x), y: v.y + t * (w.y - v.y)}); } function distToSegment(p, v, w) { return Math.sqrt(distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w)); } The values that are given in for that error are: p: Object x: 461 y: 333 v: Object x: 80 y: 120 w: Object x: 260 y: 120

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  • How do I get "Back to My Mac" (using MobileMe) from Windows?

    - by benzado
    I have a MobileMe subscription and a Mac at home with "Back to My Mac" enabled. When I'm away from home, this service lets me use another Mac to connect to my Mac back home and access file sharing, screen sharing, etc. As far as I know, the service doesn't use any proprietary protocols, so in theory I should also be able to get "Back to My Mac" from a Windows PC. This MacWorld article explains how it works. Basically, it uses Wide-Area Bonjour to give your Mac a domain name like hostname.username.members.mac.com. Remote computers can find your Mac using that address, then connect to it using a private VPN. The "Wide Area Bonjour" part seems to make it a little more complicated than simply a regular domain name, though. Note that I'm not interested in using the methods described by LifeHacker, which doesn't use the MobileMe service at all. I don't want to use a totally different dynamic DNS service. I'd like to use the one I'm already paying for, or at least find out why that's not possible from Windows. Also, my primary problem is finding a network route back to my mac... once I've got that I know how to enable services so that Windows can talk to it. UPDATE: Based on some additional research, it appears that Apple is only assigning IPv6 addresses to the hostname.username.members.mac.com names. So any solution will require enabling IPv6 support on Windows, if possible.

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  • Technology mash: is this possible?

    - by Jon Story
    I'm in the process of setting up my own DNS+hosting on a couple of VPS and my home machines, mostly for academic/learning purposes, but also for convenient accessing of my files, hosting my personal websites, private git repositories etc. I've got a main web server with DNS, and a slave DNS server. I've also got a couple of machines at home doing file hosting, video streaming and all that fun stuff. I'm intending to use my VPS's to provide myself with a dynamic DNS system so that I can point mydomain.com at my DNS servers, with home.mydomain.com going into my home network via a raspberry pi. HOWEVER.... I've not got access to the network infrastructure at home (rented accommodation with managed internet), so I can't forward the ports on the router to my own machines. As such, I'm wondering if it's possible to route all the traffic via an SSH/HTTP tunnel through one of the VPS? My plan is to have the raspberry pi provide a VPN into my home network. The raspberry pi uses SSH to connect to the VPS, and the VPS forwards any traffic to home.mydomain.com via the tunnel to the raspberry pi. Is this even possible, and how do I go about it? I don't mind getting my hands dirty with coding and low level tools, I'm just not sure where to start or what the best way to go about it is.

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  • IIS 7: launch unique site instance per host name

    - by OlduwanSteve
    Is it possible to configure IIS 7 so that a single site with multiple bindings (or wildcard bindings) will launch a unique instance for each unique host name? To explain why this is desirable, we have an application that retrieves its configuration from a remote system. The behaviour of the application is governed by this configuration and not by the 'web.config'. The application uses its host name as a key to retrieve the configuration. Currently it is a manual process to create an identical IIS site for each instance of the application, differing only by the bindings. My thought, if it were possible, is that it would be nice to have one IIS site that effectively works as a template for an arbitrary number of dynamic sites. Whenever it is accessed by a unique host name a new instance of the site would be launched, and all further requests to that host name would go to that instance just as though I had created the site by hand. I use IIS regularly, but only for fairly straightforward site hosting. I'd like to know if this could be configured with vanilla IIS 7, but would also welcome answers that require a plugin or 3rd party product. Programming/architectural suggestions about changes to the app wouldn't really be appropriate for serverfault.

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  • how to sum the amount of cells with the same number in a column - Microsoft Excel 2010

    - by jerlebrink
    My english isn't that good, I hope you understand what I wan't to accomplish I have a column (A) with different zip codes ( total of 3583 rows). I need a formula/function to go through each cell and the come up with sum of how many instances (column B) there are of the same zip code (column C).There are probably more than hundred different zip codes so I can't do it manually. Thanks in advance.

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  • ms excel find and replace @ symbol results in broken formula

    - by Loopo
    I'm trying to search and replace in excel, the column is formatted as 'Text'. Find: [@ replace with: @ Whenever this finds a match at the start of a cell i.e the cell contents start with [@ and tries to replace that with @ the result is an error 'This function is not valid' I guess that since the @ operator is for references, this is causing the cell to be interpreted differently (not as text anymore) How do I make this replacement work? Copy/paste into another program is not a good option because some of the cells contain line-breaks.

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  • Is there a way to sort digits within a cell?

    - by Iszi
    I'd like to know if there's an Excel Function, or a formula, that can be used to sort digits within a cell. For example, if the value of A1 is 6193254807 and B1 has our formula with parameters set to sort ascending then B1 should equal 0123456789 (leading zero included). Of course, if the parameters were set so that it would sort descending then B1 should equal 9876543210. Is there a way to do this, without wandering into VBScript, or macros, or something similarly exotic?

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  • excel 2007 enter new date

    - by Lalajee
    I’m try to create a excel template which will have three fields I like to update automatically when it’s open. Fields which this template will have Current Date: 02/07/2012 Sheet Number: 25 Between Date: 02/07/2012 to 02/08/2012 When I open this template after 03/08/2012 this sheet will have new data Current Date: 03/08/2012 Sheet Number: 26 Between Date: 03/08/2012 to 02/09/2012 For current date Private Sub Workbook_Open() ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A1").Value = Date End Sub Can this be done using excel function or do I need to use VB and also how do I update template automatically with new values to say next time use these dates.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Techniques for modeling a dynamic dataflow with Java concurrency API

    - by Maian
    Is there an elegant way to model a dynamic dataflow in Java? By dataflow, I mean there are various types of tasks, and these tasks can be "connected" arbitrarily, such that when a task finishes, successor tasks are executed in parallel using the finished tasks output as input, or when multiple tasks finish, their output is aggregated in a successor task (see flow-based programming). By dynamic, I mean that the type and number of successors tasks when a task finishes depends on the output of that finished task, so for example, task A may spawn task B if it has a certain output, but may spawn task C if has a different output. Another way of putting it is that each task (or set of tasks) is responsible for determining what the next tasks are. Sample dataflow for rendering a webpage: I have as task types: file downloader, HTML/CSS renderer, HTML parser/DOM builder, image renderer, JavaScript parser, JavaScript interpreter. File downloader task for HTML file HTML parser/DOM builder task File downloader task for each embedded file/link If image, image renderer If external JavaScript, JavaScript parser JavaScript interpreter Otherwise, just store in some var/field in HTML parser task JavaScript parser for each embedded script JavaScript interpreter Wait for above tasks to finish, then HTML/CSS renderer (obviously not optimal or perfectly correct, but this is simple) I'm not saying the solution needs to be some comprehensive framework (in fact, the closer to the JDK API, the better), and I absolutely don't want something as heavyweight is say Spring Web Flow or some declarative markup or other DSL. To be more specific, I'm trying to think of a good way to model this in Java with Callables, Executors, ExecutorCompletionServices, and perhaps various synchronizer classes (like Semaphore or CountDownLatch). There are a couple use cases and requirements: Don't make any assumptions on what executor(s) the tasks will run on. In fact, to simplify, just assume there's only one executor. It can be a fixed thread pool executor, so a naive implementation can result in deadlocks (e.g. imagine a task that submits another task and then blocks until that subtask is finished, and now imagine several of these tasks using up all the threads). To simplify, assume that the data is not streamed between tasks (task output-succeeding task input) - the finishing task and succeeding task won't exist together, so the input data to the succeeding task will not be changed by the preceeding task (since it's already done). There are only a couple operations that the dataflow "engine" should be able to handle: A mechanism where a task can queue more tasks A mechanism whereby a successor task is not queued until all the required input tasks are finished A mechanism whereby the main thread (or other threads not managed by the executor) blocks until the flow is finished A mechanism whereby the main thread (or other threads not managed by the executor) blocks until certain tasks have finished Since the dataflow is dynamic (depends on input/state of the task), the activation of these mechanisms should occur within the task code, e.g. the code in a Callable is itself responsible for queueing more Callables. The dataflow "internals" should not be exposed to the tasks (Callables) themselves - only the operations listed above should be available to the task. Note that the type of the data is not necessarily the same for all tasks, e.g. a file download task may accept a File as input but will output a String. If a task throws an uncaught exception (indicating some fatal error requiring all dataflow processing to stop), it must propagate up to the thread that initiated the dataflow as quickly as possible and cancel all tasks (or something fancier like a fatal error handler). Tasks should be launched as soon as possible. This along with the previous requirement should preclude simple Future polling + Thread.sleep(). As a bonus, I would like to dataflow engine itself to perform some action (like logging) every time task is finished or when no has finished in X time since last task has finished. Something like: ExecutorCompletionService<T> ecs; while (hasTasks()) { Future<T> future = ecs.poll(1 minute); some_action_like_logging(); if (future != null) { future.get() ... } ... } Are there straightforward ways to do all this with Java concurrency API? Or if it's going to complex no matter what with what's available in the JDK, is there a lightweight library that satisfies the requirements? I already have a partial solution that fits my particular use case (it cheats in a way, since I'm using two executors, and just so you know, it's not related at all to the web browser example I gave above), but I'd like to see a more general purpose and elegant solution.

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  • How to dynamic call property on javascript object with jQuery

    - by Massimo Ugues
    Hallo all. I got a javascript object with some propeties let's say function Animal() { this.id; this.name; I need to call id function in a dynamic way to get and set its value: something like this Animal animal = new Animal(); var propertyName = "id"; animal.+propertyName = "name"; Is there an elegant way to do it? With jQuery? Kind regards Massimo

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  • jquery get last ID of dynamic div

    - by Pjack
    Couldn't find an answer, but Im trying to get the last ID of the last div that was created on the page. The code I'm using doesn't seem to work using .last(). My syntax is probably wrong but I can't get it to show the ID. jQuery(document).ready(function() {jQuery("a.more_posts").live('click', function(event){ jQuery("div[id^='statuscontainer_']").last(); var id = parseInt(this.id.replace("statuscontainer_", "")); alert(id); }); });

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  • Prevent SQL Injection in Dynamic column names

    - by Mr Shoubs
    I can't get away without writing some dynamic sql conditions in a part of my system (using Postgres). My question is how best to avoid SQL Injection with the method I am currently using. EDIT (Reasoning): There are many of columns in a number of tables (a number which grows (only) and is maintained elsewhere). I need a method of allowing the user to decide which (predefined) column they want to query (and if necessary apply string functions to). The query itself is far too complex for the user to write themselves, nor do they have access to the db. There are 1000's of users with varying requirements and I need to remain as flexible as possible - I shouldn't have to revisit the code unless the main query needs to change - Also, there is no way of knowing what conditions the user will need to use. I have objects (received via web service) that generates a condition (the generation method is below - it isn't perfect yet) for some large sql queries. The _FieldName is user editable (parameter name was, but it didn't need to be) and I am worried it could be an attack vector. I put double quotes (see quoted identifier) around the field name in an attempt to sanitize the string, this way it can never be a key word. I could also look up the field name against a list of fields, but it would be difficult to maintain on a timely basis. Unfortunately the user must enter the condition criteria, I am sure there must be more I can add to the sanatize method? and does quoting the column name make it safe? (my limited testing seems to think so). an example built condition would be "AND upper(brandloaded.make) like 'O%' and upper(brandloaded.make) not like 'OTHERBRAND'" ... Any help or suggestions are appreciated. Public Function GetCondition() As String Dim sb As New Text.StringBuilder 'put quote around the table name in an attempt to prevent some sql injection 'http://www.postgresql.org/docs/8.2/static/sql-syntax-lexical.html sb.AppendFormat(" {0} ""{1}"" ", _LogicOperator.ToString, _FieldName) Select Case _ConditionOperator Case ConditionOperatorOptions.Equals sb.Append(" = ") ... End Select sb.AppendFormat(" {0} ", Me.UniqueParameterName) 'for parameter Return Me.Sanitize(sb) End Function Private Function Sanitize(ByVal sb As Text.StringBuilder) As String 'compare against a similar blacklist mentioned here: http://forums.asp.net/t/1254125.aspx sb.Replace(";", "") sb.Replace("'", "") sb.Replace("\", "") sb.Replace(Chr(8), "") Return sb.ToString End Function Public ReadOnly Property UniqueParameterName() As String Get Return String.Concat(":" _UniqueIdentifier) End Get End Property

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  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

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  • Dynamic Comparison Operators in PHP

    - by BenTheDesigner
    Hi All Is it possible, in any way, to pass comparison operators as variables to a function? I am looking at producing some convenience functions, for example (and I know this won't work): function isAnd($var, $value, $operator = '==') { if(isset($var) && $var $operator $value) return true; } if(isAnd(1, 1, '===')) echo 'worked'; Thanks in advance.

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • jQuery multiple selectors into dynamic attribute

    - by Jason Fletcher
    I am trying to attach an event to a separate onhover trigger. But I am having problems using multiple selectors since its dynamic. Need help ::: Upon hovering on the yellow box named 'Rings', this should trigger the animated slide event for the green box above it. http://home.jasonfletcher.info/all/alliteration/index.html $('.boxgrid1').hover(function(){ $(".cover", this).stop().animate({top:'0px'},{queue:false,duration:300}); }, function() { $(".cover", this).stop().animate({top:'247px'},{queue:false,duration:300}); });

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  • how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

    - by ZhengZhiren
    i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

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  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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  • jquery pass dynamic variable name

    - by Alessandro
    hi function liveUpdate(fld,value,id) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'myurl.html', data: { fld:value, 'id': id }, success: function(data){//console.log(data); } }); } i want fld to be posted as fld's value not the variable name fld? i've tried to wrap around with eval but no luck any ideas? thanks

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